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TEST BANK - PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING BY MARY TOWNSEND (9TH EDITION, 2017), PSYCHIATRIC-MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 8TH EDITION BY VIDEBECK TEST BANK AND ESSENTIALS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH...
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Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition Concepts of Care in Evidence-Based Prac
Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 8th Edition Concepts of Care in Evidence-Based Practice 8th Edition Morgan Townsend Test Bank 2023 Upda... [Show More] te Chapter 1. Mental Health and Mental Illness Multiple Choice 1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The clients appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the clients behaviors? 1. The clients behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. 2. The clients behaviors are extensive, which indicates the presence of mental illness. 3. The clients behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. 4. The clients behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness. ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should assess that the clients daily functioning is not impaired. The client who experiences feelings of sadness after the loss of a pet is responding within normal expectations. Without significant impairment, the clients distress does not indicate a mental illness. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Assessment 2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental illness? 1. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. 2. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. 3. When a client communicates significant distress. 4. When a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection. ANS: 2 Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental illness when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental illness, daily functioning must be significantly impaired. The clients ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 3. A nurse is assessing a set of 15-year-old identical twins who respond very differently to stress. One twin becomes anxious and irritable, and the other withdraws and cries. How should the nurse explain these different stress responses to the parents? 1. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary. 2. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors. 3. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress. 4. Environmental influences to stress weigh more heavily than genetic influences. ANS: 1 Rationale: The nurse should explain to the parents that, although the twins have identical DNA, there are several other factors that affect reactions to stress. Mental health is a state of being that is relative to the individual client. Environmental influences and temperament can affect stress reactions. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 4. Which client should the nurse anticipate to be most receptive to psychiatric treatment? 1. A Jewish, female social worker. 2. A Baptist, homeless male. 3. A Catholic, black male. 4. A Protestant, Swedish business executive. ANS: 1 Rationale: The nurse should anticipate that the client of Jewish culture would place a high importance on preventative health care and would consider mental health as equally important as physical health. Women are also more likely to seek treatment for mental health problems than men. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Planning 5. A psychiatric nurse intern states, This clients use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated. Which is a correct evaluation of this nurses statement? 1. Defense mechanisms can be appropriate responses to stress and need not be eliminated. 2. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated. 3. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged and not eliminated. 4. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged. ANS: 1 Rationale: The nurse should determine that defense mechanisms can be appropriate during times of stress. The client with no defense mechanisms may have a lower tolerance for stress, thus leading to anxiety disorders. Defense mechanisms should be confronted when they impede the client from developing healthy coping skills. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation 6. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, Im here for my heart, not my head problems. Which is the nurses best response? 1. Its just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions. 2. Why are you concerned about these types of questions? 3. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions. 4. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isnt imperative that we complete this section. ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should attempt to educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. It is not appropriate to skip physiological and psychosocial questions, as this would lead to an inaccurate assessment. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 7. An employee uses the defense mechanism of displacement when the boss openly disagrees with suggestions. What behavior would be expected from this employee? 1. The employee assertively confronts the boss. 2. The employee leaves the staff meeting to work out in the gym. 3. The employee criticizes a coworker. 4. The employee takes the boss out to lunch. ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should expect that the client using the defense mechanism displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement refers to transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Assessment 8. A fourth-grade boy teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a nurse as indicative of which defense mechanism? 1. Displacement 2. Projection 3. Reaction formation 4. Sublimation ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should identify that the boy is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation is the attempt to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed by expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors. Displacement refers to transferring feelings from one target to another. Rationalization refers to making excuses to justify behavior. Projection refers to the attribution of unacceptable feelings or behaviors to another person. Sublimation refers to channeling unacceptable drives or impulses into more constructive, acceptable activities. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 9. Which nursing statement about the concept of neurosis is most accurate? 1. An individual experiencing neurosis is unaware that he or she is experiencing distress. 2. An individual experiencing neurosis feels helpless to change his or her situation. 3. An individual experiencing neurosis is aware of psychological causes of his or her behavior. 4. An individual experiencing neurosis has a loss of contact with reality. ANS: 2 Rationale: The nurse should define the concept of neurosis with the following characteristics: The client feels helpless to change his or her situation, the client is aware that he or she is experiencing distress, the client is aware the behaviors are maladaptive, the client is unaware of the psychological causes of the distress, and the client experiences no loss of contact with reality. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 10. Which nursing statement regarding the concept of psychosis is most accurate? 1. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. 2. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress. 3. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems. 4. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality. ANS: 2 Rationale: The nurse should understand that the client with psychosis experiences little distress owing to his or her lack of awareness of reality. The client with psychosis is unaware that his or her behavior is maladaptive or that he or she has a psychological problem. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 11. When under stress, a client routinely uses alcohol to excess. Finding her drunk, her husband yells at the client about her chronic alcohol abuse. Which action alerts the nurse to the clients use of the defense mechanism of denial? 1. The client hides liquor bottles in a closet. 2. The client yells at her son for slouching in his chair. 3. The client burns dinner on purpose. 4. The client says to the spouse, I dont drink too much! ANS: 4 Rationale: The clients statement I dont drink too much! alerts the nurse to the use of the defense mechanism of denial. The client is refusing to acknowledge the existence of a real situation and the feelings associated with it. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 12. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife should indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief? 1. If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out. 2. I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did. 3. Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience. 4. I still dont have any appetite and continue to lose weight. ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should evaluate that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief because during this stage of the grief process, the client would be able to focus on the reality of the loss and its meaning in relation to life. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Evaluation 13. A nurse is performing a mental health assessment on an adult client. According to Maslows hierarchy of needs, which client action would demonstrate the highest achievement in terms of mental health?1. Maintaining a long-term, faithful, intimate relationship.2. Achieving a sense of self-confidence.3. Possessing a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizing full potential.4. Developing a sense of purpose and the ability to direct activities. ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should identify that the client who possesses a feeling of self-fulfillment and realizes his or her full potential has achieved self-actualization, the highest level on Maslows hierarchy of needs. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 14. According to Maslows hierarchy of needs, which situation on an in-patient psychiatric unit would require priority intervention by a nurse?1. A client rudely complaining about limited visiting hours.2. A client exhibiting aggressive behavior toward another client.3. A client stating that no one cares. 4. A client verbalizing feelings of failure. ANS: 2 Rationale: The nurse should immediately intervene when a client exhibits aggressive behavior toward another client. Safety and security are considered lower-level needs according to Maslows hierarchy of needs and must be fulfilled before other higher-level needs can be met. Clients who complain, have feelings of failure, or state that no one cares are struggling with higher-level needs such as the need for love and belonging or the need for self-esteem. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Evaluation 15. How would a nurse best complete the new DSM-5 definition of a mental disorder? A health condition characterized by significant dysfunction in an individuals cognitions, or behaviors that reflects a disturbance in the 1. psychosocial, biological, or developmental process underlying mental functioning. 2. psychological, cognitive, or developmental process underlying mental functioning. 3. psychological, biological, or developmental process underlying mental functioning. 4. psychological, biological, or psychosocial process underlying mental functioning. ANS: 3 Rationale: A health condition characterized by significant dysfunction in an individuals cognitions, or behaviors that reflects a disturbance in the psychological, biological, or developmental process underlying mental functioning, is the new DSM 5 definition of a mental disorder. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment Multiple Response 16. A nurse is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing some anxiety during questioning. Which symptoms might the client demonstrate that would indicate anxiety? (Select all that apply.) 1. Fidgeting 2. Laughing inappropriately 3. Palpitations 4. Nail biting 5. Limited attention span ANS: 1, 2, 4 Rationale: The nurse should assess that fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are indicative of heightened stress levels. The client would not be diagnosed with mental illness unless there is significant impairment in other areas of daily functioning. Other indicators of more serious anxiety are restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment Fill-in-the-Blank 17. is a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness. ANS: Anxiety Rationale: The definition of anxiety is a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness. Townsend considers this a core concept. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 18. is a subjective state of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity. ANS: Grief Rationale: The definition of grief is a subjective state of emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a valued entity. Townsend considers this a core concept. Chapter 2. Biological Implications Multiple Choice 1. A depressed client states, I have a chemical imbalance in my brain. I have no control over my behavior. Medications are my only hope to feel normal again. Which nursing response is appropriate?1. Medications only address biological factors. Environmental and interpersonal factors must also be considered.2. Because biological factors are the sole cause of depression, medications will improve your mood.3. Environmental factors have been shown to exert the most influence in the development of depression.4. Researchers have been unable to demonstrate a link between nature (biology and genetics) and nurture (environment). ANS: 1 Rationale: The nurse should advise the client that medications address biological factors, but there are other factors that affect mood. The nurse should educate the client on environmental and interpersonal factors that can lead to depression. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Implementation 2. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder asks, What part of my brain controls my emotions? Which nursing response is appropriate?1. The occipital lobe governs perceptions, judging them as positive or negative.2. The parietal lobe has been linked to depression.3. The medulla regulates key biological and psychological activities.4. The limbic system is largely responsible for ones emotional state. ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should explain to the client that the limbic system is largely responsible for ones emotional state. This system if often called the emotional brain and is associated with feelings, sexuality, and social behavior. The occipital lobes are the area of visual reception and interpretation. Somatosensory input (touch, taste, temperature, etc.) occurs in the parietal lobes. The medulla contains vital centers that regulate heart rate and reflexes. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 3. Which part of the nervous system should a nurse identify as playing a major role during stressful situations? 1. Peripheral nervous system 2. Somatic nervous system 3. Sympathetic nervous system 4. Parasympathetic nervous system ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should identify that the sympathetic nervous system plays a major role during stressful situations. The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for the fight-orflight response. The parasympathetic nervous system is dominant when an individual is in a nonstressful state. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Integrated Process: Assessment 4. Which client statement reflects an understanding of circadian rhythms in psychopathology?1. When I dream about my mothers horrible train accident, I become hysterical. 2. I get really irritable during my menstrual cycle.3. Im a morning person. I get my best work done before noon. 4. Every February, I tend to experience periods of sadness. ANS: 3 Rationale: By stating, I am a morning person, the client demonstrates an understanding that circadian rhythms may influence a variety of regulatory functions, including the sleep-wake cycle, regulation of body temperature, and patterns of activity. Most humans follow a 24-hour cycle that is largely affected by lightness and darkness. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Evaluation 5. Which types of adoption studies should a nurse recognize as providing useful information for the psychiatric community? 1. Studies in which children with mentally ill biological parents are raised by adoptive parents who were mentally healthy.2. Studies in which children with mentally healthy biological parents are raised by adoptive parents who were mentally ill. 3. Studies in which monozygotic twins from mentally ill parents were raised separately by different adoptive parents.4. Studies in which monozygotic twins were raised together by mentally ill biological parents. 5. All of the above. ANS: 5 Rationale: The nurse should determine that all of the studies could possibly benefit the psychiatric community. The studies may reveal research findings relating genetic links to mental illness. Adoption studies allow comparisons to be made of the influences of the environment versus genetics. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Evaluation 6. Six months after her husband and children were killed in a car accident, a client is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. The nurse should recognize that this situation validates which study perspective? 1. Neuroendocrinology 2. Psychoimmunology3. Diagnostic technology4. Neurophysiology ANS: 2 Rationale: Psychoimmunology is the branch of medicine that studies the effects of social and psychological factors on the functioning of the immune system. Studies of the biological response to stress hypothesize that individuals become more susceptible to physical illness following exposure to stressful stimuli. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation 7. A withdrawn client, diagnosed with schizophrenia, expresses little emotion and refuses to attend group therapy. What altered component of the nervous system should a nurse recognize as being responsible for this behavior? 1. Dendrites2. Axons3. Neurotransmitters4. Synapses ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should recognize that neurotransmitters play an essential function in the role of human emotion and behavior. Neurotransmitters are targeted and affected by many psychotropic medications. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Integrated Process: Evaluation 8. An instructor is teaching nursing students about neurotransmitters. Which best explains the process of how neurotransmitters released into the synaptic cleft may return to the presynaptic neuron?1. Regeneration2. Reuptake3. Recycling4. Retransmission ANS: 2 Rationale: The nursing instructor should explain that the process by which neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft and returned to the presynaptic neuron is termed reuptake. Reuptake is the process by which neurotransmitters are stored for reuse. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Integrated Process: Implementation 9. A nurse concludes that a restless, agitated client is manifesting a fight- or-flight response. The nurse should associate this response with which neurotransmitter?1. Acetylcholine2. Dopamine3. Serotonin4. Norepinephrine ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should associate the neurotransmitter norepinephrine with the fight-orflight response. Norepinephrine produces activity in the sympathetic postsynaptic nerve terminal and is associated with the regulation of mood, cognition, perception, locomotion, and sleep and arousal. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Integrated Process: Assessment 10. A client is admitted to a psychiatric unit with the diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. Which of the clients neurotransmitters should a nurse expect to be elevated?1. Serotonin 2. Dopamine 3. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) 4. Histamine ANS: 2 Rationale: The nurse should expect that elevated dopamine levels might be an attributing factor to the clients current level of functioning. Dopamine functions include regulation of movements and coordination, emotions, and voluntary decision-making ability. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 11. A clients wife of 34 years dies unexpectedly. The client cries often and becomes socially isolated. The clients therapist encourages open discussion of feelings, proper nutrition, and exercise. What is the best rationale for the therapists recommendations? 1. The therapist is using an interpersonal approach.2. The client has an alteration in neurotransmitters. 3. It is routine practice to remind clients about nutrition, exercise, and rest.4. The client is susceptible to illness because of effects of stress on the immune system. ANS: 4 Rationale: The therapists recommendations should be based on the knowledge that the client has been exposed to stressful stimuli and is at an increased risk to develop illness because of the effects of stress on the immune system. The study of this branch of medicine is called psychoimmunology. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Planning 12. Which mental illness should a nurse identify as being associated with a decrease in prolactin hormone level? 1. Major depressive episode2. Schizophrenia 3. Anorexia nervosa4. Alzheimers disease ANS: 2 Rationale: Although the exact mechanism is unknown, there may be some correlation between decreased levels of the hormone prolactin and schizophrenia. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation 13. Which cerebral structure should a nursing instructor describe to students as the emotional brain?1. The cerebellum2. The limbic system3. The cortex4. The left temporal lobe ANS: 2 Rationale: The limbic system is often referred to as the emotional brain. The limbic system is largely responsible for ones emotional state and is associated with feelings, sexuality, and social behavior. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Integrated Process: Implementation 14. A nurse understands that the abnormal secretion of growth hormone may play a role in which illness?1. Acute mania2. Schizophrenia3. Anorexia nervosa4. Alzheimers disease ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse should understand that research has found a correlation between abnormal levels of growth hormone and anorexia nervosa. The growth hormone is responsible for growth in children, as well as continued protein synthesis throughout life. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Integrated Process: Assessment 15. A client is admitted to an emergency department experiencing memory deficits and decreased motor function. What alteration in brain chemistry should a nurse correlate with the production of these symptoms? 1. Abnormal levels of serotonin2. Decreased levels of dopamine3. Increased levels of norepinephrine 4. Decreased levels of acetylcholine ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should correlate memory deficits and decreased motor function with decreased levels of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a major effector chemical of the autonomic nervous system. Functions of acetylcholine include sleep regulation, pain perception, the modulation and coordination of movement, and memory. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 16. A nurse should recognize that a decrease in norepinephrine levels would play a significant role in which mental illness?1. Bipolar disorder: mania2. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder3. Generalized anxiety disorder4. Major depressive episode ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should recognize that a decrease in norepinephrine level would play a significant role in the development of major depressive disorder. The functions of norepinephrine include the regulation of mood, cognition, perception, locomotion, cardiovascular functioning, and sleep and arousal. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation 17. A nurse should expect that an increase in dopamine activity might play a significant role in the development of which mental illness?1. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder2. Major depressive disorder3. Body dysmorphic disorder4. Parkinsons disease ANS: 1 Rationale: The nurse should expect that an increase in dopamine activity might play a significant role in the development of schizophrenia spectrum disorder. Functions of dopamine include regulation of emotions, coordination, and voluntary decision-making ability. Increased dopamine activity is also associated with mania. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation Multiple Response 18. Which of the following information should a nurse include when explaining causes of anorexia nervosa to a client? (Select all that apply.)1. There is a possible correlation between abnormal secretion of growth hormone and anorexia nervosa. 2. There is a possible correlation between antidiuretic hormone levels and anorexia nervosa. 3. There is a possible correlation between low levels of gonadotropin and anorexia nervosa. 4. There is a possible correlation between increased levels of prolactin and anorexia nervosa. 5. There is a possible correlation between altered levels of oxytocin and anorexia nervosa. ANS: 1, 3 Rationale: The nurse should explain to the client that there is a possible correlation between anorexia nervosa and decreased levels of growth hormones and gonadotropin. Anorexia nervosa has also been correlated with increased cortisol levels. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 19. Which of the following symptoms should a nurse associate with the development of increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in a newly admitted client? (Select all that apply.)1. Depression2. Fatigue3. Increased libido4. Mania5. Hyperexcitability ANS: 1, 2 Rationale: The nurse should associate depression and fatigue with increased levels of TSH. TSH is only increased when thyroid levels are low, as in the diagnosis of hypothyroidism. In addition to depression and fatigue, other symptoms, such as decreased libido, memory impairment, and suicidal ideation are associated with chronic hypothyroidism. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment Fill-in-the-Blank 20. is the study of the biological foundations of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral processes. ANS: Psychobiology Rationale: Psychobiology is the study of the biological foundations of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral processes. In recent years, a greater emphasis has been placed on the study of the organic basis for psychiatric illness. Chapter 3. Ethical and Legal Issues Multiple Choice 1. In response to a students question regarding choosing a psychiatric specialty, a charge nurse states, Mentally ill clients need special care. If I were in that position, Id want a caring nurse also. From which ethical framework is the charge nurse operating? 1. Kantianism 2. Christian ethics 3. Ethical egoism 4. Utilitarianism ANS: 2 Rationale: The charge nurse is operating from a Christian ethics framework. The imperative demand of Christian ethics is that all decisions about right and wrong should be centered in love for God and in treating others with the same respect and dignity with which we would expect to be treated. Kantianism states that decisions should be made based on moral law and that actions are bound by a sense of moral duty. Utilitarianism holds that decisions should be made focusing on the end result being happiness. Ethical egoism promotes the idea that what is right is good for the individual. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Assessment 2. During a hiring interview, which response by a nursing applicant should indicate that the applicant operates from an ethical egoism framework? 1. I would want to be treated in a caring manner if I were mentally ill. 2. This job will pay the bills, and the workload is light enough for me. 3. I will be happy caring for the mentally ill. Working in med/surg kills my back. 4. It is my duty in life to be a psychiatric nurse. It is the right thing to do. ANS: 2 Rationale: The applicants comment reflects the ethical egoism framework. This framework promotes the idea that decisions are made based on what is good for the individual and may not take the needs of others into account. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Evaluation 3. Without authorization, a nurse administers an extra dose of narcotic tranquilizer to an agitated client. The nurses coworker observes this action but does nothing for fear of retaliation. What is the ethical interpretation of the coworkers lack of involvement? 1. Taking no action is still considered an unethical action by the coworker. 2. Taking no action releases the coworker from ethical responsibility. 3. Taking no action is advised when potential adverse consequences are foreseen. 4. Taking no action is acceptable, because the coworker is only a bystander. ANS: 1 Rationale: The coworkers lack of involvement can be interpreted as an unethical action. The coworker is experiencing an ethical dilemma in which a decision needs to be made between two unfavorable alternatives. The coworker has a responsibility to report any observed unethical actions. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Implementation 4. Group therapy is strongly encouraged, but not mandatory, in an inpatient psychiatric unit. The unit managers policy is that clients can make a choice about whether or not to attend group therapy. Which ethical principle does the unit managers policy preserve? 1. Justice 2. Autonomy 3. Veracity 4. Beneficence ANS: 2 Rationale: The unit managers policy regarding voluntary client participation in group therapy preserves the ethical principle of autonomy. The principle of autonomy presumes that individuals are capable of making independent decisions for themselves and that health-care workers must respect these decisions. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 5. Which is an example of an intentional tort? 1. A nurse fails to assess a clients obvious symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. 2. A nurse physically places an irritating client in four-point restraints. 3. A nurse makes a medication error and does not report the incident. 4. A nurse gives patient information to an unauthorized person. ANS: 2 Rationale: A tort, which can be intentional or unintentional, is a violation of civil law in which an individual has been wronged. A nurse who intentionally physically places an irritating client in restraints has touched the client without consent and has committed an intentional tort. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation 6. An involuntarily committed client is verbally abusive to the staff, repeatedly threatening to sue. The client records the full names and phone numbers of the staff. Which nursing action is most appropriate to decrease the possibility of a lawsuit? 1. Verbally redirect the client, and then refuse one-on-one interaction. 2. Involve the hospitals security division as soon as possible. 3. Notify the client that documenting personal staff information is against hospital policy. 4. Continue professional attempts to establish a positive working relationship with the client. ANS: 4 Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action is to continue professional attempts to establish a positive working relationship with the client. The involuntarily committed client should be respected and has the right to assert grievances if rights are infringed. Cognitive Level: Analysis Integrated Process: Implementation 7. Which statement should a nurse identify as correct regarding a clients right to refuse treatment? 1. Clients can refuse pharmacological but not psychological treatment. 2. Clients can refuse any treatment at any time. 3. Clients can refuse only electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). 4. Professionals can override treatment refusal by an actively suicidal or homicidal client. ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should understand that health-care professionals could override treatment refusal when a client is actively suicidal or homicidal. A suicidal or homicidal client who refuses treatment may be in danger or a danger to others. This situation should be treated as an emergency, and treatment may be performed without informed consent. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation 8. Which potential client should a nurse identify as a candidate for involuntarily commitment? 1. The client living under a bridge in a cardboard box 2. The client threatening to commit suicide 3. The client who never bathes and wears a wool hat in the summer 4. The client who eats waste out of a garbage can ANS: 2 Rationale: The nurse should identify the client threatening to commit suicide as eligible for involuntary commitment. The suicidal client who refuses treatments is in danger and needs emergency treatment. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Assessment 9. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia refuses to take medication, citing the right of autonomy. Under which circumstance would a nurse have the right to medicate the client against the clients wishes? 1. A client makes inappropriate sexual innuendos to a staff member. 2. A client constantly demands attention from the nurse by begging, Help me get better. 3. A client physically attacks another client after being confronted in group therapy. 4. A client refuses to bathe or perform hygienic activities. ANS: 3 Rationale: The nurse would have the right to medicate a client against his or her wishes if the client physically attacks another client. This client poses a significant risk to safety and is incapable of making informed choices. The clients refusal to accept treatment can be challenged, because the client is endangering the safety of others. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 10. A psychiatric nurse working on an inpatient unit receives a call asking if an individual has been a client in the facility. Which nursing response reflects appropriate legal and ethical obligations? 1. The nurse refuses to give any information to the caller, citing rules of confidentiality. 2. The nurse hangs up on the caller. 3. The nurse confirms that the person has been at the facility but adds no additional information. 4. The nurse suggests that the caller speak to the clients therapist. ANS: 1 Rationale: The most appropriate action by the nurse is to refuse to give any information to the caller. Admission to the facility would be considered protected health information (PHI) and should not be disclosed by the nurse without prior client consent. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 11. A client requests information on several medications in order to make an informed choice about management of depression. A nurse should provide this information to facilitate which ethical principle? 1. Autonomy 2. Beneficence 3. Nonmaleficence 4. Justice ANS: 1 Rationale: The nurse should provide the information to support the clients autonomy. A client who is capable of making independent choices should be permitted to do so. In instances when clients are incapable of making informed decisions, a legal guardian or representative would be asked to give consent. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Implementation 12. An inpatient psychiatric physician refuses to treat clients without insurance and prematurely discharges those whose insurance benefits have expired. Which ethical principle should a nurse determine has been violated based on these actions? 1. Autonomy 2. Beneficence 3. Nonmaleficence 4. Justice ANS: 4 Rationale: The nurse should determine that the ethical principle of justice has been violated by the physicians actions. The principle of justice requires that individuals should be treated equally, regardless of race, sex, marital status, medical diagnosis, social standing, economic level, or religious belief. Cognitive Level: Application Integrated Process: Evaluation CONTINUES... [Show Less]
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Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing 8th edition by Videbeck Test Bank
Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing 8th edition by Videbeck Test Bank Chapter 1 Page 2 3. Which of the following are true regarding mental health and ment... [Show More] al illness? A) Behavior that may be viewed as acceptable in one culture is always unacceptable in other cultures. B) It is easy to determine if a person is mentally healthy or mentally ill. C) In most cases, mental health is a state of emotional, psychological, and social wellness evidenced by satisfying interpersonal relationships, effective behavior and coping, positive self-concept, and emotional stability. D) Persons who engage in fantasies are mentally ill. Ans: C Feedback: What one society may view as acceptable and appropriate behavior, another society may see that as maladaptive, and inappropriate. Mental health and mental illness are difficult to define precisely. In most cases, mental health is a state of emotional, psychological, and social wellness evidenced by satisfying interpersonal relationships, effective behavior and coping, positive self-concept, and emotional stability. Persons who engage in fantasies may be mentally healthy, but the inability to distinguish reality from fantasy is an individual factor that may contribute to mental illness. 4. A client grieving the recent loss of her husband asks if she is becoming mentally ill because she is so sad. The nurse's best response would be, A) ìYou may have a temporary mental illness because you are experiencing so much pain.î B) ìYou are not mentally ill. This is an expected reaction to the loss you have experienced.î C) ìWere you generally dissatisfied with your relationship before your husband's death?î D) ìTry not to worry about that right now. You never know what the future brings.î Ans: B Feedback: Mental illness includes general dissatisfaction with self, ineffective relationships, ineffective coping, and lack of personal growth. Additionally the behavior must not be culturally expected. Acute grief reactions are expected and therefore not considered mental illness. False reassurance or overanalysis does not accurately address the client's concerns. Page 3 5. The nurse consults the DSM for which of the following purposes? A) To devise a plan of care for a newly admitted client B) To predict the client's prognosis of treatment outcomes C) To document the appropriate diagnostic code in the client's medical record D) To serve as a guide for client assessment Ans: D Feedback: The DSM provides standard nomenclature, presents defining characteristics, and identifies underlying causes of mental disorders. It does not provide care plans or prognostic outcomes of treatment. Diagnosis of mental illness is not within the generalist RN's scope of practice, so documenting the code in the medical record would be inappropriate. 6. Which would be a reason for a student nurse to use the DSM? A) Identifying the medical diagnosis B) Treat clients C) Evaluate treatments D) Understand the reason for the admission and the nature of psychiatric illnesses. Ans: D Feedback: Although student nurses do not use the DSM to diagnose clients, they will find it a helpful resource to understand the reason for the admission and to begin building knowledge about the nature of psychiatric illnesses. Identifying the medical diagnosis, treating, and evaluating treatments are not a part of the nursing process. 7. The legislation enacted in 1963 was largely responsible for which of the following shifts in care for the mentally ill? A) The widespread use of community-based services B) The advancement in pharmacotherapies C) Increased access to hospitalization D) Improved rights for clients in long-term institutional care Ans: A Feedback: The Community Mental Health Centers Construction Act of 1963 accomplished the release of individuals from long-term stays in state institutions, the decrease in admissions to hospitals, and the development of community-based services as an alternative to hospital care. Page 4 8. Which one of the following is a result of federal legislation? A) Making it easier to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. B) Making it more difficult to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. C) State mental institutions being the primary source of care for mentally ill persons. D) Improved care for mentally ill persons. Ans: B Feedback: Commitment laws changed in the early 1970s, making it more difficult to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. Deinstitutionalization accomplished the release of individuals from long-term stays in state institutions. Deinstitutionalization also had negative effects in that some mentally ill persons are subjected to the revolving door effect, which may limit care for mentally ill persons. 9. The goal of the 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act was to A) ensure patients' rights for the mentally ill. B) deinstitutionalize state hospitals. C) provide funds to build hospitals with psychiatric units. D) treat people with mental illness in a humane fashion. Ans: B Feedback: The 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act intimated the movement toward treating those with mental illness in a less restrictive environment. This legislation resulted in the shift of clients with mental illness from large state institutions to care based in the community. Answer choices A, C, and D were not purposes of the 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act. 10. The creation of asylums during the 1800s was meant to A) improve treatment of mental disorders. B) provide food and shelter for the mentally ill. C) punish people with mental illness who were believed to be possessed. D) remove dangerous people with mental illness from the community. Ans: B Feedback: The asylum was meant to be a safe haven with food, shelter, and humane treatment for the mentally ill. Asylums were not used to improve treatment of mental disorders or to punish mentally ill people who were believed to be possessed. The asylum was not created to remove the dangerously mentally ill from the community. Page 5 11. The major problems with large state institutions are: Select all that apply. A) attendants were accused of abusing the residents. B) stigma associated with residence in an insane asylum. C) clients were geographically isolated from family and community. D) increasing financial costs to individual residents. Ans: A, C Feedback: Clients were often far removed from the local community, family, and friends because state institutions were usually in rural or remote settings. Choices B and D were not major problems associated with large state instructions. 12. A significant change in the treatment of people with mental illness occurred in the 1950s when A) community support services were established. B) legislation dramatically changed civil commitment procedures. C) the Patient's Bill of Rights was enacted. D) psychotropic drugs became available for use. Ans: D Feedback: The development of psychotropic drugs, or drugs used to treat mental illness, began in the 1950s. Answer choices A, B, and C did not occur in the 1950s. 13. Before the period of the enlightenment, treatment of the mentally ill included A) creating large institutions to provide custodial care. B) focusing on religious education to improve their souls. C) placing the mentally ill on display for the public's amusement. D) providing a safe refuge or haven offering protection. Ans: C Feedback: In 1775, visitors at St. Mary's of Bethlehem were charged a fee for viewing and ridiculing the mentally ill, who were seen as animals, less than human. Custodial care was not often provided as persons who were considered harmless were allowed to wander in the countryside or live in rural communities, and more dangerous lunatics were imprisoned, chained, and starved. In early Christian times, primitive beliefs and superstitions were strong. The mentally ill were viewed as evil or possessed. Priests performed exorcisms to rid evil spirits, and in the colonies, witch hunts were conducted with offenders burned at the stake. It was not until the period of enlightenment when persons who were mentally ill were offered asylum as a safe refuge or haven offering protection at institutions. Page 6 14. The first training of nurses to work with persons with mental illness was in 1882 in which state? A) California B) Illinois C) Massachusetts D) New York Ans: C Feedback: The first training for nurses to work with persons with mental illness was in 1882 at McLean Hospital in Belmont, Massachusetts. 15. What is meant by the term ìrevolving door effectî in mental health care? A) An overall reduction in incidence of severe mental illness B) Shorter and more frequent hospital stays for persons with severe and persistent mental illness C) Flexible treatment settings for mentally ill D) Most effective and least expensive treatment settings Ans: B Feedback: The revolving door effect refers to shorter, but more frequent, hospital stays. Clients are quickly discharged into the community where services are not adequate; without adequate community services, clients become acutely ill and require rehospitalization. The revolving door effect does not refer to flexible treatment settings for mentally ill. Even though hospitalization is more expensive than outpatient treatment, if utilized appropriately could result in stabilization and less need for emergency department visits and/or rehospitalization. The revolving door effect does not relate to the incidence of severe mental illness. Page 7 16. Which of the following statements is true of treatment of people with mental illness in the United States today? A) Substance abuse is effectively treated with brief hospitalization. B) Financial resources are reallocated from state hospitals to community programs and support. C) Only 25% of people needing mental health services are receiving those services. D) Emergency department visits by persons who are acutely disturbed are declining. Ans: C Feedback: Only one in four (25%) adults needing mental health care receives the needed services. Substance abuse issues cannot be dealt with in the 3 to 5 days typical for admissions in the current managed care environment. Money saved by states when state hospitals were closed has not been transferred to community programs and support. Although people with severe and persistent mental illness have shorter hospital stays, they are admitted to hospitals more frequently. In some cities, emergency department visits for acutely disturbed persons have increased by 400% to 500%. 17. Which of the following is the priority of the Healthy People 2020 objectives for mental health? A) Improved inpatient care B) Primary prevention of emotional problems C) Stress reduction and management D) Treatment of mental illness Ans: D Feedback: The objectives are to increase the number of people who are identified, diagnosed, treated, and helped to live healthier lives. The objectives also strive to decrease rates of suicide and homelessness, to increase employment among those with serious mental illness, and to provide more services both for juveniles and for adults who are incarcerated and have mental health problems. Answer choices A, B, and C are not priorities of Healthy People 2020. Page 8 18. Which is a positive aspect of treating clients with mental illness in a community-based care? A) ìYou will not be allowed to go out with your friends while in the program.î B) ìYou will have to have supervision when you want to go anywhere else in the community.î C) ìYou will be able to live in your own home while you still see a therapist regularly.î D) ìYou will have someone in your home at all times to ask questions if you have any concerns.î Ans: C Feedback: Clients can remain in their communities, maintain contact with family and friends, and enjoy personal freedom that is not possible in an institution. Full-time home care is not included in community-based programs. 19. One of the unforeseen effects of the movement toward community mental health services is.... [Show Less]
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Test Bank - Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing by Mary Townsend (9th Edition, 2017)
Chapter 01. The Concept of Stress Adaptation Multiple Choice 1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes ... [Show More] unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data? A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness. B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness. C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports. D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities. ANS: C The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a clients life. However, positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can limit susceptibility to stress-related illnesses. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 2. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit he states to a nurse: Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe Ill look into pursuing an art degree. How should the nurse characterize the clients appraisal of the job loss stressor? A. Irrelevant B. Harm/loss C. Threatening D. Challenging ANS: D The client perceives the situation of job loss as a challenge and an opportunity for growth. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 3. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress? A. Ive found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope. B. I really enjoy journaling; its my private time. C. I signed up for a yoga class this week. D. I made an appointment to meet with a therapist. ANS: A Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is a maladaptive method to relieve stress. It can prevent learning appropriate coping skills and can prevent access to needed support systems. Test Bank - Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing by Mary Townsend (9th Edition, 2017) 2 KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 4. A nursing student finds that she comes down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing? A. Alarm reaction stage B. Stage of resistance C. Stage of exhaustion D. Fight-or-flight stage ANS: C At the stage of exhaustion, the students exposure to stress has been prolonged and adaptive energy has been depleted. Diseases of adaptation occur more frequently in this stage. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 5. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The clients mother states, Thats not something to be stressed about! Which is the most appropriate nursing response? A. Teenagers! They dont know a thing about real stress. B. Stress occurs only when there is a loss. C. When you are in poor physical condition, you cant experience psychological well-being. D. Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels. ANS: D Stress can be physical or psychological in nature. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 6. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time? A. Meditation B. Problem-solving training C. Relaxation D. Journaling ANS: B The student must assess his or her situation and determine the best course of action. Problem-solving training, by providing structure and objectivity, can assist in decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Test Bank - Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing by Mary Townsend (9th Edition, 2017) 3 7. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Encourage the student to use the alternative coping mechanism of relaxation exercises. B. Complete the problem-solving process for the client. C. Work through the problem-solving process with the client. D. Encourage the client to keep a journal. ANS: C During times of high anxiety and stress, clients will need more assistance in problem-solving and decision making. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 8. A school nurse is assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents cant afford horseback riding lessons. How should the nurse interpret the students reaction to her perceived problem? A. The problem is endangering her well-being. B. The problem is personally relevant to her. C. The problem is based on immaturity. D. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope. ANS: B Psychological stressors to self-esteem and self-image are related to how the individual perceives the situation or event. Self-image is of particular importance to adolescents, who feel entitled to have all the advantages that other adolescents experience. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 9. Meditation has been shown to be an effective stress management technique. When meditation is effective, what should a nurse expect to assess? A. An achieved state of relaxation B. An achieved insight into ones feelings C. A demonstration of appropriate role behaviors D. An enhanced ability to problem-solve ANS: A Meditation produces relaxation by creating a special state of consciousness through focused concentration. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Evaluation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 10. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, How can I go to work if I cant afford childcare? What is the nurses initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process? Test Bank - Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing by Mary Townsend (9th Edition, 2017) 4 A. Determine the risks and benefits for each alternative. B. Formulate goals for resolution of the problem. C. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented alternative. D. Assess the facts of the situation. ANS: D Before any other steps can be taken, accurate information about the situation must be gathered and assessed. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 11. A nursing instructor is asking students about diseases of adaptation and when they are likely to occur. Which student response indicates that learning has occurred? A. When an individual has limited experience dealing with stress B. When an individual inherits maladaptive genes C. When an individual experiences existing conditions that exacerbate stress D. When an individuals physiological and psychological resources have become depleted ANS: D During the stage of exhaustion of the general adaptation syndrome, the individual loses the capacity to adapt effectively because physiological and psychological resources have become depleted. This is the time when diseases of adaptation may occur. Chapter 02. Mental Health/Mental Illness: Historical and Theoretical Concepts Multiple Choice 1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The clients appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the clients behaviors? A. The clients behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. B. The clients behaviors are extensive, which indicates the presence of mental illness. C. The clients behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. D. The clients behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness. ANS: D The nurse should assess that the clients daily functioning is not impaired. The client who experiences feelings of sadness after the loss of a pet is responding within normal expectations. Without significant impairment, the clients distress does not indicate a mental illness. KEY: Cognitive Level: Analysis | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder? A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning C. When the client communicates significant distress D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection ANS: B The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The clients ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity 3. A nurse is assessing 15-year-old identical twins who respond very differently to stress. One twin becomes anxious and irritable, while the other withdraws and cries. How should the nurse explain these different responses to stress to the parents? A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary. B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors. C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress. D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress. Chapter 03. Psychopharmacology Multiple Choice 1. The nurse manager on the psychiatric unit was explaining to the new staff the differences between typical and atypical antipsychotics. The nurse correctly states that atypical antipsychotics: A. Remain in the system longer B. Act more quickly to reduce delusions C. Produce fewer extrapyramidal effects D. Are risk free for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) ANS: C Atypical antipsychotics produce less D2blockade; thus movement disorders are less of a problem. No evidence suggests that the medication remains in the system longer nor that it acts more quicklyto reduce delusions. The atypicals are not risk free for NMS. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Implementation | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 2. The nurse would assess for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) if a patient on haloperidol (Haldol) develops a: A. 30 mm Hg decrease in blood pressure reading B. Respiratory rate of 24 respirations per minute C. Temperature reading of 104° F D. Pulse rate of 70 beats per minute ANS: C Increased temperature is the cardinal sign of NMS. This BP is not a significant feature of NMS. There are no significant findings to support the options related to respirations or pulse rate. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 3. A patient taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) complains of dry mouth and blurred vision. What would the nurse assess as the likely cause of these symptoms? A. Decreased dopamine at receptor sites B. Blockade of histamine C. Cholinergic blockade D. Adrenergic blocking ANS: C Fluphenazine administration produces blockade of cholinergic receptors giving rise to anticholinergic effects, such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. KEY: Cognitive Level: Application | Integrated Processes: Nursing Process: Assessment | Client Need: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies CONTINUES... [Show Less]
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