BIO 1020 Patho Final Exam
Question 1
Which symptom is related to tuberculosis (TB)?
Question 1 options:
Cachexia
Night sweats
Hemoptysis
Both B
... [Show More] and C
Question 2 (2 points)
Why is the incidence of strokes rising every year?
Question 2 options:
There is an increased number of older adults.
There is an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease.
Both A and B.
None of the above.
Question 3 (2 points)
What is the mode of transmission for the hepatitis D virus?
Question 3 options:
Blood transfusion
Oral-fecal route
Sexual contact
Both A and C
Question 4 (2 points)
Which specific sign or symptom indicates that a client is suffering from varicose veins?
Question 4 options:
Itching and aching lower leg muscles
Ropiness over a vein in the leg
Tenderness in the vein
Irregular margins in the medial ankle region
Question 5 (2 points)
How would you show your understanding of the fact that vaginal candidiasis a side effect of long-term antibiotic use?
Question 5 options:
By the fact that it is an opportunistic infection.
By the fact that it eradicates lactobacillus in the vagina.
By the fact that it is caused by an antibiotic-resistant bacteria in the vagina.
By the fact that it is caused by decreased vaginal pH due to antibiotic use.
Question 6 (2 points)
What is hypocapnea?
Question 6 options:
Low partial pressure of oxygen
Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide
Diminished partial pressure of carbon dioxide
None of the above
Question 7 (2 points)
While assessing a 7-year-old female client, the primary health-care provider finds that the client has enlargement of the breasts, erection of the nipples, and development of pubic hair. Which hormonal levels can be found high in the client?
Question 7 options:
Estrogen
Gonadotropin
Both A and B
None of the above
Question 8 (2 points)
Which virus caused the Spanish flu epidemic of 1918 that took many lives?
Question 8 options:
Epstein Barr virus
Cytomegalovirus
Influenza virus
Morbillivirus
Question 9 (2 points)
Which condition is caused by an increase in the amount of potassium in the blood?
Question 9 options:
Hypocapnea
Hypotension
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia
Question 10 (2 points)
After assessing a client, a nurse finds that the client has a growth of cancer cells in the bladder, rectum, and other parts of the body. Which stage of cervical cancer should the nurse expect in the client?
Question 10 options:
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Question 11 (2 points)
While reviewing the medication chart of a client, the nurse finds that the client is on a therapy to decrease the release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate. Which disorder will the nurse suspect in the client?
Question 11 options:
Myasthenia gravis
Huntington’s disease
Guillain–Barré syndrome
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Question 12 (2 points)
What is the other name for white blood cells?
Question 12 options:
Leukocytes
Erythrocytes
Thrombocytes
None of the above
Question 13 (2 points)
Based on what would you justify that rubella causes teratogenic side effects?
Question 13 options:
Microcephaly in the fetus
Retinitis in the fetus
Vision impairment in the fetus
Spontaneous abortion of the fetus
Question 14 (2 points)
A 78-year-old man presents to his physician for evaluation of edema. He reports a 3-month history of peripheral edema. Which edema may have developed in the client?
Question 14 options:
Edema in the skin
Edema in the ankle
Edema in the feet and lower legs
None of the above
Question 15 (2 points)
Which is the most malignant type of brain tumor?
Question 15 options:
Meningiomas
Ependymomas
Astrocytic tumors
Oligodendroglial tumors
Question 16 (2 points)
Which component of the blood is involved during an inflammatory response due to a respiratory burst from the mitochondria?
Question 16 options:
Eosinophils
Basophils
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Question 17 (2 points)
Which acts as a blue print for the construction of proteins?
Question 17 options:
Transfer RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Messenger RNA
Mitochondrial DNA
Question 18 (2 points)
Which pulmonary condition is caused by infiltration of bacteria, resulting in a localized area of purulent inflammation, tissue necrosis, and central area of liquefaction?
Question 18 options:
Lung abscess
Myringitis
Tuberculosis
Tracheitis
Question 19 (2 points)
What percentage of filtered electrolytes is reabsorbed at the loop of Henle?
Question 19 options:
15%
25%
40%
60%
Question 20 (2 points)
While assessing a child, a nurse finds that the child has otitis media. Which other finding in the child should the nurse associate with otitis media?
Question 20 options:
Kidney infection
Vaginal infection
Gastrointestinal infection
Upper respiratory tract infection
Question 21 (2 points)
Where does maturation of T lymphocytes occur?
Question 21 options:
Spleen
Bone marrow
Thymus gland
Lymph nodes
Question 22 (2 points)
A nurse observes that a newborn has an abnormally positioned urethral orifice of the penis. Which disorder will the nurse suspect in the newborn?
Question 22 options:
Orchitis
Hypospadias
Cryptorchidism
Testicular torsion
Question 23 (2 points)
A 30-year-old client who presents with symptoms of redness, heat, and pain in the joints undergoes a complete blood count test. The blood report shows an increased white blood cell count. Which condition does this indicate?
Question 23 options:
Inflammation
Anemia
Increased bleeding tendency
Pulmonary embolism
Question 24 (2 points)
Which endocrine disorder involves treatment using antithyroid hormone medication such as propylthiouracil (PTU)?
Question 24 options:
Grave’s disease
Plummer disease
Cushing’s disease
Addison’s disease
Question 25 (2 points)
While assessing a client with a musculoskeletal disorder, the nurse abducts the client’s arm to 90 degrees and places anteriorly directed force on the posterior humeral head from behind. Which test is the nurse performing?
Question 25 options:
Hawkins test
Relocation test
Apprehension test
Neer impingement test
Question 26 (2 points)
The nurse is providing care for four clients diagnosed with different gastrointestinal disorders.
Client Condition
Client 1 Esophagitis
Client 2 Esophageal cancer
Client 3 Dumping syndrome
Client 4 Upper gastrointestinal bleed (UGIB)
Which client does the nurse instruct to avoid eating or drinking food items that are hot or spicy?
Question 26 options:
Client 1
Client 2
Client 3
Client 4
Question 27 (2 points)
The student nurse is performing a Babinski reflex test in a client to assess his or her neurologic system. Which is the correct interpretation by the student nurse?
Question 27 options:
A negative Babinski reflex indicates an upper motor neuron disorder.
A positive Babinski reflex, where the client has flaring of the toes in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot, indicates an upper motor neuron disorder.
A positive Babinski reflex occurs when the toes of the client flex inward upon stimulation of the sole of the foot.
A negative Babinski reflex occurs when there is flaring of the toes in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot.
Question 28 (2 points)
Which statement best differentiates cardiac afterload from cardiac preload?
Question 28 options:
Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole.
Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome.
Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects cardiac output.
Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that enters the right atrium.
Question 29 (2 points)
A nurse is assessing a client who has severe pain in the shoulder, which radiates down the arm. The nurse notes that the client has ptosis, miosis, and enopthalmus. The laboratory reports of the client indicate the presence of lesions on the thoracic inlet. What should the nurse interpret from these findings?
Question 29 options:
The client has Pancoast syndrome.
The client has Trousseau’s syndrome.
The client has Lambert-Eaton syndrome.
The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone.
Question 30 (2 points)
Which type of calculi in the ureter is found most often in clients with spinal cord injuries?
Question 30 options:
Calcium
Struvite
Uric acid
Cystine
Question 31 (2 points)
Which is an example of passive acquired adaptive immunity?
Question 31 options:
Newborns receiving immunity through breast milk
Individuals becoming immune to chicken pox after infection
Individuals becoming immune to measles after infection
None of the above
Question 32 (2 points)
Which factors may lead to an acute inflammation of the pancreas?
Question 32 options:
Excessive alcohol intake
High triglyceride level
Both A and B
None of the above
Question 33 (2 points)
Pain is an unpleasant sensation that is associated with disease. The process by which people experience pain occurs in four phases. Choose the first phase that converts painful stimuli into neuronal impulses.
Question 33 options:
Perception
Modulation
Transduction
Transmission
Question 34 (2 points)
A client presents with a specific type of renal calculi that is not widely prevalent. The nurse knows that this client has been undergoing chemotherapy as part of his or her treatment for cancer. Which is an associated characteristic of the type of renal calculi that is most likely to be present in this client?
Question 34 options:
Urine supersaturated with cystine
High purine levels in the bloodstream
Alkaline pH of urine
Pseudomonas infection in the urinary tract
Question 35 (2 points)
Which microorganism causes inclusion conjunctivitis?
Question 35 options:
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
None of the above
Question 36 (2 points)
A primary health care provider performs a digital rectal exam in a client who is diagnosed with colon cancer and finds that the tumor has invaded into the visceral peritoneum. Which stage of colon cancer should a nurse document in the client’s medical record according to Dukes classification?
Question 36 options:
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Question 37 (2 points)
Which fact would you select to justify why both the Ebola and Marburg viruses are classified as Category A bioterrorism agents?
Question 37 options:
They cause hemorrhagic fevers.
They are virulent, stable, and infective as small-particle aerosols.
They are transmitted by direct contact through blood and body fluids.
There is no standard treatment.
Question 38 (2 points)
A client suffering from an asthma attack is brought to the emergency department. The client’s body temperature is 98.4ºF, pulse rate is 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 24 shallow breaths/minute, and the blood pressure is 136/86 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas values are also documented.
Blood pH 7.30
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide 58 mm Hg
Partial pressure of oxygen 88 mm Hg
Bicarbonate concentration 29 mEq/L
Oxygen saturation 88%
Which condition has the client developed?
Question 38 options:
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Compensated respiratory acidosis
Compensated respiratory alkalosis
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Question 39 (2 points)
The cellular organelle responsible for propelling mucous and inhaled debris out of the lungs is
Question 39 options:
cilia.
microfilament.
secretory vesicle.
endoplasmic reticulum.
Question 40 (2 points)
A client is hospitalized for diarrhea. Arterial blood gas values of the client are documented.
Blood pH 7.50
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide 27 mm Hg
Partial pressure of oxygen 92 mm Hg
Bicarbonate concentration 17 mEq/L
Oxygen saturation 91%
Which statement is correct according to the interpretation of the arterial blood gas?
Question 40 options:
The client has developed alkalosis.
The client has a lung problem.
The client has developed an uncompensated condition.
All of the above
Question 41 (2 points)
Which clinical sign signifies leukocytosis?
Question 41 options:
A white blood count of 3,000/microliter
A white blood count of 52,000/microliter
A decrease in signs and symptoms of infection
Wounds that show no evidence of healing
Question 42 (2 points)
Which cultural and ethnic group of Americans has a lower risk of stroke when compared to other cultural and ethnic groups of Americans?
Question 42 options:
Native Americans
African Americans
Hispanic Americans
Caucasian Americans
Question 43 (2 points)
What factor would contribute to a client having a high hemoglobin count?
Question 43 options:
Being a female
Living at high altitudes
Being of African-American decent
All of the above
Question 44 (2 points)
Which congenital condition occurs due to thyroid hormone deficiency during embryonic development and early neonatal life?
Question 44 options:
Cretinism
Pheochromocytoma
Sheehan’s syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Question 45 (2 points)
Which immunity is developed by an individual after experiencing an illness?
Question 45 options:
Innate immunity
Active acquired adaptive immunity
Passive acquired adaptive immunity
None of the above
Question 46 (2 points)
Which disease is spread from human to human via droplet infections through coughing or sneezing?
Question 46 options:
Mumps
Poliomyelitis
Herpes simplex
West Nile virus infection
Question 47 (2 points)
Which type of melanoma is characterized by deep, penetrative growth and early metastasis?
Question 47 options:
Superficial spreading melanoma
Lentigo maligna melanoma
Acral lentiginous melanoma
Nodular melanoma
Question 48 (2 points)
Which cranial nerve senses the flow of endolymph fluid in the ear?
Question 48 options:
Cranial nerve I
Cranial nerve V
Cranial nerve VIII
Cranial nerve XII
Question 49 (2 points)
Which condition causes pseudohypocalcemia?
Question 49 options:
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypoalbuminemia
Question 50 (2 points)
The nursing instructor is teaching a group of student nurses about the treatment plan for Crohn’s disease. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?
Question 50 options:
“Cholestyramine should be prescribed to clients with ileal disease.”
“Loperamide should be administered in clients to reduce abdominal cramps.”
“Propantheline dicyclomine should be used to relieve chronic diarrhea.”
“Multivitamin supplements are contraindicated since the clients have decreased absorption.”
Question 51 (2 points)
Which diagnostic test is most preferred to detect liver cancer?
Question 51 options:
CA-125 blood test
Papanicolaou test
Barium enema test
Alpha-fetoprotein test
Question 52 (2 points)
The nurse finds a note stating “Reduction in 15% to 20% from the original stomach size” while reviewing the medical record of an obese client. Which surgical procedure can the nurse expect for this client?
Question 52 options:
Gastric bypass
Gastric banding
Sleeve gastrectomy
Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch
Question 53 (2 points)
A client who recently underwent an abdominal surgery is scheduled for an immediate surgery due to a wound healing complication. What is the complication of healing that the client might have developed?
Question 53 options:
Dehiscence
Evisceration
Keloid
All of the above
Question 54 (2 points)
Which birthmarks are characterized by pink, patch-like lesions that occur from permanent blood vessel abnormalities?
Question 54 options:
Port wine stains
Strawberry hemangiomas
Spider veins
Mongolian spot
Question 55 (2 points)
What is a characteristic feature of ulcerative colitis?
Question 55 options:
Presence of pseudopolyps
Continuous areas of inflammation in the large intestine
Both A and B
None of the above
Question 56 (2 points)
Which finding is associated with ectropion?
Question 56 options:
Bulging of the eye out of the orbit
Recession of the eyeball within the orbit
Damage to epithelial surface of the cornea
Turning of the eyelid outward, revealing conjunctiva
Question 57 (2 points)
A client who is unconscious due to drug toxicity is brought to the emergency room. The client’s vital signs include a body temperature of 97.8ºF, pulse rate of 90 beats/minute, respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The arterial blood gas values of the client are also documented.
Blood pH 7.29
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide 32 mm Hg
Partial pressure of oxygen 95 mm Hg
Bicarbonate concentration 17 mEq/L
Oxygen saturation 98%
Which condition has the client developed?
Question 57 options:
Compensated respiratory acidosis
Compensated respiratory alkalosis
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Question 58 (2 points)
The registered nurse is teaching about portal hypertension to a group of student nurses. Which statement by the student nurse indicates the need for further teaching?
Question 58 options:
“Caput medusa is a sign of portal hypertension.”
“Portal hypertension can cause hematemesis.”
“Ascites is associated with portal hypertension.”
“Portal hypertension causes coagulation abnormalities.”
Question 59 (2 points)
The registered nurse is teaching about the pathophysiology of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) to student nurses. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?
Question 59 options:
“NAFLD is linked to metabolic syndrome.”
“Exposure to vinyl chloride can cause NAFLD.”
“Increased level of adiponectin is associated with NAFLD.”
“NAFLD is caused by accumulation of fat in the adipose tissue.”
Question 60 (2 points)
Which wave in the electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization?
Question 60 options:
P wave
Q wave
S wave
T wave
Question 61 (2 points)
Which type of cancer is caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
Question 61 options:
Breast cancer
Cervical cancer
Ovarian cancer
Prostate cancer
Question 62 (2 points)
While reviewing a client’s medical history, a nurse understands that the client is at risk of bleeding because the client’s platelet count is 80,000/uL. Which condition is this?
Question 62 options:
Thrombocytosis
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombus
Thrombosis
Question 63 (2 points)
Which clinical manifestation is observed in a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) rupture?
Question 63 options:
Increased blood pressure
Cool extremities
Hyperthermia
Decreased heart rate
Question 64 (2 points)
A hiker experiences muscle pain and acidosis as he or she ascends a mountain during a long, steep climb. What is the reason for these symptoms?
Question 64 options:
Cellular hypoxia
Autolysis
Heterolysis
Cellular edema
Question 65 (2 points)
What percentage of the body’s cardiac output is received by the kidneys?
Question 65 options:
5% to 10%
20% to 25%
30% to 35%
45% to 50%
Question 66 (2 points)
Where does the liver release its bile?
Question 66 options:
Cystic duct
Hepatic duct
Pancreatic duct
All of the above
Question 67 (2 points)
Which is a normal blood pH?
Question 67 options:
7.00
7.20
7.35
None of the above
Question 68 (2 points)
A client comes to the hospital with reports of chest pain due to lymphoma. Reports show that the lymphoma cells have a rapid growth, but are curable. How would this lymphoma be classified?
Question 68 options:
Low-grade lymphoma
Intermittent-grade lymphoma
High-grade lymphoma
None of the above
Question 69 (2 points)
A nurse is assessing a client with a short but thick neck circumference. Which form of cardiopulmonary disorder can the nurse suspect in the client?
Question 69 options:
Pickwickian syndrome
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Cor pulmonale
Marfan syndrome
Question 70 (2 points)
A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about the normal level for central venous pressure. Which statement made by one of the student nurses indicates effective learning?
Question 70 options:
“The normal range for central venous pressure is 4 to 13 mm Hg.”
“The normal range for central venous pressure is 60 to 80 mm Hg.”
“The normal range for central venous pressure is 12 to 15 mm Hg.”
“The normal range for central venous pressure is 1 to 5 mm Hg.”
Question 71 (2 points)
Which diagnostic finding is most likely to be observed in a client with aplastic anemia?
Question 71 options:
Decreased production of T cells
Decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
Decreased level of immunoglobulin A
Decreased number of Kupffer cells
Question 72 (2 points)
Which condition is related to ankylosing spondylitis?
Question 72 options:
Formation of abscesses in the bone
Inflammation at the joint of the great toe
Formation of abscesses in the paravertebral muscles
Inflammation at the point where tendons and ligaments join the bone around a joint
Question 73 (2 points)
How does Ebstein’s anomaly lead to a small right ventricular chamber?
Question 73 options:
The mitral valve leaflets push into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
A displaced tricuspid valve lowers into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
The pulmonic valve pushes into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
The aortic valve pushes into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber.
Question 74 (2 points)
Which disease can cause iritis and pulmonary fibrosis?
Question 74 options:
Polymyositis
Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Question 75 (2 points)
Which component separates the two labyrinths from each other?
Question 75 options:
Sebum
Cerumen
Perilymph fluid
Endolymph fluid
Question 76 (2 points)
A registered nurse is teaching a group of student nurses about synovial fluid. Which statement made by a student nurse indicates the need for further teaching?
Question 76 options:
“Synovial fluid provides stabilizing effects.”
“The volume of synovial fluid increases in the presence of a joint disease.”
“There is a wide exchange between the bloodstream and the synovial joint.”
“In the synovium, all the essential nutrients are delivered and metabolic byproducts are cleared by the bloodstream.”
Question 77 (2 points)
A client with an infection was brought to the hospital. The complete blood count with differential report shows a white blood cell count of 3,000/uL. Which condition has the client developed?
Question 77 options:
Leukopenia
Leukocytosis
Thrombocytopenia
None of the above
Question 78 (2 points)
Which component enables the blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable during the vascular phase of inflammation?
Question 78 options:
White blood corpuscles
Blood platelets
Inflammatory mediators
C-reactive proteins
Question 79 (2 points)
The nurse is assessing a client with complaints of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and discomfort. The nurse finds that the abdomen is firm and peristalsis is visible. The laboratory reports show electrolyte imbalances. Which condition does the nurse anticipate in the client?
Question 79 options:
Hiatal hernia
Acute gastritis
Pyloric stenosis
Peptic ulcer disease
Question 80 (2 points)
IgA is found most in
Question 80 options:
tears.
plasma.
blood.
All of the above.
Question 81 (2 points)
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic venous insufficiency. Which instruction is appropriate to include in the client’s care plan?
Question 81 options:
Try to reduce your walking throughout the day.
Wear constriction garments.
Apply a cold compression.
Elevate your legs periodically during the day.
Question 82 (2 points)
Which theory explains apoptosis of the ovary?
Question 82 options:
Immunosenescence theory
Telomere shortening theory
Programmed aging of the cell
Damaged-based theory of aging
Question 83 (2 points)
A client who is scheduled for a hysteroscopy asks a nurse about the procedure involved in this technique. Which statement made by the client indicates effective understanding?
Question 83 options:
“A radiopaque dye is used during a hysteroscopy.”
“A scope is inserted into the uterus to take a small amount of tissue.”
“A scope is inserted through a small surgical incision in the abdomen.”
“A thin telescopic type device is inserted via the vagina into the uterus.”
Question 84 (2 points)
Which condition would a nurse expect in a client with polycythemia vera?
Question 84 options:
Hyperuricemia
Orthopnea
Angina
Ulcers on lower extremities
Question 85 (2 points)
Pain that is dull or aching and that occurs in certain parts of the body is referred to as deep somatic pain. Explain how somatic pain is different from other pain.
Question 85 options:
Pain that occurs from ligaments, tendons, and bones
Pain originating in an amputated part of the body
Pain from deep organs resulting from disease processes
Pain originating from the chest and left arm
Question 86 (2 points)
Which complication should be suspected in a client who has an obstruction of the common bile duct?
Question 86 options:
Cholecystitis
Pancreatic cancer
Jaundice
All the above
Question 87 (2 points)
Which type of renal calculi is caused by a genetic disorder associated with the faulty metabolism of an amino acid?
Question 87 options:
Calcium stones
Uric acid stones
Cystine stones
Struvite stones
Question 88 (2 points)
Which neurotransmitter dysfunction has been implicated in Tourette's syndrome?
Question 88 options:
Serotonin
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
None of the above
Question 89 (2 points)
What is the purpose of a Greenfield filter?
Question 89 options:
To prevent the formation of a blood clot
To help burst a blood clot
To prevent a blood clot from traveling
To detect a blood clot
Question 90 (2 points)
How long does a typical wave of renal colic last?
Question 90 options:
10 to 15 minutes
20 to 60 minutes
70 to 90 minutes
5 to 7 minutes
Question 91 (2 points)
Individuals with which tissue types are at high risk for developing Goodpasture’s syndrome in the kidney and lungs?
Question 91 options:
HLA-DR2
HLA-DR3
Both A and B
None of the above
From [Show Less]