AANP Adult gerontology primary care nurse practitioner study guide 76 Questions with Verified Answers
Pheochromocytoma - CORRECT ANSWER small
... [Show More] vascular tumor of the adrenal medulla, causing irregular secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine, leading to attacks of raised blood pressure, palpitations, and headache. Tx with Alpha blockers
Rovsing's Sign - CORRECT ANSWER Palpation in LLQ ilicits pain in RLQ indicates appendicitis
NYHA classes of Heart Failure - CORRECT ANSWER I No limitation of physical activity. Ordinary physical activity does not cause undue fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea (shortness of breath).
II Slight limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea (shortness of breath).
III Marked limitation of physical activity. Comfortable at rest. Less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea.
IV Unable to carry on any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of heart failure at rest. If any physical activity is undertaken, discomfort increases.
Step-wise Approach to Asthma Diagnosis & Treatment - CORRECT ANSWER Step 1- Mild Intermitten FEV1/PEF > 80% predicted. Symptoms <2 days/week. Albuterol as needed.
Step 2- Mild presistent Asthma (FEV1/PEF > 80% predicted. Symptoms > 2 days/week. Albuterol as needed. Low dose ICS ex Flovent. Alt cromolyn, montelukast, nedocromil, theophylline.
Step 3- Mod presistent (FEV1 or PEF 60-80% predicted. Daily Symptoms. SABA plus low dose ICS or med dose ICS or low dose with leukotriene inhibitor (singulair, theophylline, zileuton).
Step 4- Severe presistent asthma (FEV1/PEF <60% predicted. Symptoms most of day. High dose ICS plus long acting B2 agonist plus oral steroid daily (prednisone).
Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (HAG):
Green Yellow Red Zone: - CORRECT ANSWER PEF based on Height Age Gender. Blow hard using spirometer highest value recorded.
80-100% expected volume Green Zone maintain or reduce meds
50-80% expected volume Yellow Zone increase maintenance therapy. Or Having exacerbation.
Below 50% expected volume Red Zone call 911 give epinephrine inj.
PPD - CORRECT ANSWER Neg- No firm bump forms at the test site, or a bump forms that is smaller than 5 mm (0.2 in.).
A firm bump that is 5 mm (0.2 in.) in size suggests a TB infection in people who are in a high-risk group. HIV, immunocompromise, exposed.
A firm bump that is 10 mm (0.4 in.) in size suggests a TB infection in people who are in a moderate-risk group. healthcare workers, immigrants, homeless.
A firm bump that is 15 mm (0.6 in.) in size suggests a TB infection in people who are in a low-risk group no risk for tb.
Digoxin (Cardiac Glycosides) - CORRECT ANSWER Therapuetic 0.5-2.0
Overdose toxcitity GI upset, arrhythmias, confusion visual changes (yellow/green tinge vision- scotomas). Tx with digibind. order dig level, electrolytes, creatinine ekg.
Thiazide Diuretics - CORRECT ANSWER Pt with both htn and osteoporosis have an extra benefit from thiazides. thiazide diuretics decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys and stimulate osteoclasts formation. Patients with serious sulfa allergies should avoid thiazide diuretics. Potassium sparing diuretics can be used as alternative.
Chlorthalidone (hygroton), hydrochlororthiazide (esidrix, microzide), indapamide (lozol), metolazone (zaroxolyn); indicated for decreased fluid volume, inexpensive, effective, useful in severe hypertension, effective orally, enhances other antihypertensives; adverse reactions: hypokalemia symptoms, hyperuricemia, glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolemia, sexual dysfunction; observe for postural hypotension, caution with renal failure gout and client taking lithium; hypokalemia increases risk for digitalis toxicity, administer postassium supplements.
Avoid with Gout, Best fist line for elderly w/ systolic htn.
Coumadin (Warfarin) - CORRECT ANSWER an anticoagulant administered to prevent blood clots from forming or growing larger
Prophylaxis and/or treatment of venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolus, a fib, valve replacement, recurrent MI, stroke; also immobile pt
Afiib target INR 2-3
If INR 5-9 w/o bleeding hold 2-3 days low dose vit k
avoid leafy veg, broccoli, brussels, canola oil, mayo.
Aldosterone Antagonist - CORRECT ANSWER causes a decrease in potassium excretion (spares K) and decreases Na reabsorption. (spironolactone)
Hirsuitism, htn, sever heart failure. exp spironolactone. Adverse effects are galactorrhea and hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is rarely used to treat htn in primary care due to adverse effects and higher risk of certain cancer.
Postassium Sparing Diuretics - CORRECT ANSWER compete w/ aldosterone at receptor sites causing increase na and water excretion while conserving k and h ions
Alt for Sulfa Allergy Pts to tx HTN.
Triameterene (Dyrenium), Amiloride (Midamor). Combo HCTZ. Severe Hyperkalemia, Avoid renal pts, ace or arbs, do not give potassium supplement or salt subst. Monitor serum K+ 3.5-5.
high risk elder, severe ill, dm.
Ace Inhibitors, ACEI/ARBS - CORRECT ANSWER ACTION: prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the lungs USES: CHF, HTN , usually end in PRIL
Indicated for DM, HTN, CKD pts w/ HTN.
Cat C & D. dont give in preg. excereted in breast milk.
Dry Cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia. Captopril causes agrunolocytosis monitor cbc. switch from ace to arb if cough persist.
Beta Blockers - CORRECT ANSWER **** DO NOT give with ASTHMA, BRONCHIAL CONSTRICTIVE DISEASE!!!****
HTN, post myocardial infarction(first line), angina, arrhythmias, migraine prophylaxis. Adjunct tretment-hyperthyroidism/thyrotoxicosis (decrease HR, anxiety). Migrain prophylaxis-non-cardioselective(blocks beta 1 and beta 2) propanolo, timolol. Cardio Selective blocks beta-1 only atenolol, metoprolol.
Toxicity of these agents include bradycardia, AV blockade, exacerbation of acute CHF; signs of hypoglycemia may be masked (tachycardia, tremor, and anxiety)
Adveser effects, ED, Depression, fatigue, bradycardia.
Loop Diuretics - CORRECT ANSWER Examples a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Bumetanide (Bumex) 2. Loop diuretics inhibit reabsorption of sodium and chloride at the proximal portion of the ascending loop of Henle, increasing water excretion. 3. Side effects / nursing care a. Hypokalemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, hyperuricemia (gout), hyperglycemia b. Teach high potassium foods to include in diet. c. Sulfonamide sensitive patients may have allergic reaction to furosemide. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxic. Hypovolemia, hypotension, pancreatitis, jaundice rash.
Alpha Blockers - CORRECT ANSWER Hypertension with coexisting BPH- Hytrin- Terazosin.
-blockage of alpha 1 receptor leads to vasodilation, decrease peripheral resistance and venous return.
Potent Vasodialator- causes diziness and hypotension. give at beditime low dose titrate up. Careful with frail elderly risk of syncope/falls.
Calcium Channel Blockers - CORRECT ANSWER Diltiazem (cardizem), nifedipine (procardia, adalat), verapamil HCL (calan, isoptin), nisoldipine (sular); inhibits calcium ion influx during cardiac depolarization; decreased SA/AV node conduction; adverse reactions: headache, hypotension, dizziness, edema, nausea, constipation, tachycardia, HF, dry cough; avoid grapefruit juice.
HTN, Raynauds phenomenon(first line)
Tetracylines - CORRECT ANSWER Suppress bacterial growth by inhibiting protein synthesis. Cat D, don't use < 8yrs. Skeletal defects. Causes yellow theeth discoloration. Doxycyline for chlamydia STDs, atypical pna, UTI, otitis media, PCP in AIDS, Lyme. Tetra for acne tx 13/14 y.o.
S/E Photosensativity use sun block. Esophageal ulceration whole tablet drink with 8oz glass of water. Take empty stomach 1hr before or 2hrs after meal. Decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Macrolides - CORRECT ANSWER Clarithromycyn (Biaxin),Erythromycin; CYP 34A inhibitors. Azithromycin (Zithromax), Indications: Biaxin (PO): URI, including strep, as adjunt treatment for H. pylori Zithromax (IV): gram-negative and gram-positive organisms; Adverse reactions: pseudo-membrane colitis, phlebitis, superinfection, dizziness, dyspnea; give biaxin XL with food, space MAO inhibitors 14 days before start and after end of Biaxin; report diarrhea, abdominal cramping; monitor liver/renal labs; PO Zithromax give on empty stomach. QT prolong, ototoxicity, choletstatic jaundice, gi distress.
Ketex (Telithromycin)- tx mild-mod CAP Adults. narrow indication. C/I myestenia gravis pts. heptatis or jaundice pts.
Interact with anitcoags, dig, theophylline, astimizole, carbamazepine, cisapride, triazolam, terfenade.
Cephalosporins - CORRECT ANSWER Betalactam family of ABX. Interfere cell wall synthesis of bacteria.
1st gen- active gram + bacteria Keflex tx cellulitis uti in preg.
2nd gen- broad spectrum tx gram + & - bacterial infections. Cefuroxime (ceftin), Cefprozil (cefzil), Cefaclor (ceclor). Sinusitis, AOM, CAP, chronic bronchitis, skin infections.
3rd gen- treats gram - less potent towards gram +. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) STDs gonnorrhea, PID, urethritis. Cefixime (suprax) ENT OAM in children, acute sinusitis. Cefdinir (Omnicef) pyelonephritis, CAP.
Penicillins - CORRECT ANSWER beta lactams that inhibit bacterial ell wall synthesis by binding to one or more penicillin binding proteins, which in turn prevents the final transpeptidation step of peptidoglycan synthesis in bacterial cell walls.
Amoxicillin & Ampicillin extended spectrum effective against gram + and some gram - bacteria. Tx otitis media, sinusitus. Penicillin V tx strep. Benzathine Penicillin G IM for syphillis. Dicloaxacillin for cellulitis,ersipelas.
Adverse effects: Diarrhea, Cdiff, Vaginitis candida.
Do not treat mono with amox tx with penicillin vk causes rash.
Fluoroquinolones - CORRECT ANSWER Gram - & Atypical bacteria.
Ciprofloxacin, norfloxacin, levofloxacin, ofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin, enoxacin
causes tendonitis, tendon rupture, tooth damage
Tx Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Legionella, utis, pylenephritis, pna, sinusitus.
High risk achilles tendon rupture. Avoid use with QT prolong drugs (amiodorone, macrolides, TCA, Antiphsycotics). Risk sudden death from arrythmia (torsa de pointes). Coadministration with antacids decreases effectiveness of drug. monitor INR on coumadin.
C/I children less 18 yrs, preg, breast feeding, myasthenia gravis.
Sulfonamides - CORRECT ANSWER Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) Bactrim DS BID- prophylaxis treatment of PCP, MRSA cellulitis, UTIs, pyelonephritis
Uses 1. Urinary tract infections. 2. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. 3. Bowel prep before colon surgery to kill intestinal bacteria. B. Examples of Drugs (Note the Sulfa and Gant) 1. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) 2. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) a. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)(contains salicylate) 3. Sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol) is given primarily in combination with Trimethoprim (Proloprim) as Septra or Bactrim. C. Side effects / nursing care 1. Photosensitivity- rash 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Kidney stones- push fluids 4. Tell patients to avoid direct sunlight while taking sulfonamides. 5. Encourage fluids to avoid crystal formation and renal dysfunction.
C/I G6PD anemia causes hemolysis, newborns <2 months, preg 3rd tri causes hyperbilirubenemia/ kernicterus. hypersen to sulfa drugs.
skin rash steven jhonson syndrome, interacts with warfarin increases INR.
NSAIDS - CORRECT ANSWER Inhibit prostaglandin and other chemical mediator syntheses and other chemical mediator synthesis involved in pain; antipyretic activity through action on the hypothalamic heat-regulating center to reduce fever
Mild/moderate pain, fever, arthritis, and blood thinner. Take with food will cause GI ulcers, Do not give this and aspirin together, stop taking 1 week before surgery.
Topical Nasal Decongestants - CORRECT ANSWER Oxymetazoline Nasal Spray(Afrin), Phenylephrine(Neo-Synephrine
Relieve the discomfort of nasal congestion that accompanies the common cold, sinusitis, and allergic rhinitis
Can cause rebound congestion if used longer than 3 to 4 days.
Antihistamines - CORRECT ANSWER Called histamine antagonists or H1 blockers; they compete for receptor sites, thus preventing a histamine response.
Benadryl avoid with elderly use claritin instead. Zyrtec more potent and long acting.
Decongestants - CORRECT ANSWER pseudoephedrine and pheylephrin
robitussin, sudafed, allegra, afrin, nasonex
constrict blood vessels of nasal passages and limit blood flow, which causes swollen tissues to shrink so that air can pass more freely through the passageways
CI with HTN, CAD (angina MI). Avoid mixing with stimulants caffeine causes elevated bp palpitations, anxiety, arrythymias. dont give within 14 days of MAOI and seligine (eldepryl).
Aspirin - CORRECT ANSWER Irrevesiable supresses platelet function for 7 days. discontinue if c/o tinnitus (toxicity). 81/day for chronic use. Give post MI/Stroke considered tertiary prevention. Avoid in children with viral infections less than 16 years causes Reye's syndrome.
Steroids Glucocorticoids - CORRECT ANSWER Hydrocortisone, prednisone, dexmethasone; indicated for hormone replacement, severe rheumatoid arthritis, and autoimmune disorders; , temporal arteritis uveitis.
asthma exacerbation 40-60 mg/day 3-4 days. Medrol dose pack x 7 days.
adverse reactions: emotional liability, impaired wound healing, skin fragility, abnormal fat disposition, hyperglycemia, hirsutism, moon face, osteoporosis; wean slowly; monitor serum potassium, glucose and sodium; weigh daily and report >5lb/week; administer with antiulcer drugs; prevent injurys; monitor BP and HR.
HPA supression, cushings disease,
Topical Steroids Potency - CORRECT ANSWER Class 1-7
Superpotent Class 1- Clobetasol (temovate)
Potent- Halocinonide (Halog)
Moderate- Triamcinolone (kenalog)
Least Potent- hydrocortisone class 7.
Biguanindes - CORRECT ANSWER Metformin (Glucophage) decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glycolysis and peripheral glucose uptake (increases insulin sensitivity
Sulfonylureas - CORRECT ANSWER First generation: Tolbutamide (oranase), chlorpropamide (diabinase), second generation: Glyburide (micronase, diabeta), glipizide (glucotrol), glimeprode (amaryl); lowers blood sugar by stimulating the release of insulin by the beta cells of the pancreas + causes tissues to take up and store glucose more easily; first generation are low potency and short acting; second generation are high potency and longer acting; adverse reactions: first generations: hypoglycemia, nausea, heartburn, constipation, anorexia, agranulocytosis, allergic skin reactions; second generation reactions: weight gain, hypoglycemia; first generation: responsiveness may decrease over time; once daily with first meal; monitor blood sugar; hard to detect hypoglycemia; second generation: less likely to interact with other medications
Thiazolidinediones - CORRECT ANSWER Rosiglitazone (avandia), pioglitazone (actos); lowers BS by decreasing insulin resistance of the tissues; adverse reactions: hypoglycemia, increased total cholesterol, weight gain, edema, anemia; skip dose if meal skipped; no known drug interactions; monitor liver function; caution with use in CAD; may precipitate HF
Bile Acid Sequestrant - CORRECT ANSWER Colesevelam (Welchol) reduces hepatic glucose production and may reduce intestinal absorption of glucose.
Meglintinide - CORRECT ANSWER Repaglinide (prandin) Nateglinide (starlix). Stimulates release of insulin in response to glucose load (meal) which lowers blood sugar, can cause hypoglycemia. Indicated for DM2 with posparandial hyperglycemia.
Incretin Mimetic - CORRECT ANSWER Byetta
Liraglutide (Victoza®)
stimulate insulin secretion;also inhibits glucagon secretion & delays stomach emptying
Mitral Area - CORRECT ANSWER (apex of heart)- located in the fifth left intercostal space, medial to the midclavicular line.
Aortic Area - CORRECT ANSWER second ICS to the right side of the upper border of the sternum.
MR ASH - CORRECT ANSWER Systolic Murmurs
MITRAL REGURGITATION- radiates to axilla loud blowing high pitched.
AORTIC STENOSIS- midsystolic ejection radiates to neck. harsh noisy. avoid physical exersion sudden death.
serial cardiac sonogram, doppler surgical replacement.
MS ART - CORRECT ANSWER Diastolic Murmurs
MITRAL STENOSIS- low pitched rumbuling opening snap use bell steth.
AORTIC REGURGITATION- high pitched blowing murmur.
psoas/ illiopsoas - CORRECT ANSWER flex hip 90* ask pt to push agaist resistant to straighten leg pain acute appendicitis ectopic preg
obturator sign - CORRECT ANSWER used for acute appendicitis or any suspected retroperitoneal area acute process. rotate right hip through full range of motion. Positive sign if pain with the movement or flexion of the hip
Mcburney's point - CORRECT ANSWER 1/3 away from the iliac crest to the umbilicus and 2/3 from the umbillicus to the iliac crest, rebound pain, pressing in can releive pain,jump up worsens pain-appendix
Markel Test - CORRECT ANSWER heel jar, detects appendicitis and peritonitis. stand on toes, quickly stomp on heel, it should reproduce the pain. +
Murphy's Maneuver - CORRECT ANSWER Press deeply on the right uooer quadrant under the costal border during inspiration mid inspiratory arrest is positive finding : shows acute cholecystitis
Cranial Nerves
On Old Olympus Towering Tops A Finn And German Viewed Some Hops - CORRECT ANSWER CN 1: Olfactory: Smell
CN2: Optic (vision)
CN3: Oculomotor (eye movement)
CN4: Trochlear (eye movement superio oblique muscle of eye)
CN5: Trigeminal (Facial Sensation) opthalimic, maxillary and mandibular branches.
CN6: Abducense ( lateral muscle of eye movement)
CN7: Facial (expressions of face)
CN8: Acoustic (hearing)
CN9: Glossopharyngeal ( swallowing speech worsk with vagus)
CN10: Vagus (speech, heart rate)
CN 11: Spinal Accessory (shoulders shrugging together)
CN12: Hypoglossal (tongue movements, speech swallowing).
kernig's sign - CORRECT ANSWER This is a positive sign of meningitis that is when there is pain in the lower back or posterior(Back of) thigh that occurs when knee is extended while pt is lying in supine position and the hip is flexed at a right angle (pt can not straighten leg out if bent at knee when raised)
Brudzinski's sign - CORRECT ANSWER meningeal sign- neck stiffness causes a patients hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed
Turner's Sign - CORRECT ANSWER Bruising on either flank that may indicate retroperineal bleeding into the abdominal wall
Cullen's Sign - CORRECT ANSWER Ecchymosis (edema and bruising) around the umbilicus (may indicate internal bleeding or major organ injury)
Tinel's Sign - CORRECT ANSWER This test is done in carpel tunnels syndrom. Tap over the median nerve and it is positive if tingling occurs
Phalen's sign - CORRECT ANSWER test for carpal tunnel syndrome: flex wrists by putting hands back to back
Navicular Fracture - CORRECT ANSWER fracture of navicular/scaphoid bone of the wrist. has lim blood supply so poor healing. if not diagnosed quick, arthritic changes can occur.
pain over snuffbox, fell forward. original x-ray wil be wnl- do a repeat in 2 weeks to show scaphoid fracture due to callous bone formation. Splint wrist- thumb spica cast
Colles fracture - CORRECT ANSWER the break of the distal end of the radius at the epiphysis often occurs when the pt has attempted to break his/her fall. fractured distal radius with dinner fork appearance.
Lachman's Sign - CORRECT ANSWER knee joint laxity is positive. suggest ACL damage of the knee. More sensitive than the anterioir drawer test for ACL damage.
McMurray's Test - CORRECT ANSWER knee pain and a "click" sound upon manipulation of the kneee is positive. Suggests injury to the medial meniscus. gold standard test for joint damage is the MRI
Drawer Sign - CORRECT ANSWER a test for knee instability. A diagnostic sign of a torn or ruptured ligament. The positive anterior drawer sign is the test for the anterior cruciate ligament (ACLS). the posterior drawer sign is the test for the posterior cruciate ligament(PCL)
Finkelstein's Test - CORRECT ANSWER De Quervains tenosynovitis is caused by an inflammation of the tendon and its sheath, which is located at the base of the thumb. The screening test is finkelsteins , which is positive if there is pain and tenderness o the wrist(thumb sign) upon ulnar deviation(abductor pollicis longus and extensore pollicis brevis tendons)
Cuada Equina Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER Signs and Symptoms: low back pain, unilateral or bilateral sciatica, saddle anesthesia with poor rectal tone, bowel/bladder incontinence, lower extremity motor and sensory loss
Hyperthyroidism - CORRECT ANSWER Grave's disease
Hypersecretion of thyroxine from immune system attacking thyroid gland causing anxiety, irritability, insomnia, tachycardia, tremors, diaphoresis, sensitivity to heat, weight loss, exophthalmos and photosensitivity, diarrhea, hair loss.
The classic finding is a very low (or undetectable )TSH with elevations in both serum free T4(thyroxine) and T3(triiodothyronine )levels. The most common cause for hyperthyroid in the US is chronic autoimmune disorder called Graves disease
Tx with PTU propylthiouracil shrinks thyroid.
Methimazole decrease hormone production. S/E skin rash granulocytopenia, hepatic necrosis. monitor cbc, lfts. Betablockers propranolol for symptoms of tachycardia.
Radioactive Iodine not for preg woman. Permanent destruction of thyroid gland. life long thyroid replacement therapy.
Hypothyroidism - CORRECT ANSWER A disorder caused by a thyroid gland that is slower and less productive than normal
The classic lab finding for hypothyroidism is a high TSH with low free T4(no not confuse with total T4)
Tx with Levothyroxine (synthroid 25 mcg/day start low dose). Check TSH levels 6-8 weeks.
Thyroid Cancer - CORRECT ANSWER a single large nodule(>2.5 cm)on one lobe of the thyroid gland. The 24 hour radioactive iodine uptake(RAIU) test will show a cold nodule
Type 1 Diabetes - CORRECT ANSWER form of diabetes mellitus that is an autoimmune disease; results in the destruction of beta islet cells and a complete deficiency of insulin on the body; usually occurs before age 30.
Type 2 Diabetes - CORRECT ANSWER Diabetes of a form that develops especially in adults and most often obese individuals and that is characterized by high blood glucose resulting from impaired insulin utilization coupled with the body's inability to compensate with increased insulin production.
fasting glucose 100-125
A1C 5.7-6.4
2 hr ogtt 140-199
Dawn Phenomenon - CORRECT ANSWER A nocturnal release of growth hormone, which may cause blood glucose level elevations before breakfast in the client with diabetes mellitus. Treatment includes administering an evening dose of intermediate acting insulin at 10 pm.
Somogyi Effect - CORRECT ANSWER Rebound HYPERglycemia in AM in response to counterregulatory hormone release after episode of hypoglycemia in middle of the night
Insulin Categories - CORRECT ANSWER Humalog Rapid acting covers one meal at a time
Short Acting Regular covers from meal to meal
NPH long acting last from breakfast to dinner
Lantus 24hrs.
Medicare part A - CORRECT ANSWER The part of the Medicare program that pays for hospitalization, care in a skilled nursing facility, home health care, and hospice care.
Medicare part B - CORRECT ANSWER The part of the Medicare program that pays for physician services, outpatient hospital services, durable medical equipment, and other services and supplies.
Medicare part C - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare Managed Care Plans (formally Medicare Plus (+) Choice Plan) was created to offer a # of healthcare services in addition to those available under Part A & Part B. The CMS contracts w/ managed care plans or PPO's to provide Medicare benefits. A premium similar to Part B may be required for coverage to take affect
Medicare part D - CORRECT ANSWER Also known as the Medicare prescription drug benefit. Only individuals who are enrolled (or eligible) for Medicare Part A and/or Part B are eligible. One type of Part D coverage is called the Medicare Advantage plan (MA)
Medicade Title 19 - CORRECT ANSWER the government insurance program for low-income individuals & familys that is funded both by the federal government & each individual state
Advanced Directives - CORRECT ANSWER Communicates a client's wishes regarding and end-of-life care should the client become unable to do so. PSDA requires that all health care facilities ask if a patient has advanced directives upon admission.
Living Will - CORRECT ANSWER A document that indicates what medical intervention an individual wants if he or she becomes incapable of expressing those wishes.
Power of Attorney - CORRECT ANSWER Written legal document designating some other person as an attorney-in-fact. They then may bargain and sign for the person who granted the power of attorney.
AOM tx - CORRECT ANSWER Pathogens: S. pneumo, H. flu (nontypeable), M. catarrhali
CAD risk factors - CORRECT ANSWER HTN
FAM HX
DM
DYSLIPIDEMIA
LOW HDL
AGE MEN >45
WOMEN>55
SMOKING
OBESITY
MICROABLUMINURIA
CAROTID ARTERY DISEASE
PVD [Show Less]