ACLS REVISED Test Quiz Bank MOD 011 GRADED A+ Questions & Answers 2023/2024 VERIFIED
Any organized rhythm without a pulse is defined as pulseless
... [Show More] electrical activity (PEA). correct answers True
Synchronized cardioversion is appropriate for treating an unknown wide complex tachycardia. correct answers True
The aorta is the wall that separates the ventricles of the heart. correct answers False
The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is defibrillation. correct answers True
An individual should be cleared-Ñ prior to a shock only when convenient. correct answers False
PEA and asystole are considered non-shockable rhythms and follow the same ACLS algorithm. correct answers True
Transcutaneous pacing should be used on an individual with bradycardia and inadequate perfusion if atropine is ineffective and the individual is exhibiting severe symptoms. correct answers True
Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability. correct answers True
Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes. correct answers False
Fibrinolytic therapy within three hours (in some cases 4.5 hours) of first onset of symptoms is the standard when treating ischemic stroke. correct answers True
100% oxygen is acceptable for early intervention but not for extended periods of time. correct answers True
In a suspected acute stroke individual, you must always immediately obtain IV access. correct answers False
There is never a pulse associated with VF; therefore, you should follow the PEA algorithm with individuals in VF. correct answers False
If the AED advises no shock, you should still defibrillate because defibrillation often restarts the heart with no pulse. correct answers False
If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other options to consider. correct answers False
Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual. correct answers False
For an individiual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often should they be ventilated?
A) Give two breaths every 8 to 9 seconds, or 13 to 15 breaths per minute.
B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
C) Give one breath every 3 to 4 seconds, or 15 to 20 breaths per minute.
D) Give one breath every 8 to 9 seconds, or 6 to 8 breaths per minute. correct answers B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
Which item is NOT a basic airway skill?
A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
B) Bag-mask ventilation
C) Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
D) Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver correct answers A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
Which of the following basic airway adjuncts can be used in a conscious or semiconscious indivudual (with an intact cough and gag reflex)?
A)Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
D) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube) correct answers C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway. How can they be removed?
A) Bag-mask ventllation
B) Laryngeal tube
C) None of the above
D) Suctioning correct answers D) Suctioning
What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
A) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C) Endotracheal tube (ET tube) D) Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) correct answers B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement of an advanced airway is:
A) 15:02
B) 20:01
C) 30:01:00
D) 30:02:00 correct answers D) 30:02:00 [Show Less]