ANCC PMHNP Psych-Mental Health NP_Test 1, Complete Questions & Answers-Your patient, whose wife died a few months ago, appears to be very unkempt and
... [Show More] apathetic. Although several months have passed since his wife's death he has not progressed at all through his grieving. You assess this condition as which of the following?
disenfranchised grief
panic disorder
complicated grief
physiologic grief - Correct Answer:
complicated grief
A person has uncomplicated grief when he or she has normal physical, psychological, cognitive and spiritual responses to the death of a significant other. But when the person shows persistent maladaptive behaviors such as not taking care of personal hygiene and/or appearance and does not progress through the mourning process, this is complicated grief.
If a patient has had a myocardial infarction, which of the following atypical antidepressants should not be prescribed within the recovery phase?
Trazodone
Duloxetine
Bupropion
Desvenlafaxine - Correct Answer:
Trazodone
If a patient has had a myocardial infarction, during the recovery phase, the patient should not be prescribed this medication. Trazodone (Desyrel) can cause the patient to develop orthostatic hypotension and priapism.
To get your teaching ideas and concepts across to a poor reader which of the following would be most appropriate?
Use longer sentences.
Use abstract concepts.
Discourage questioning.
Use examples and review. - Correct Answer:
Use examples and review.
To get the idea across to a poor reader use examples and review. The other choices are not helpful. You should use short sentences and easy to read layouts; be concrete rather than abstract; and teach them how to ask questions about their health. Also, tell context first and use visual, use common words and examples, and explain meaning.
A 21-year old woman presents with complaints of milky discharge from her breasts. She doesn't have any other symptoms and is not pregnant, nor has been before. She tells the nurse about each medication that she takes. Which of these drugs may be implicated as the cause of the symptom?
aspirin
Lamotrigine
Risperidone
sertraline - Correct Answer:
Risperidone
Risperidone can cause the greatest prolactin elevation among atypical psychotics. A milky white discharge known as galactorrhea could be a sign of an underlying condition. The fact that the woman takes Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, would likely point to the cause and should be switched with one less likely to have that same side effect.
Which of the following would be considered one of the main things that is responsible for about 2/3 of psychiatric h [Show Less]