A nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an
... [Show More] overweight client?
A. 18.5
B. 24.9
C. 25
D. 32
C. 25
Rationale: Healthy weight is indicates by a BMI of 18.5-24.9. Overweight is defined as an increased body weight in relation to height. It is indicated by a BMI of 25-29.9. Obesity is an excess amount of body fat. It is indicated by a BMI greater than or equal to 30.
Underweight- less than 18.5
A nurse is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
A. 2
Rationale: A good indication of appropriate placement is obtaining gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4.
A nurse is caring for a client with a closed head injury. When pressure is applied to client's nail beds, the client's eyes open and adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists is noted. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glascow Coma Score?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
B. 7 (comatose)
Rationale:
Eye Opening (ranges from 4-1)
4 = spontaneous
3 = to voice
2 = to pain
1 = none
Verbal (ranges from 5-1)
5 = oriented
4 = confused
3 = inappropriate words
2 = incomprehensible sounds
1= none
Motor (raged from 6-1)
6 = obeys command
5 = localizes pain
4 = withdraws
3 = flexion (decorticate posturing)
2 = extension (decerebrate posturing)
1 = none
A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?
A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
D. A client who has bilateral knee-replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.
C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
Rationale: A three-point gait requires the client to bear all of his weight on one foot. With a three-point gait, the client bears weight on both crutches and then on the uninvolved leg, repeating the sequence. The affected leg does not touch the ground.
A nurse is providing teaching about the Mediterranean diet to a client who has a new diagnosis if hypertension. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will limit my intake of red meat to twice weekly."
B. "I can have dairy in moderate portions daily."
C. "I can have fish two times a week."
D. "I can drink wine in moderation."
A. "I will limit my intake of red meat to twice weekly."
Rationale: Following the Mediterranean diet, red meat should be limited to two times monthly. The client should have dairy in moderate portions daily to weekly. The intake of fish and seafood is at least two times per week. Drinking wine is acceptable in moderation.
A nurse is providing dietary education to a client with cholecystitis who has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of education?
A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans
D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans
Rationale: Roast turkey is a low-fat protein option that would be an excellent choice for a low-fat diet.
A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvis organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?
A. Kegel exercises
B. Isometric exercises
C. Circumduction exercises
D. Uterine extension exercises
A. Kegel exercises
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which results in reduction or prevention of pelvic prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. The other mentioned exercises have no direct effect on prevention or reduction of a cystocele.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client with delirium. Which intervention will most effectively reduce the client's risk for falls?
A. Use of a night-light.
B. Demonstrate how to use the call light.
C. Place bedside table in close proximity.
D. Hourly rounding by the nurse.
D. Hourly rounding by the nurse.
Rationale: In the health care environment, hourly rounding by the nurse significantly reduces the occurrence of client falls as well as reducing call light usage and increasing client satisfaction.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage to include in his diet?
A. Table salt
B. Egg yolks
C. White wine
D. Oranges
D. Oranges
Rationale: Client prescribed potassium-wasting diuretics should be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium. Oranges, dried fruits, tomatoes, avocados, dried peas, meats, broccoli, and bananas are all good sources of potassium. Table salt is not a good source of potassium.
A menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate in her daily routine to promote sleep. The nurse would encourage which of the below measures to promote sleep?
A. Consume a warm drink at bedtime.
B. Take an evening walk before bedtime.
C. Take an afternoon nap.
D. Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime.
D. Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime.
Rationale: Limit alcohol, caffeine (stimulant), and nicotine (stimulant) at least 4 hr before bedtime. Exercise regularly; limit exercise at least 2 hr before bedtime. Limit fluids 2 to 4 hr before bedtime.
A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
A. Intact skin with an area of persistent, nonblanchable redness, typically over a bony prominence, that may feel warmer or cooler than the adjacent tissue. The tissue is swollen and has congestion, with possible discomfort at the site. With darker skin tones, the ulcer may appear blue or purple. (Stage 1 pressure ulcer)
B. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to or necrosis of subQ tissue. The ulcer may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer appears as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue and without exposed muscle or bone. Drainage and infection are common. (Stage 3 pressure ulcer)
C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and the dermis. The ulcer is visible and superficial and may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Edema persists, and the ulcer may become infected, possibly with pain and scant drainage.
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures. There may be sinus tracts, deep pockets or infection, tunneling, undermining, eschar (black scab-like material), or slough (tan, yellow, or green scab-like material). (Stage 4 pressure ulcer)
C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and the dermis. The ulcer is visible and superficial and may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Edema persists, and the ulcer may become infected, possibly with pain and scant drainage.
Rationale: This is a stage 2 pressure ulcer (partial-thickness, involving the epidermis and dermis).
A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy that is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?
A. Track oral temperature weekly.
B. Gardening is a good form of mild exercise.
C. Avoid crowded events.
D. Eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables.
C. Avoid crowded events.
Rationale: Clients with neutropenia do not have enough circulating neutrophils to fight off infections. This client should avoid crowds to prevent exposure to colds/viruses. The client should monitor their temperature daily to track trends that could indicate infection. Gardening would expose the client to microbes in the soil that could cause illness. Fruits and vegetables are covered with microbes that while not normally harmful to non-immunocompromised clients can cause infection in clients with myleosuppression. These foods should be cooked before the client ingests them.
A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted for observation and has full range of motion. Which is the best manner to encourage the client to void?
A. Urinal
B. Bedpan
C. Bedside Commode
D. Client Bathroom
D. Client Bathroom
Rationale: The goal is to encourage clients to maintain independence and privacy if the client has full function and is able to safely complete ADLs.
A client with hearing loss has been fitted for a hearing aid. Which of the following teaching points are important for the nurse to discuss with the client?
A. Use the highest setting to promote full auditory comprehension.
B. Use mild soap and water to clean the ear mold.
C. Turn the hearing aid off to conserve battery life during hours of sleep only.
D. Immerse the hearing aid in saline solution to keep it hygienic.
B. Use mild soap and water to clean the ear mold.
Rationale: To clean the ear mold, use mild soap and water while keeping the hearing aid dry. Use the lowest setting that allows hearing without feedback. When the hearing aid is not in use, turn it off or remove the batteries to conserve battery power. Keep replacement batteries on hand.
A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Protective
D. Airborne
D. Airborne
Rationale: The nurse should initiate airborne precautions when a client has an infection that spreads through small droplets that remain airborne for longer periods, such as tuberculosis and measles. The client requires a negative-pressure airflow room, and staff should wear an N95 respirator when in contact with the client. The nurse should initiate contact precautions when a client has an infection that spreads through indirect contact, such as major wound infections or infection with multi-drug resistant organisms such as MRSA. The nurse should initiate droplet precautions when a client has an infection that spreads through droplets larger than 5 microns, such as pneumonia or streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse should initiate a protective environment when clients require a room with positive-pressure airflow, such as those who have undergone stem-cell transplants.
A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Pruritus
B. Hypertension
C. Bradykinesia
D. Xerostomia
C. Bradykinesia
Rationale: The nurse should expect to find bradykinesia or difficulty moving in a client who has Parkinson's disease. The nurse should expect to find oily skin, which results from autonomic dysfunction, rather than pruritus, which results from dry skin. The nurse should expect to find orthostatic hypotension, which results from autonomic dysfunction. Te nurse should expect to find uncontrolled drooling, especially at night, instead of xerostomia or dry mouth in a client who has Parkinson's disease.
A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?
A. Corn bread
B. Mashed potato
C. Lentils
D. Tortillas
D. Tortillas
Rationale: Tortillas contain gluten. Corn bread, mashed potatoes and lentils do not contain gluten. [Show Less]