Gestational diabetes screening occurs between what weeks gestation?
24-48
When you ask the patient to take a deep breath in and then palpate over
... [Show More] the RUQ abdomen. Positive when pain is elicited. This is a sign of ___________.
Murphy's sign; cholecystitis
What are names of LABA medications?
salmeterol
What is encopresis in children?
stool incontinence after the age of being toilet trained
The medical term for being cross-eyed
strabismus
What is atopic dermatitis?
eczema
Tests used to diagnose developmental hip dysplasia
Barlow and Ortolani maneuvers
What is the female athlete triad?
disordered eating, amenorrhea, osteoporosis
How do patients with aortic regurgitation typically present?
they will have a long asymptomatic period followed by exercise intolerance, then dyspnea at rest. The left ventricle eventually fails unless the aortic valve is replaced.
What does the rash of fifth disease (a viral exanthem) look like?
maculopapular rash that blanches easily and may be accompanied by joint aches
What cardiac abnormalities are expected to be heard on auscultation of a pregnant patient?
a venous hum murmur and an S3
When a headache accompanies a stroke, is this most often hemorrhagic or ischemic?
hemorrhagic
AV nicking is most commonly seen on retinal exam of which chronic condition?
hypertension
Within 6 months of being started on a TCA or SSRI, what is a common side effect that occurs?
weight gain
When does otitis media with effusion usually occur?
either before or after an episode of acute otitis media. This effusion is not infected fluid but it is considered a breeding ground for bacteria. This should not be treated with antibiotics.
The medical term for jock itch
tinea cruris
Tinea cruris "jock itch" is a common __________ infection and should be treated with what?
fungal; OTC antifungal cream
What are teaching points for males to avoid contracting tinea cruris?
dry off after swimming and don't stay in a wet bathing suit
Tinea cruris can affect the inner thighs but never what else?
the penis or scrotum
On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a bacterial infection?
cocci and rods
On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a candidal infection?
yeasts
What are dermatophytes?
fungi
On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence of a dermatophytic (fungal) infection?
hyphae that are long, thin, and branching (such as in the case of tinea pedis, tinea cruris, and tinea corporis)
The medical term for ringworm
tinea corporis
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia in peds?
RSV
Viral pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in children of what ages?
6 months to 5 years
What is the simplest way to screen for nutritional adequacy in older adults?
measure their weight
How are scabies treated?
via permethrin and good hygiene
What are common side effects of NSAIDs?
renal impairment, acute renal failure, gastritis
What is the most common cause of pernicious anemias?
vitamin B12 deficiency
How should oral iron supplements be taken?
on an empty stomach with something acidic and high in calcium such as orange juice
Group A strep pharyngitis can be accompanied by what symptoms other than the classic Centor criteria?
abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting
A stool specimen that is positive for WBCs is a sign of what?
a viral or bacterial infection
The only type of incontinence that would not benefit from pelvic floor therapy is what?
overflow incontinence
What do the skin manifestations of a penicillin allergy look like?
hives
What are symptoms that someone will experience as soon as they are started on a SSRI and when will this resolve?
headache, nausea, insomnia, restlessness, agitation; will resolve in 2 weeks
What causes the dry cough in people taking an ACEI?
the buildup of bradykinin which is usually degraded by ACE
ACEI induced coughs usually begin how soon after starting the medication?
within 2 weeks
COPD is often associated with what sequelae?
anxiety and depression
When should an antiviral be started in a patient with shingles?
within 72 hours of the onset of symptoms
What is the drug of choice for treating UTIs in male patients?
bactrim for 7-10 days
What is the leading cause of CKD and ESRD in the united states?
diabetes
What is the usual recommendation about administering MMR and varicella immunizations?
they should be given on the same day or at least one month apart
What are the classic symptoms of an atopic pregnancy?
amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain
What is sideroblastic anemia?
when the bone marrow is unable to incorporate iron into hemoglobin. This may be either inherited or acquired.
Can a pregnant woman get the MMR vaccine while pregnant?
yes
Why are the carotid arteries auscultated for bruits?
this is indicative of generalized atherosclerosis
What is roseola?
a viral exanthem characterized by a high fever for 3 days then abrupt stopping of the fever and a maculopapular rash that blanches. also known as exanthem subitum.
What are signs indicative of a meningitis infection?
Kernig and Brudzinski's signs
Cancer in the bone marrow that results in skeletal destruction
multiple myeloma
What is the average age of diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
65
a skin disorder that causes the nose to enlarge and become red, bumpy, and bulbous
rhinophyma
What are physical exam findings common in alcohol abuse?
tremors, macrocytosis (due to vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies common in alcoholics), hypertension, rhinophyma, peripheral neuropathy, teleangectasia, hepatosplenomegaly
What is the first sign of sexual maturation in a male?
an increase in testicular size (tanner stage 2)
The inability to name a familiar object
anomia
What happens to a womans vital signs when she is in her second trimester of pregnancy?
her blood pressure decreases
What is the most common cause of acute pharyngitis in children?
respiratory viruses
A depressed patient is started on an SSRI. When should another antidepressant be tried if there is no response?
8-12 weeks
If the number of bacteria on a urinalysis are greater than ____________________, this is indicative of a UTI.
100,000
What are signs of a ruptured TM other than the obviously ruptured TM?
muffled hearing and bright red blood in the canal
Osgood Schlatter disease produces pain where?
in the knees
Growing pains usually occur when?
at nighttime
Children with complaints of midbone pain should be worked for what MNM differential?
acute lymphocytic leukemia
NSAIDs should be used in caution with what patient population?
anyone with hypertension because they cause sodium retention and increase blood pressure
What is the most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea?
endometriosis; symptoms include spotting in between periods, cervical stenosis or displacement, nodular or tender uterosacral ligaments
When should AAA screening be performed via US?
once for all males age 65-75 who have ever smoked
What is responsible for the transmission of poison ivy?
the oils from the plant itself. So the only way someone can pass it on to another person is if they still have oil from the plant on their skin (like if they haven't bathed). Note that the fluid inside the blisters is not contagious
Actinic keratosis is a precursor for what?
squamos cell carcinoma
What is papilledema?
swelling of the optic nerve and disc secondary to increased ICP. Often co-occurring with a headache
Is sexual activity safe during pregnancy?
it can expose someone to STDs and it can also stimulate preterm labor due to stimulation of the lower uterine segment and release of oxtocin [Show Less]