Bundle
TCOLE Exam Bundle
7 Items
TCOLE-CIT Exam Questions and Answers 2023
What % of the US population suffers from a diagnosable mental disorder in a given year? - ANSWER-22.1% some studies indicate the ______% of US adults su... [Show More] ffer from mental illness within their lifetime - ANSWER-32% T/F Individuals with mental illness are traditionally not hardened criminals. - ANSWER-T The public views these people _________, not criminal - ANSWER-ill What does this Describe? using a less physical, less authoritative, less confrontational, less controlling approach you end up having more control and authority over a person in a mental health crisis - ANSWER-control paradox Mental health funding in TX is _____________ - ANSWER-decreasing Where does TX rank in mental health funding nation wide? - ANSWER-47th CIT is foremost an _______________ - ANSWER-officer safety training Phoenix CIT reported CIT training increased their safety by what percentage? - ANSWER-70% What is the essential difference between suspect encounter training, that officers traditionally receive, and how to approach the mentally ill is the need to be__________? - ANSWER-non confrontational People with psych disabilities are ______ more likely to die in encounters with police than member of the general population. - ANSWER-4 What term does this describe? illness, disease, or condition that substantially impacts a person's thought, perception of reality, emotional process, or judgement, or grossly impairs a persons behavior, as manifested by recent disturbance behavior - ANSWER-mental illness What term does this describe? diagnosed based on behaviors and thinking as evaluated by a psychiatrist, psychologist, licensed prof. counselor, licensed social worker, or other qualified professionals using the DSM-IV - ANSWER-professional definition of mental illness What term does this describe? a diminished capacity and inability to tell right from wrong. not a psychological term, term varies from state to state. generally used by the court with regard with person's competency to stand trial - ANSWER-insanity T/F A sharp dividing line between "normal" and "abnormal" behavior does exist, with most people clustered around the center and the rest spreading out to toward the extremes in what is called normal "distribution" - ANSWER-F doesn't exist What are the four categories of mental illness? - ANSWER-Personality disorders mood disorders psychosis Developmental disorder What personality disorders are encountered by LE? - ANSWER-paranoid antisocial borderline Name causes of personality disorders? - ANSWER-family history, beginning at young age, of pays. or emotional abuse, lack of structure and responsibility, poor relationships with both parents, and alcohol or drug abuse What personality disorder does this describe? interpret actions of others as threatening or demeaning being in position to be harmed or used by others perceive dismissiveness from other people - ANSWER-Paranoid What personality disorder does this describe? most common in males, pattern of irresponsible behavior at or after age of 18, may have history of truancy, start fights,use weapons, physically abuse animals or people, deliberately destroying other's property, lying, stealing, have trouble with authority or unwilling to conform to society's expectations of family and work - ANSWER-antisocial What personality disorder does this describe? most common in females, unstable and intense relationships, impulsiveness with relationships, spending, food, drugs, sex, intense anger or lack of control of anger, recurrent suicidal threats, chronic feelings of boredom or emptiness, feelings of abandonment - ANSWER-borderline Name mood disorders? - ANSWER-depression bipolar disorder T/F Depression is not a common widespread disorder - ANSWER-F it is What is also known as manic depression? - ANSWER-bipolar disorder How long does a depressive period have to last before being called a major depression?should also have symptoms of depression such as weight gain/loss, difficulty concentrating, 5 or more symptoms present during the period - ANSWER-two weeks Whats this describe? a group of serious and often debilitating mental disorders that may be organic or psychological origin and are characterized by impaired thinking and reasoning, perceptual distortions, inappropriate emotional responses, inappropriate affect, regressive behavior, reduced impulse control and impaired reasoning of reality - ANSWER-psychosis an illness involving a distortion of reality that may be accompanied by delusions and hallucinations. most commonly seen in schizo, bi polar, severe depression, etc. - ANSWER-psychosis false beliefs not based on factual information - ANSWER-delusion distortions of the senses, causing the person to experience hearing or seeing something that is not there - ANSWER-hallucinations common delusions experienced by persons during a psychotic episode? - ANSWER-hearing voices, feelings of paranoia, visual hallucinations, heightening of the senses Name behavior cues of persons with psychosis? - ANSWER-inappropriate or bizarre dress, lethargic body movements, impulsive or repetitious movements, causing injury to self, responding to hallucinations, strange decorations, pictures turned over, waste matter on floors, unusual attachment to childish objects or toys What are some emotional cues of persons with psychosis? - ANSWER-lack of emotional response, extreme or inappropriate sadness, inappropriate emotional reactions Name symptoms of substance and cognitive disorders - ANSWER-major loss of contact with reality gross interference with the ability to meet life demands may have delusions and hallucinations alteration of mood defects in perception, language, memory, cognition The most common organic mental disorder of older people is ___________ - ANSWER-Alzheimer's group of psychotic disorders characterized by changes in perception, cause oversensitivity to sound and hallucinations and impaired thinking, typically emerges in teenagers and young people, considered the most disabling and chronic of severe mental illnesses flat effect, anhedonia, withdrawn - ANSWER-schizophrenia T/F Alzheimers is considered a mental illness - ANSWER-false is not is a form of dementia not curable MHMR is now known as - ANSWER-IDD intellectual development disorder 2 most common developmental disorders - ANSWER-Autism IDD (MHMR) T/F Although autism is 3-4 times more common in males, Females with autism tend to have more severe symptoms and cognitive impairment - ANSWER-T what degree of mental retardation is considered mild? - ANSWER-55-69 IQ IQ 40-54, what category of mental retardation - ANSWER-moderate Profound mental retardation?IQ - ANSWER-below 25 IQ 25-39? - ANSWER-severe _______% of American population is considered retarded(below score of 69 IQ - ANSWER-3% Mental retardation occurs before the age of_____? - ANSWER-18 mental illness occurs at what time in a person's life? - ANSWER-at any point in ones' life Differences between mental illness and mental retardation? - ANSWER-mental illness is unrelated to intelligence retardation occurs before age of 18 while mental illness occurs anytime mentally ill can take meds to help mentally ill are less predictable Myths about suicide? - ANSWER-people who talk about suicide won't commit suicide people who commit suicide are crazy once the person begins to improve, the risk has ended prior unsuccessful suicide means there will never a successful suicide T/F Half of Americans will experience a mental disorder at some point in their lives - ANSWER-true social behaviors exhibited by people with developmental disorders? - ANSWER-lack of awareness of social rules reluctance to make eye contact inappropriate laughter or crying unusual facial responses ritualistic habitual behaviors extreme distress for no reason attachment to objects deliberate soiling of clothes uneven motor skills self stimulating behaviors communication behaviors in people with developmental disorders - ANSWER-very limited, may repeat what is said, abnormal pitch, rate or volume when speaking, hard time expressing ideas or needs, reversal of pronouns or other parts of speech, difficulty with abstract concepts There are ____ times more suicides than homicides. - ANSWER-1.5 people with psychiatric disabilities are _____ times more likely to die in encounters with police than members of the general population - ANSWER-4 the most common organic mental disorder of older people is_______ - ANSWER-alzheimers True or False Alzheimers is considered a mental illness - ANSWER-false its not, name the questioning methods for people with mental retardation? - ANSWER-be patient for a reply ask short simple questions using simple language repeat questions as needed speak slowly ask open ended questions rather than yes/no question two most common developmental disorders? - ANSWER-autism mental retardation What percent of the population suffers from Mental retardation? - ANSWER-3% what are the differences between mental illness and retardation? - ANSWER--mental illness is unrelated to intelligence, while mental retardation is below average intellectual functioning -mental illness develops at any point [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 139
Criminal Investigation TCOLE Exam Questions and Answers
Criminal Investigation - ANSWER--criminal investigation is the process of legally gathering evidence of a crime that has been/being committed. A lawful sea... [Show More] rch for people/land/things useful in reconstructing the circumstances of an illegal act or omission and the mental state accompanying it Bias - ANSWER--highly personal & unreasoned distortion of judgment Crime - ANSWER-An act/omission forbidden by law and punishable by a fine/imprisonment/even death. Crimes and their penalties are established and defined by state and federal statutes and local ordinances Circumstantial Evidence - ANSWER-A fact or event that tends to incriminate a person in a crime *being seen running from a crime scene* Complaint - ANSWER-Person requesting an investigation or that action is taken *Is often the victim of a crime* Corpus Delicti - ANSWER-*literally* means the body/substance of the crime. In law the term refers to proof establishing that a crime has occurred; the necessary elements that constitute a crime Elements of a Crime - ANSWER-Conditions that must occur for an act to be called a specific kind of crime. Evidence - ANSWER-Anything that helps establish the facts related to a crime Fact - ANSWER-Something known to be true Fence - ANSWER-One who receives and disposes of stolen property on a regular basis. Field Identification - ANSWER-On-the-scene identification of a suspect by the victim of or witness to a crime, conducted within minutes of the commission of a crime Prejudice - ANSWER-An opinion or leaning adverse to anything without just grounds or before obtaining sufficient knowledge Modus Operandi (MO) - ANSWER-A criminal's characteristic (method of operation) Proof Beyond a Reasonable Doubt - ANSWER--Proof of such a convincing character that you would be willing to rely and act upon it without hesitation in the most important of your own affairs. However, it does not mean an absolute certainty. Probable Cause - ANSWER-Evidence that warrants a person of reasonable caution in the belief that a crime has been committed Rapport - ANSWER-a felling of ease and harmony in a contact or relationship between people. Reasonable Doubt - ANSWER-The level of certainty a juror must have to find a defendant guilty of a crime. A real doubt, based upon reason and common sense after careful and impartial consideration of all the evidence, or lack of evidence, in a case Statement - ANSWER-A legal narrative description of events related to a crime. Suspect - ANSWER-A person considered to be directly/indirectly connected with a crime, either by overt act or by planning and/or directing it Witness - ANSWER-A person who saw a crime or some part of it being committed or who has relevant information. Victim - ANSWER-The person injured by a crime Information - ANSWER-The knowledge, which the criminal investigator gathers from other persons. Interview - ANSWER-The questioning of a person who has no personal reason to withhold information and therefore may be expected to cooperate with the investigator Interrogation - ANSWER-The questioning of a suspect or other person who may normally be expected to be reluctant to divulge information concerning the offense under investigation Instrumentation - ANSWER-The application of the instruments and methods of the physical sciences to the detection of crime Laws of arrest, search and seizure do what? - ANSWER-Provides guidance on what investigative techniques are acceptable. Mastery and knowledge of criminal procedures and the rules of evidence enable the investigator to gather evidence against a suspect that can withstand court challenges. Goals of a Criminal Investigator - ANSWER--determine if a crime has been committed -legally obtain information/evidence to identify the person(s) responsible for committing the crime. -legally arrest the suspect(s). -recover any/all stolen property. -present the best case possible to the prosecutor Not all crimes are ___________ . - ANSWER-solvable The legal significance of evidence rests in? - ANSWER-its influence on the judge or juror The investigator shall collect corroborating evidence of an accused person's guilt in order to? - ANSWER-negate the defenses claims proof beyond a reasonable doubt in criminal case is? - ANSWER-The level of certainty a juror must have to find a defendant guilty of a crime Characteristics of a criminal investigator - ANSWER--Suspicious -Curious -Observant -Unbiased and Unprejudiced -Develops Rapport through interpersonal communication -logical thinking -creative problem solving Duties of officer conducting the preliminary investigation - ANSWER--establish if a crime has been committed -secure a description of the perpetrator -locate and interview the victims and witnesses -protect the crime scene -determine how crime was committed -record field notes and sketches The legal significance of evidence rests in??? - ANSWER-its influence on the judge or juror. Professional heavy criminal - ANSWER-a individual who commits the crime/crimes of burglary/white collar crimes/larceny/vehicle theft/agricultural crimes/arson, all of which may result in heavy/lengthy sentences depending on the criminal history of the accused Professional thief - ANSWER--profit motive -operate so as to minimize chances of observation -lack of eyewitnesses -requires planning -direction -operating skills -works in conjunction with fences -may commit burglary -white collar crimes -vehicle theft -agricultural crimes and arson. Semi-professional (unskilled) thief - ANSWER--this type may be more interested in getting money for drugs -targets determined more by opportunity *cruising robber* -less involved in planning or preparation -more likely to resort to violence against victim -a special danger when interrupted -prone to violence when trying to escape Burglar - ANSWER--same motives as PT -safe burglary -commercial jobs -vehicle -able to use stealth or defeating locks -alarms -can plan -direct -and execute operation Robber - ANSWER--tendency to use violence on a stranger -bolder personality -ambush style is a option -can plan operation *casing joint* -leaves *signature* -use of backup can cause problems for responding officers The "Achilles' Heel" (weakness) of property crime is? - ANSWER-the disposal of the stolen property Con Artists and Con Games or Schemes - ANSWER--prey on elderly -very mobile -tend to be non-violent -frequently work with partners -promises unusual return Forgery and Credit Card Abuse - ANSWER--least violent offender -credit cards often used as alternative to check writing Four steps in check fraud - ANSWER--Forging -Use of false or stolen identification cards -Use of a presentation that overcomes a merchant's reluctance to cash a check upon minimal identification -Con artist's sense of right time, place, and victim Auto Theft - ANSWER--both amateurs and professionals -fall into five categories Unauthorized Use of a Motor Vehicle offender - ANSWER--Joy-riding juvenile; usually host to several other juveniles -Abandons vehicle when it runs out of gas or they tire of it. -Transportation thief - "borrows" car for transportation. -Abandons vehicle when it has served its purpose. Use-in-crime thief - ANSWER--steals a car for sole purpose of using it in the commission of another crime. Insurance fraud swindlers - ANSWER--owner abandons vehicle in area where he knows vehicle will be stripped -May burn vehicle or have it dismantled in junkyard. Strippers and dismantlers - ANSWER--Strippers attack parked vehicle and remove parts that can be readily disposed of -Dismantlers steal vehicle and tow or drive it to a "chop shop" Professional auto thief - ANSWER--steals late model vehicles and resells them -May ship vehicles and resells them -May ship vehicle out of country (Mexico or South America). Street Thieves - ANSWER-encountered more by officers -often carry weapons -take reckless chances to avoid apprehension -usually stealing for trading material or to procure narcotics or alcohol Salvage Switch - ANSWER--is described as the altering of a vehicle's identity by placing the serial number of a total loss car (total loss vehicles are cheaper to buy and still get a title) onto a stolen car Dealership Problems - ANSWER--One problem that is common in large cities with big auto dealerships is inventory control - If a thief has an inside contact who knows when an inventory is conducted, he can arrange to steal a car off a dealer's lot and it won't be missed for up to three months Rental Cars - ANSWER--finding suspects driving rental cars in different states that have expired rental contracts -can not arrest unless rental car company wants to report as stolen -most have no idea until months later due to size of fleet Analysis of a vehicle that may have been stolen - ANSWER--broken glass on vehicle -does LP match VIN -is one plate displayed in a two-plate state -does it have current reg, clean vehicle have dirty license plates and vice versa -different license plates (states) front and back Stolen Vehicle Recognition and Apprehension Manual for Patrol Officers - ANSWER--Obtain as complete a description as possible of any property stolen by suspect - detail of item, color, model, make, serial number, place of purchase, value, significant characteristics or marks. -Estimate property values of stolen or recovered goods: -The officer should obtain the victim's estimate of property value Determining whether a vehicle has been impounded or repossessed in reported auto theft cases - ANSWER--find if property is linked with a previous crime by checking stolen reports, NCIC/TCIC, and from other jurisdictions -time/date vehicle was found to be missing or stolen -check with dispatch to see if vehicle is impounded -check with lien holder of vehicle to determine repo Homicides fall into 9 categories - ANSWER--anger -revenge or jealousy -triangle -profit -random -drive -murder-suicide -sex and sadism -felony murder Anger killing - ANSWER--an extension of the crime of assault. -Dispute-anger-attack-death (cycle of violence) Revenge or jealousy killing - ANSWER--history of involvement between perpetrator and victim. Triangle killing - ANSWER--husband or wife kills spouse who has involved himself/herself with another lover Killing for profit - ANSWER--the elimination of another because it would result in profit for the murderer. Random killing - ANSWER--seemingly motive-less. -Most difficult to solve Drive-by - ANSWER--shootings as a result of gang activity Murder-suicide - ANSWER--actor kills another, then self -Not uncommon among elderly and mentally distraught Sex and Sadism - ANSWER--marked by unusual violence -May follow rape, acts of sexual perversion, or sadistic acts Felony murder - ANSWER--death results from injuries received during the commission of some other felony In most homicide cases, the victim? - ANSWER--knows the perpetrator All suspicious deaths should be treated as? - ANSWER--homicides until proven otherwise. 1 in _____ offenders are serving time for a sexual offense - ANSWER-7 There are a estimated __________________ on probation in Texas - ANSWER-22,000 CCP 62.02 Registration - ANSWER-a) The person shall satisfy the requirements of this subsection not later than the seventh day after the person's arrival in the municipality or county Sexual Assault - ANSWER--acts of violence -perps purpose is to exercise power over victim -not crimes of sexual desire 4 Methods of Gaining Sexual Access to a person are? - ANSWER--Consent -Pressure -Force -Drug-Facilitated Sexual Assault Opportunistic Rapist - ANSWER--Takes advantage of the situation during commission -Typically has been drinking or doing drugs -Uses minimal force or threat -Typically not a repeat offender sadistic rapist - ANSWER--Aggression and violence are eroticized -is symbolic destruction/elimination -victim is symbolic of a person the offender wants to destroy -calculated and pre-planned- offender brings weapon -is ritualistic -torture is involved [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 111
TCOLE (BPOC) - Juvenile Offenders Exam Questions and Answers
Under Family Code (FC) 51.02, a child is __ years of age or older and younger than __. A.) 10 and 17 B.) 10 and 18 C.) 5 and 16 D.) 9 and 15 - ANSWER... [Show More] -A.) 10 and 17 _______ means the adult with whom the child resides. A.) Guardian B.) Custodian C.) Parent D.) Non-offender - ANSWER-B.) Custodian ________ means the person who, under court order, is the guardian of the person of the child or the public or private agency with whom the child has been placed by a court. A.) Guardian B.) Custodian C.) Parent D.) Non-offender - ANSWER-A.) Guardian __________ means a child who is subject to jurisdiction of a court under abuse, dependency, or neglect statutes under Title 5 for reasons other than legally prohibited conduct of the child or has been taken into custody and is being held solely for deportation out of the United States. A.) Guardian B.) Custodian C.) Parent D.) Non-offender - ANSWER-D.) Non-offender _______ means the mother or the father of a child, but does not include a parent whose parental rights have been terminated. A.) Guardian B.) Custodian C.) Parent D.) Non-offender - ANSWER-C.) Parent ________ means any public or private residential facility that includes construction fixtures designed to physically restrict the movements and activities of juveniles or other individuals held in lawful custody in the facility and is used for the temporary placement of any juvenile. A.) Secure detention facility B.) Secure correctional facility C.) Jail D.) Juvenile holding facility - ANSWER-A.) Secure detention facility __________ means any public or private residential facility, including an alcohol or other drug treatment facility, that is used for the placement of any juvenile who has been adjudicated as having committed an offense, any non-offender, or any other individual convicted of a criminal offense. A.) Secure detention facility B.) Secure correctional facility C.) Jail D.) Juvenile holding facility - ANSWER-B.) Secure correctional facility __________ means a child who is accused, adjudicated, or convicted for conduct that would not, under state law, be a crime if committed by an adult. A.) Juvenile Offender B.) Repeat Offender C.) Adult Offender D.) Status Offender - ANSWER-D.) Status Offender _________ means a court order entered under Section 54.04 concerning a child adjudicated to have engaged in conduct indicating a need for supervision as a status offender. A.) Court Order B.) Valid Court Order C.) Invalid Court Order D.) Subpoena - ANSWER-B.) Valid Court Order ___________ is conduct, other than a traffic offense, that violates a penal law of this state or of the United States punishable by imprisonment or by confinement in jail. A.) Criminal Conduct B.) Juvenile Conduct C.) Delinquent Conduct D.) Improper Conduct - ANSWER-C.) Delinquent Conduct If a child appears before the juvenile court without a parent or guardian, the court _____ appoint a guardian ad litem to protect the interests of the child. (The juvenile court does not need to appoint a guardian ad litem if a parent or guardian appears with the child.) A.) May B.) Will C.) Must D.) Shall - ANSWER-D.) Shall A child may be detained only in which of the following places? A.) Juvenile Processing Office B.) Non-secure correctional facility C.) Secure detention facility D.) All of the above - ANSWER-D.) All of the above A child may not be detained in a juvenile processing office for longer than ___ hours. A.) Nine B.) Eight C.) Six D.) Four - ANSWER-C.) Six A child ______ be photographed or fingerprinted without the consent of the juvenile court unless the child is taken into custody referred to the juvenile court for conduct that constitutes a felony or a misdemeanor punishable by confinement in jail. A.) May B.) Can C.) May not D.) Can't - ANSWER-C.) May not A law enforcement officer may take temporary custody of a child to take the child's fingerprints if the officer has probable cause to believe that the child has engaged in delinquent conduct. True or False? A.) True B.) False - ANSWER-A.) True A person _______ administer a polygraph examination to the child without the consent of the child's attorney or the juvenile court unless the child is transferred to criminal court for prosecution. A.) May B.) Will not C.) May not D.) Shall not - ANSWER-C.) May not On the issuance of a directive to apprehend, any law-enforcement or probation officer _____ take the child into custody. A.) Shall B.) Shall not C.) May D.) May not - ANSWER-A.) Shall A justice or municipal court _______ order the confinement of a child for the failure to pay all or any part of a fine or costs imposed for the conviction of an offense punishable by fine only. A.) Shall B.) Shall not C.) May D.) May not - ANSWER-D.) May not A child _______ not be secured physically to a cuffing rail, chair, desk, or other stationary object. A.) Can B.) Can not C.) May D.) May not - ANSWER-D.) May not If the child is not released under Section 53.02, a detention hearing without a jury shall be held promptly, but not later than the ______ working day after the child is taken into custody. A.) First B.) Second C.) Third D.) None of the above - ANSWER-B.) Second When a child is detained on a Friday or Saturday, then such detention hearing shall be held on the ______ working day after the child is taken into custody. A.) First B.) Second C.) Third D.) None of the above - ANSWER-A.) First Who has the duty of control and reasonable discipline of the child? A.) A parent or grandparent B.) A stepparent C.) A guardian D.) All of the above - ANSWER-D.) All of the above A state agency _________ adopt rules or policies or take any other action that violates the fundamental right and duty of a parent to direct the upbringing of the parent's child. A.) May B.) May not C.) Shall D.) Shall not - ANSWER-B.) May not ____________ means the illegal or improper use of a child or of the resources of a child for monetary or personal benefit, profit, or gain by an employee, volunteer, or other individual working under the auspices of a facility or program as further described by rule or policy. A.) Department B.) Exploitation C.) Conservator D.) Trafficker - ANSWER-B.) Exploitation A person having cause to believe that a child's physical or mental health or welfare has been adversely affected by abuse or neglect by any person shall ____________ make a report. A.) Immediately B.) Consider C.) Temporarily D.) Possibly - ANSWER-A.) Immediately A person commits an offense if, with the intent to deceive, the person knowingly makes a report as provided in this chapter that is false. What is the degree of offense? A.) Class A Misdemeanor B.) Class B Misdemeanor C.) State Jail Felony D.) Third Degree Felony - ANSWER-C.) State Jail Felony Which of the following persons may consent to medical, dental, psychological, and surgical treatment of a child when the person having the right to consent as otherwise provided by law cannot be contacted and that person has not given actual notice to the contrary? A.) A grandparent B.) An adult sibling C.) An aunt or uncle D.) All of the above - ANSWER-D.) All of the above A person named as a child's mother or father in the child's birth certificate is presumed to be the child's parent. True or False? A.) True B.) False - ANSWER-A.) True The missing children and missing persons information clearinghouse is established within the _______________. A.) NCIC B.) FBI C.) Department of Public Safety D.) TLETS - ANSWER-C.) Department of Public Safety __________ means a child 17 years of age or younger whose whereabouts are unknown and whose disappearance poses a credible threat to the safety and health of the child, as determined by a local law enforcement agency. A.) Missing Child B.) Abducted Child C.) Amber Alert D.) Kidnapped Child - ANSWER-B.) Abducted Child ____________ means significantly sub-average general intellectual functioning that is concurrent with deficits in adaptive behavior and originates during the developmental period. The term includes a pervasive developmental disorder. A.) Disability B.) Pervasive developmental disorder C.) Intellectual disorder D.) Intellectual disability - ANSWER-D.) Intellectual disability ________________ means a disorder that meets the criteria for a pervasive developmental disorder established in the most recent Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association. A.) Disability B.) Pervasive developmental disorder C.) Intellectual disorder D.) Intellectual disability - ANSWER-B.) Pervasive developmental disorder The Five Domains of Risk Factors for youth gang are involvement, Individual, family, school, peers, community. True of False? A.) True B.) False - ANSWER-A.) True The presence of multiple domains in a youth's life does not increase the likelihood of gang involvement. True or False? A.) True B.) False - ANSWER-B.) False Joining a gang is not a permanent decision. True or False? A.) True B.) False - ANSWER-A.) True Most youth are forced to join a gang. True or False? A.) True B.) False - ANSWER-B.) False [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 222
TCOLE Rules Module 4 Questions and Answers
The __________ Code is the statutory authority for the Commission to establish rules that law enforcement agencies and officers must follow - ANSWER-Occupa... [Show More] tions According to Commissions Rules, if a licensee's name is changed for any reason, such as marriage, divorce, or other court action, it must be reported to the Commission within __________ days. - ANSWER-30 __________ is a law enforcement unit or other entity, whether public or private, authorized by Texas law to appoint a person licensed or certified by the commission. - ANSWER-Agency Which form designates the statement of appointment? - ANSWER-L-1 __________ has been given the legal power to act as a peace officer or reserve, whether elected, employed, or appointed. (4) - ANSWER-Commissioned What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Texas Peace Officers' Memorial Monument? - ANSWER-229 What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Enforcement? - ANSWER-223 It is __________'s mission as a regulatory state agency to establish and enforce standards to ensure that the people of Texas are served by highly trained and ethical law enforcement, corrections, and telecommunications personnel. - ANSWER-TCOLE What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Licensing? - ANSWER-217 What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Administration? - ANSWER-211 A TCOLE training cycle is __________. - ANSWER-4 years According to Sec. 211.27 of the Commission rules, when a person who holds a commission license or certificate is arrested, charged, or indicted for a criminal offense above the grade of Cass C misdemeanor or for any Class C misdemeanor involving the duties and responsibilities of office or family violence, that person must report such fact to the commission in writing within __________ days. - ANSWER-30 What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Specialized Licenses? - ANSWER-225 Peace officers who do not have their Intermediate Certification by the last day of the cycle must take __________. (4) a.Cultural Diversity (3939) b.Crisis Intervention (CIT) (3843) c.Special Investigation Topics (3232) d.De-escalation (1849) e.All of the above - ANSWER-E. All of the above A TCOLE training unit is __________. - ANSWER-2 years According to the Occupations Code, a person licensed as a peace officer must complete 40 hours of legislatively required continuing education training once every __________. - ANSWER-24 months What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Proficiency? - ANSWER-221 Unless revocation is required, the commission may suspend a license or certificate for violating any provision of the Texas Occupations Code, Chapter 1701 or commission rule. T/F - ANSWER-True __________ is any current commission developed course that is required before an individual may be licensed by the commission. - ANSWER-Basic Licensing Course What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Prelicensing and Reactivation? - ANSWER-219 What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Training? - ANSWER-215 According to Sec. 218.3 Legislatively Required Continuing Education for Licensees, the legislatively required continuing education program for individuals licensed as peace officers shall consist of __________ hours of training. (4 - ANSWER-40 What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with School Marshals? - ANSWER-227 According to Commission Rules, if a current license holder is arrested for any offense above a Class C misdemeanor, the license holder shall report the facts of the arrest to the Commission in writing within __________. - ANSWER-30 days What Chapter of the Texas Administrative Code deals with Continuing Education? - ANSWER-218 Which of the following best describes the TCOLE L-3 form? - ANSWER-Report required psychiatric information for a licensee As a requirement for an intermediate proficiency certificate, an officer must complete an education and training program on racial profiling established by the commission under Section 1701.253(h) T/F - ANSWER-True According to Sec. 218.9 Firearms Proficiency Requirements, each agency or entity that employs at least __________ peace officer shall require each peace officer that it employs to successfully complete the current firearms proficiency requirements at least once each year - ANSWER-1 A qualified retired law enforcement officer's weapons proficiency certification expires on the __________. - ANSW [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 125
TCOLE Patrol Exam Questions and Answers
True or False: Beat characteristics: 1Area characteristics 2: Conditions 3: Crime Hazards 4: Knowledge of area - ANSWER-TRUE Elements of shift ori... [Show More] entation - ANSWER-1: Duty assignment 2: related circumstances, i.e. warrants, stolen property... What should you know about known offenders? - ANSWER-Habits Nicknames Crimes Vehicle(s) Where do you place your flashlight to avoid Silhouetting? - ANSWER-Away from body and in front. Telltale noises - ANSWER-Vehicle, engine Radio Seat belts Door slam shut Equipment Suspects hands - ANSWER-Keep hands out of pockets if out.. If hands are in pockets keep in pocket. Out of the 5 senses which one can be trained? - ANSWER-Sight Apprehension patrol - ANSWER-Low visibility Surveillance What should an officer do if they are sleepy on duty? - ANSWER-Contact supervisor What is the objective of the 2nd officer on a stop? - ANSWER-Cover One-officer patrol - ANSWER-*Twice as many patrol vehicles on the street, *Self-reliance, *Takes fewer chances First step in responding to a crime? - ANSWER-Get there safely Out of the 5 senses which one is least effective? - ANSWER-Taste 7 step violator contact - ANSWER-1: Greeting, ID self/agency 2: state violation 3: D.L & insurance 4: Action taken 5: Take action 6: Explain what violator must do 7: Leave First step in high-risk stop - ANSWER-Notify Location and vehicle Out of the 7 step contact which one steps the tone of the stop? - ANSWER-Greeting Rescue Team - ANSWER-A slow moving and methodical team whose mission is to search for and recover downed citizens or officers Contact team - ANSWER-A proactive search team dedicated to locating and eliminating the deadly conduct that is occurring Diamond formation - ANSWER-Point man Contact 1 (left flank) Contact 2 (right flank) Rear guard 4 types of crowds - ANSWER-Casual Cohesive Expressive Aggressive Casual crowd - ANSWER-No unity of purpose and no leadership ( shoppers, on-lookers) Cohesive crowd - ANSWER-Usually assembles for a common purpose without leadership (Sporting events, parades) Expressive crowd - ANSWER-Assembled for some purpose. Leadership and intention of expressing an attitude for or against (Political rallies) Aggressive crowd - ANSWER-Assembled for purpose, leadership, highly emotional tension, can easily become a mob Crime prevention - ANSWER-A proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the action needed to remove or reduce that risk COVER - ANSWER-Being hidden while also being protected by some barrier that provides an adequate level of protection Concealment - ANSWER-Being hidden but without protection Objectives of Patrol - ANSWER-Preserve peace, prevent crime, suppress crime, apprehend suspects, regulate non-criminal conduct CCP 2.13 - ANSWER-Duties and Powers CCP 6.05 - ANSWER-Duty of peace officer as to threats CCP 6.06 - ANSWER-Peace officer to prevent injury CCP 6.07 - ANSWER-Conduct of peace officer Elements of beat characteristics - ANSWER-area, ses, conditions, crime hazards, crimes committed in this area Silhouetting - ANSWER-placing yourself and others in a position that would provide suspects with identifiable target - provides search with knowledge of how may officers are present -holding flashlight in front of body and pointing towards other officers Telltale noises - ANSWER-engine, seatbelt click, door slam Two types of patrols - ANSWER-Preventive Patrol, Apprehension Patrol 2 types of Preventive patrol - ANSWER-Preventive enforcement/ Selective Patrol Preventive Enforcement - ANSWER-conduct property checks, questions suspicious persons, vary patrol patterns and predictability and maintain high vis Selective Patrol - ANSWER-deals with specific problems or violations, so be aware of the problem, the location and the time of day that the problems usually occur Apprehension patrol - ANSWER-low vis and surveillance 6 different patrol modes - ANSWER-bike, motors, foot, auto, fixed wing, mounted One officer patrol - ANSWER-having twice as many patrol veh -more attention devoted to patrol functions and duties -develops self-reliance -takes fewer chances -personality clashes reduced two officer patrol - ANSWER--greater safety factor -training aid for officer mistakes -share driving duties -two pairs of eyes are better than one -one officer can operate radio while other drives skilled observer - ANSWER-one who is able to take in everything around a given situation and then sort out the relevant from the irrelevant Michigan v Chesternut - ANSWER-On December 19, 1984, Michael Mose Chesternut saw a police car approach him while one a routine patrol, so he ran. After the police caught up with him and drove alongside him for a short distance, they observed him discarding a number of packets. Assuming the packets contained cocaine, the police arrested Chesternut and, after a search of his person, discovered heroin and a hypodermic needle. Chesternut was charged with possession of controlled substances in violation of Michigan law. The trial court dismissed the charge and concluded that Chesternut was unlawfully seized during the police pursuit preceding his disposal of the packets. The Michigan Court of Appeals affirmed and held that Chesternut's freedom was restricted as soon as the officers began their pursuit. Michigan appealed directly to the U.S. Supreme Court California v Hodari - ANSWER-he Petitioner and other youths fled after seeing a patrolling police car. The police gave chase and ordered the Petitioner to stop. The Petitioner continued to flee, throwing a rock later identified as crack cocaine. The Petitioner was subsequently caught. Synopsis of Rule of Law. An arrest (seizure) occurs when physical force has been applied to a person, or when a person submits to the assertion of authority Terry v Ohio - ANSWER-The officer noticed the Petitioner talking with another individual on a street corner while repeatedly walking up and down the same street. The men would periodically peer into a store window and then talk some more. The men also spoke to a third man whom they eventually followed up the street. The officer believed that the Petitioner and the other men were "casing"� a store for a potential robbery. The officer decided to approach the men for questioning, and given the nature of the behavior the officer decided to perform a quick search of the men before questioning. A quick frisking of the Petitioner produced a concealed weapon and the Petitioner was charged with carrying a concealed weapon -An officer may perform a search for weapons without a warrant, even without probable cause, when the officer reasonably believes that the person may be armed and dangerous. Field Inquiry - ANSWER-used to learn about people/a vital source of information/used to learn about places 7 step violator - ANSWER-Greeting, Statement of violation, ID, Statement of Action, Take action, Explain what the violator must do, Leave Immediate Action - ANSWER-Contact/Rescue Team Contact Team - ANSWER-A proactive search team dedicated to locating and eliminating the deadly conduct that is occuring Rescue Team - ANSWER-a slow moving and methodical team whose mission is to search for and recover downed citizens Building where illegal entry is suspected - ANSWER-notify dispatch, request backup, secure point of entry, secure other exits, request dispatcher to notify property owner to advise location of office First priority in crowd control situations - ANSWER--officer safety In event of crowd control, first responder should assess the situation and advise _______asap - ANSWER-dispatcher Crowd - ANSWER-large number of persons temp congregated. Generally, the members of a crowd think and act as individuals and are without organization Casual crowd - ANSWER-has not unity of purpose and no leadership I.e shoppers, onlookers, or watchers. Respond to direction of police Cohesive crowd - ANSWER-usually assembles for a common purpose without leadership i.e spectators at sporting events, along parade routes, and other activities. They have a common interest but behave and think as individuals Expressive Crowd - ANSWER-are assembled for some purpose. They have no leadership and the intention of expressing an attitude for or against some person or idea i.e political rallies, and picket lines Aggressive Crowd - ANSWER-it usually assembled for some purpose. They have positive leadership, are determined to accomplish a specific end, and move actively toward their objective. Usually high emotional tension is present Mobs - ANSWER-all or most members of the crowd have been instilled with a purpose and intent to carry out their purpose, regardless of the consequences. Reaches hot stage when acts of violence are committed Aggressive Mob - ANSWER-An aggressive mob riots and terrorizes as in the case of race riots, lyching, political riots, or prison riots. Escape Mob - ANSWER-a mob in a state of panic. In their attempt tto secur safety by flight Acquisitive Mob - ANSWER-A mob motivated by a desire to acquire something, i.e food riots. Goals of Public Service - ANSWER-To provide protection and service -To minimize cultural/emotional barriers separating peace officers and the public -to create an officer/citizen relationship that supports the best interests of society -to create empathetic response to citizen concerns/needs Consequences of public service - ANSWER--lack of trust and respect -reduced budgetary support -increased citizen complaints visual presence - ANSWER-vehicular, on foot, other Role of Crime Prevention - ANSWER-a proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and the action needed to remove or reduce that risk. VCCR - ANSWER-Vienna Convention on Consular Relations Basic Rule of VCCR - ANSWER-a foreign detainee must be informed of his right to have his consulate notified -Arrestees decision should be documented -Applies to all foreign detainees, whether in the country illegally or not Operation ID - ANSWER-ma [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 150
TCOLE - Ch. 39 - Canine Encounters Exam Questions and Answers
Deadly Force is... - ANSWER-Force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is, capable of causing, deat... [Show More] h or serious bodily injury. Reckless injury of innocent third person - ANSWER-Even though an actor is justified under this chapter in threatening or using force or deadly force against another, if in doing so he also recklessly injures or kills an innocent third person, the justification afforded by this chapter is unavailable in a prosecution for the reckless injury or killing of the innocent third person. Civil Remedies Unaffected explained - ANSWER-The face that conduct is justified under this chapter does not abolish or impair any remedy for the conduct that is available in a civil suit. Abandon means... - ANSWER-abandoning an animal in the person's custody without making reasonable arrangements for assumption of custody by another person. Animal means... - ANSWER-a domesticated living creature, including any stray or feral cat or dog, and a wild living creature previously captured. The term DOES NOT INCLUDE an UNCAPTURED WILD LIVING CREATURE or a LIVESTOCK ANIMAL. Cruel Manner means... - ANSWER-includes a manner that causes or permits unjustified or unwarranted pain or suffering. (Ex: Chaining up an animal w/heavy weighted chains for the purposes of building up their strength to be a fighting animal) Custody means... - ANSWER-includes responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of an animal subject to the person's care and control, regardless of ownership of the animal. Depredation means... - ANSWER-has the meaning listed in 71.001, Parks and Wildlife Code: the loss or damage to agricultural crops, livestock, poultry, wildlife or personal property. Livestock Animal is... - ANSWER--Cattle, sheep, swine, goats, ratites or poultry commonly raised for human consumption; a horse, pony, mule, donkey, or hinny. Necessary food, water, care or shelter is... - ANSWER-includes food, water, care, or shelter provided to the extent required to maintain the animal in a state of good health. Torture is... - ANSWER-includes any act that cause unjustifiable pain or suffering. Cruelty to Animals (PC 42.092 - Non-Livestock): - ANSWER-A person commits an offense if the person intentionally, knowingly or recklessly: (1) tortures an animal or in a cruel manner kills or causes serious bodily injury to an animal; (2) without the owner's effective consent, kills, administers poison to, or causes serious bodily injury to an animal; (3) fails unreasonably to provide necessary food, water, care, or shelter for an animal in the person's custody; (4) abandons unreasonably an animal in the person's custody; (5) transports or confines an animal in a cruel manner; (6) without the owner's effective consent, causes bodily injury to an animal; (7) causes one animal to fight with another animal, if either animal is not a dog; (8) uses a live animal as a lure in dog race training or in dog coursing on a racetrack; or (9) seriously overworks an animal. (c) An offense under Subsection (b)(3), (4), (5), (6), or (9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that the offense is a state jail felony if the person has previously been convicted two times under this section, two times under Section 42.09 , or one time under this section and one time under Section 42.09 . (c-1) An offense under Subsection (b)(1) or (2) is a felony of the third degree, except that the offense is a felony of the second degree if the person has previously been convicted under Subsection (b)(1), (2), (7), or (8) or under Section 42.09 . (c-2) An offense under Subsection (b)(7) or (8) is a state jail felony, except that the offense is a felony of the third degree if the person has previously been convicted under this section or under Section 42.09 . (d) It is a defense to prosecution under this section that: (1) the actor had a reasonable fear of bodily injury to the actor or to another person by a dangerous wild animal as defined by Section 822.101, Health and Safety Code ; or (2) the actor was engaged in bona fide experimentation for scientific research. (e) It is a defense to prosecution under Subsection (b)(2) or (6) that: (1) the animal was discovered on the person's property in the act of or after injuring or killing the person's livestock animals or damaging the person's crops and that the person killed or injured the animal at the time of this discovery; or (2) the person killed or injured the animal within the scope of the person's employment as a public servant or in furtherance of activities or operations associated with electricity transmission or distribution, electricity generation or operations associated with the generation of electricity, or natural gas delivery. (f) It is an exception to the application of this section that the conduct engaged in by the actor is a generally accepted and otherwise lawful: (1) form of conduct occurring solely for the purpose of or in support of: (A) fishing, hunting, or trapping; or (B) wildlife management, wildlife or depredation control, or shooting preserve practices as regulated by state and federal law; or (2) animal husbandry or agriculture practice involving livestock animals. (g) This section does not create a civil cause of action for damages or enforcement of the section. Animal Control Authority means... - ANSWER-a municipal or county animal control office with authority over the area where the dog is kept or a county sheriff in an area with no animal control office. Dangerous Dog is... - ANSWER-a dog that makes an unprovoked attack on a person that causes bodily injury and occurs in a place other than an enclosure in which the dog was being kept and that was reasonably certain to prevent the dog from leaving the enclosure on it's own, or commits unprovoked acts in a place other than an enclosure in which the dog was being kept and that was reasonably certain to prevent the dog from leaving the enclosure on its own and those acts cause a person to reasonably believe that the dog will attack and cause bodily injury to that person. Scope is defined as: - ANSWER-According to Black's Law Dictionary: The range of duties that an employee is expected to carry out in order to fulfill the requirements of the position. Dog means... - ANSWER-a domesticated animal that is a member of the canine family. Secure Enclosure is... - ANSWER-means a fenced area or structure that is: locked, capable of preventing entry of the general public/children, capable of preventing the escape or release of a dog, clearly marked as containing a dangerous dog, and in conformance with the requirements for enclosures established by the local animal control authority. (Think ALL SIDES) Owner is... - ANSWER-a person who owns or has custody or control of the dog. In determining a dog to be dangerous: - ANSWER-- The authority MAY investigate the incident and after receiving a sworn statement of any witnesses, the animal control authority determines the dog IS a dangerous dog, it SHALL notify the owner of that fact. - The owner, NOT later than 15 days after being notified, may appeal the determination made to a Justice, County or Municipal Court of competent jurisdiction. The owner MAY appeal the initial court's decision in normal fashion if desired. 15 DAYS is the key here. Not later than the _____ day after a person learns that the person is the owner of a dangerous dog, the owner is required to complete requirements under the law. - ANSWER-30th day What are the requirements of the owner after they are notified of being the owner of a dangerous dog? - ANSWER-Owner must within 30 days do the following: - register the dangerous dog with animal control authorities. - restrain the dangerous dog at ALL TIMES on a leash in the immediate control of the person or in a secured enclosure (all sides...) - obtain liability insurance or show financial responsibility in an amount of at least $100,000 to cover damages, and provide such proof to animal control authority. - comply with an applicable municipal or county regulation, requirement, or restriction on dangerous dogs. The owner of a dangerous dog, who does NOT comply with the requirements listed in #21, SHALL deliver the dog to the animal control authority no later than the _____ day after the owner learns that the dog is a dangerous dog. - ANSWER-30th day T or F: If the owner of a dangerous dog fails to comply with the requirements noted in #21 and #22, the court SHALL order the animal control authority to seize the dog and shall issue a warrant authorizing seizure. - ANSWER-True T or F: The owner shall pay any cost or fees assessed related to the seizure, acceptances, impoundment, or destruction of the dog, including possibly additional fees. - ANSWER-True If the owner has not complied with the requirements listed in the code to become compliant with a dangerous dog before the _____ day after the date on which the dog was seized or delivered to the authority, the court SHALL order the animal control authority to humanely destroy the dog. - ANSWER-11th day The court may order the human destruction of a dog if the owner of the dog has NOT been located before the _____ day after the seizure and impoundment of the dog. - ANSWER-15th day Ethology is... - ANSWER-the scientific and objective study of animal behavior. Dog's Body Parts used in communication are: - ANSWER-facial expressions, ear set, tail carriage and overall demeanor are used to signal their intentions and feelings towards others. The Eyes described: - ANSWER-- dogs rarely look directly into each other's eyes, as it is a threatening behavior. - a direct start is much more likely to be a threat, so if in a close proximity to a dog, it is wise to look away slow. - if a dog is showing the "whale eye" it might be leading up to an aggressive outburst. The Mouth desribed: - ANSWER-- a dog who is frightened or feeling submissive probably has his mouth closed. - when a dog is relaxed and happy, he is likely to have his mouth closed or slightly opened. - a dog who is signaling his intention to act aggressively will often retract his lips to expose his teeth. - a dog may draw his lips back horizontally so that his lips are really tight at the commissure (corners of mouth) this indicates often the dog is feeling afraid. The Ears described: - ANSWER--when a dog is relaxed and comfortable, he will hold his ears naturally. -when he is alert, he will raise them higher on his head and will direct them towards whatever is holding his interest. -a dog will also raise his ears up and forward when he is feeling aggressive. -if your dog has ears pulled back slightly, he is signaling his intention to be friendly. -if ears are completely flattened or stuck out to the sides of his head, he is signaling that he is frightened or feeling submissive. The Tail described: - ANSWER--dogs wag their tails when they are feeling aggressive, although moreover a dog wagging the tail can still be friendly. -if dog feels nervous or submissive, he will hold his tail lower and might even tuck it between his rear legs. He may still wag it from side to side, often at a more rapid pace than if he is relaxed. if he is really scared or feeling extremely submissive, he will hold his tail tucked up tight against his belly. - if he is standing his ground or threatening someone, he may "flag" his tail, meaning he holds it still and high and moves it rigidly back and forth. The Hair desribed: - ANSWER-- dogs may signal their emotions by raising their hair, which is called "piloerection" or more colloquially, "raising the hackles". - most often, this is the hair on their necks and backs. - dogs raise their hair when they are aroused about something. - raised hackles can mean that a dog is afraid, angry, insecure, unsure, nervous or wildly excited about something. Dog's Body Language Types: Using a Visual Depiction include: - ANSWER-Relaxed Approach, Alert, Dominant Aggressive, Fear and Aggressive, Stressed and Distressed, Fearful and Worried. Dominant Aggression is described as: - ANSWER--can be a dangerous or unpredictable type of dog that can intimidate officers. - usually only one person has control over this type of dog, officers should be careful when approaching. - this type of dog has problem with strangers, friendly at times then not. - never make the mistake of thinking this dog's temperament is protective, this aggression can be very dangerous. Fear Aggression is described as: - ANSWER--handing fear aggression in a dog requires patience and consistent reinforcement and some cases, involving chemical immobilization. - dog is usually nervous, insecure ad frightened most of the time. -usually reacts to almost any disturbances from rad [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 124
TCOLE (Master Study Guide) latest updated
That condition of the human organism that consists of its health and disease status and risk potential. - ANSWER-Wellness According to the Occupations C... [Show More] ode, a person licensed as a peace officer must complete 40 hours of legislatively required continuing education training once every - ANSWER-24 months According to Commission Rules, if a licensee's name is changed for any reason, such as marriage, divorce, or other court action, it must be reported to the Commission within _____ days - ANSWER-30 days According to Commission Rules, if a current license holder is arrested for any offense above a Class C misdemeanor, the license holder shall report the facts of the arrest to the Commission in writing within - ANSWER-30 days According to Commission Rules, the license of any licensee who does not meet the legislatively required continuing education by the expiration date will - ANSWER-Expire Which of the following is an advantage of having the professional model for law enforcement? - ANSWER-More effective problem solving techniques The expression or use of facts without distortion by personal feelings or prejudices is the definition of - ANSWER-Objectivity Investigations relating to the deprivation of civil rights under color of law are usually conducted by the - ANSWER-Federal Bureau of Investigation According to the Penal Code, a public servant acting under color of office or employment commits the offense of Official Oppression if the public servant - ANSWER-Intentionally subjects another to sexual harassment lly sub The Sixth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution - ANSWER-Gives the right to trial, open to the public Cruel and unusual punishment are prohibited by which amendment? - ANSWER-8th According to the _____ Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, powers not specifically reserved to the federal government are reserved to the state government. - ANSWER-10th According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a _____ is an order issued by a judge directed to anyone having a person in their custody, commanding them to produce such person and show why they are in custody - ANSWER-Writ of habeas corpus Which court case affirmed a person's right to free speech? - ANSWER-Dural V. City of Douglas The 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives citizens the protection from_____. - ANSWER-Self-Incrimination The _____ Amendment limits the level of force that may be used to reasonable force. - ANSWER-4th The primary components of the American Criminal Justice System are _____. - ANSWER-Police, courts, and correctional _____ is law that defines the personal and property rights of individuals. - ANSWER-Civil Law According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following is NOT a magistrate? - ANSWER-District Attorneys According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following are NOT Texas peace officers? - ANSWER-Special agents of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Court of Criminal Appeals does NOT _____. - ANSWER-Review decisions of civil cases According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the ______ courts shall have original jurisdiction of all misdemeanors of which exclusive original jurisdiction is not given to the justice court, and when the fine to be imposed shall exceed five hundred dollars. - ANSWER-County According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer who investigates a family violence allegation or who responds to a disturbance call that may involve family violence shall advise any possible adult victim of all reasonable means to prevent further family violence, including _____. - ANSWER-Giving written notice of a victim's legal rights According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following is NOT a use of force option for dispersing a riot? - ANSWER-Use any defree of force According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an affidavit made before a magistrate charging the commission of an offense is called a/an_____. - ANSWER-Complaint According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the security given by the accused that he will appear and answer before the proper court the accusation brought against him is known as _____. - ANSWER-Bail According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a written statement of a grand jury accusing a person of an offense is a/an _____. - ANSWER-Indictment According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a person is arrested when the person has been ____. - ANSWER-Taken into custody According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a written statement that is filed and presented on behalf of the State of Texas by a district attorney that charges a person with an offense that may be prosecuted according to law is called a/an _____. - ANSWER-Information According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer from another state may pursue a fleeing person into Texas and arrest them there, if the person is suspected of committing ______. - ANSWER-A felony According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, the time allowed for the execution of a search warrant shall be _____ whole days, exclusive of the day of issuance and the day of its execution. - ANSWER-3 whole days According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which court has original jurisdiction over all felony cases? - ANSWER-District Court According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is a writ issued by a court directing any peace officer in the state, commanding him to arrest a person accused of an offense and bring him before that court immediately called? - ANSWER-Capias According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, appeals from the Justice Court are heard by the _____ Court. - ANSWER-County According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is the term for a written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer, commanding them to take the body of the person accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law? - ANSWER-Arrest warrant According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is a law enforcement-initiated action based on an individual's ethnicity or national origin rather than the individual's behavior? - ANSWER-Racial Profiling According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, whenever a peace officer meets with resistance in discharging any duty imposed on him by law, he _____ command a sufficient number of citizens of his county to overcome the resistance. - ANSWER-Shall _____ circumstances exist when there is not enough time to obtain a warrant and the officer must establish probable cause. - ANSWER-Emergency The right to have an attorney present during questioning was affirmed by _____. - ANSWER-Miranda V. Arizona Persons found in suspicious places, and under circumstances which reasonably show that such persons are about to commit some offense against the laws may _____. - ANSWER-Be arrested without a warrant According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer or any other person, may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when the offense is committed in their presence or within their view if the offense is classified as _____. - ANSWER-A felony In U.S. v. Carroll, the Supreme Court upheld an officer's right to search a vehicle's trunk when the officers have _____. - ANSWER-Probable cause Under temporary detention, a person _____ be required to identify himself. - ANSWER-Cannot The act of keeping back, or withholding, by design, a person, is the definition of _____. - ANSWER-Detention The right of the officer to search the immediate area of control in a search incident to an arrest was affirmed in _____. - ANSWER-Chimel V. Calfornia According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a search warrant is a written order, issued by a magistrate and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to _____. - ANSWER-Search for any property or thing and seize the same Holding a person for a limited time who, as yet, is not answerable to a criminal offense is ____. - ANSWER-Temporary Detention According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, if a _____ from another state comes into or passes through this state under an order directing him to attend and testify in this or another state, he is not subject to arrest or the service of civil or criminal process because of any act committed prior to his arrival in this state under the order. - ANSWER-Witness According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, an officer must have _____ to believe the property is stolen to justify seizure of the property. - ANSWER-Probable Cause According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer may arrest, without a warrant, when a felony or breach of the peace has been committed in the presence or within view of a _____ and such person verbally orders the arrest of the offender. - ANSWER-Magistrate _____ exists when the facts and circumstances known to the officer would warrant a prudent man believing that an offense has been committed. - ANSWER-Probable cause According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, what is the actual forcible detention of a person and other coercive measures to detain him within certain limits? - ANSWER-cONSTRUCTIVE CUSTODY Which U.S. Constitutional amendment is the primary focus of the Miranda v. Arizona case? - ANSWER-5th According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a citizen may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when the offense is committed within their view is a _____. - ANSWER-Felony According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following, occurring in the presence of an officer, requires an arrest, even without a warrant? - ANSWER-There is a person the officer has probable cause to believe is violating a protective order According to the Code of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer may break down the door of any house for the purpose of making an arrest if he has been refused admittance after giving notice of his authority and purpose under which of the following circumstances. - ANSWER-Felony The poisonous tree doctrine, which displays the notion that evidence obtained after illegal government action will be excluded from evidence, was affirmed in _____. - ANSWER-Wong Sun V. U.S. You can frisk if there is _____ that the suspect may be in possession of a weapon. - ANSWER-Reasonable fear When a search is conducted after a lawful arrest, within immediate control and contemporaneous with the arrest, the search is justified under _____ to lawful arrest. - ANSWER-incidental What is generally considered to be that area of open space surrounding a dwelling, which is so immediately adjacent to the dwelling that it is part of the house? - ANSWER-Curtilage According to the Penal Code, what is NOT part of the element of an offense? - ANSWER-admission of guilt According to the Penal Code, in the case of an "exception to an offense," the burden of proof lies with the _____. - ANSWER-Prosecuting attorney According to the Penal Code, a person acts _____, with respect to the nature of their conduct, when it is the conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result. - ANSWER-intentionally According to the Penal Code, a person is criminally responsible as a party to an offense if the offense is _____. - ANSWER-Committed by his own conduct According to the Penal Code, what is an affirmative defense to prosecution that the actor was compelled by threat of serious bodily injury to engage in the proscribed conduct? - ANSWER-Duress According to the Penal Code, a mistake of fact is _____. - ANSWER-A defense to prosecution According to the Penal Code, in order to prove a case of public intoxication, a person must ____. - ANSWER-Appear in a public place while intoxicated to a degree the person may endanger himself/herself or another A person is in the process of robbing a store when a customer enters and is shot and killed by the person. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? - ANSWER-Capital Murder A person abducts a child and demands a ransom for the child's release. The person gets scared and releases the child unharmed. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? - ANSWER-Aggravated kidnapping According to the Penal Code, what offense is committed when a person threatens to harm another, by an unlawful act, on account of their service as a witness or public servant? - ANSWER-Obstruction or retaliation A person causes an explosion with intent to destroy or damage, and is reckless about whether the explosion will endanger the life of some individual. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Arson A person who, in the course of committing theft, intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, or places another in fear of imminent bodily injury or death, has committed what offense? - ANSWER-Robbery A person knowingly causes serious bodily injury to another in the course of committing theft. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? - ANSWER-Aggravated Robbery A person breaks into an attached garage, breaks into a vehicle parked in the garage, and steals a $1,500 computer from the back seat. According to the Penal Code, what is the most serious offense committed? - ANSWER-Burglary According to the Penal Code, a person commits the offense of theft if they _____ appropriate property with intent to deprive the owner of the property. - ANSWER-Unlawfully A person removes a $450 price tag from a retail item, replaces it with a $200 price tag and pays the lower price. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Fraudulent destruction, removal, or concealment of writing A person steals a credit card with the intent to use it. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Credit card abuse A person knowingly prevents a writ from being served in a civil case. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Preventing execution of civil process A person enters the county commissioners' meeting and begins to shout obscenities. According to the Penal Code, that person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Disrupting meeting or procession According to the Penal Code, a person who knowingly solicits another to engage in sexual conduct with another person for compensation commits the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Promotion of prostitution According to the Penal Code, a person who intentionally operates or participates in the earnings of a gambling place has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Gambling promotion According to the Penal Code, what is the definition of a deadly weapon? - ANSWER-Anything that, in its manner of intended use, is capable of causing serious bodily injury According to the Penal Code, all persons are presumed to be innocent, and no person may be convicted of an offense unless each element of the offense is proven _____. - ANSWER-Beyond a reasonable doubt According to the Penal Code, which of the following persons is NOT permitted to carry, on or about their person, a handgun? - ANSWER-A person carrying large sums of money A person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person with the intent to use them as a shield or hostage. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of ______. - ANSWER-Aggravated kidnapping A person intentionally or knowingly restrains another person. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Unlawful restraint A person intentionally or knowingly abducts another person. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Kidnapping A person engaged in sexual contact with a child younger than 17 years of age, who is not their spouse, and is more than 3 years older than the child. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Indecency with a child A person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury to another, including the person's spouse. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Aggravated assault A person intentionally or knowingly causes the death of an individual. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Murder A person recklessly causes the death of an individual. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Manslaughter A person operates an amusement ride while intoxicated, and by reason of that intoxication causes the death of another by accident or mistake. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Intoxication manslaughter According to the Penal Code, which of the following is a "short barrel" firearm? - ANSWER-A shotgun with an overall length of less than 26 inches According to the Penal Code, which of the following is NOT covered in Section 46.02, "unlawfully carrying weapons?" - ANSWER-Shotgun A person, not the operator, knowingly possesses an open container (of alcohol) in a passenger area of a motor vehicle that is located on a public highway. According to the Penal Code, the person has committed the offense of _____. - ANSWER-Possession of alcoholic beverage in motor vehicle According to the Penal Code, a license, certificate, permit, seal, title, letter of patent, or similar document issued by a government, by another state, or by the United States is a _____. - ANSWER-Governmental record A person is in possession of a burning tobacco product in an elevator. According to the Penal Code, what offense has been committed? - ANSWER-Smoking tobacco A person retains a child younger than 18, knowing this violates the express terms of a judgment. According to the Penal Code, what offense has been committed? - ANSWER-Interference with child custody According to the Penal Code, conduct merely affording a person an opportunity to commit an offense does not constitute _____. - ANSWER-Entrapment According to the Penal Code, a person is justified in using deadly force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary to _____. - ANSWER-prevent the others imminent commission of robbery According to the Transportation Code, an operator intending to turn a vehicle right or left shall signal continuously for not less than the last _____ feet of movement of the vehicle before the turn. - ANSWER-100 According to the Transportation Code, a motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained primarily to transport property, is the definition of _____. - ANSWER-Truck According to the Transportation Code, a motor vehicle designed and used primarily as a farm implement to draw an implement of husbandry is the definition of a _____. - ANSWER-Farm tractor . According to the Transportation Code, a vehicle that is not designed or used primarily to transport persons or property and that is only incidentally operated on a highway, is classified a/an____. - ANSWER-Special mobile . According to the Transportation Code, an individual, association, corporation, or other legal entity that controls, operates, or directs the operation of one or more vehicles that transport persons or cargo over a road or highway in this state is a/an _____. - ANSWER-Motor carrier . According to the Transportation Code, before a violation for expired registration exists there is a _____ grace period after expiration. - ANSWER-5 working days . According to the Transportation Code, a divided, controlled-access highway for through traffic is the definition of a _____. - ANSWER-Freeway According to the Transportation Code, an improved shoulder is defined as a _____. - ANSWER-Paved shoulder According to the Transportation Code, the period beginning one-half hour before sunrise and ending one-half hour after sunset is _____. - ANSWER-Daytime . According to the Transportation Code, an injury to any part of the human body and that requires treatment is a _____. - ANSWER-Bodily injury A person disposes of litter on the public highway. According to the Health and Safety Code, what offense has been committed? - ANSWER-Illegal dumping According to the Transportation Code, a temporary prohibition against driving a commercial motor vehicle is what type of order? - ANSWER-out or service . According to the Transportation Code, an operator approaching a railroad grade crossing shall stop if a railroad engine approaching within approximately _____ feet of the highway crossing emits a signal audible from that distance. - ANSWER-1500 According to the Transportation Code, an operator emerging from an alley shall stop the vehicle _____. - ANSWER-Before moving on a sidewalk According to the Transportation Code, an operator may not, except momentarily to pick up or discharge a passenger, stand or park an occupied or unoccupied vehicle within how many feet of a fire hydrant? - ANSWER-15 According to the Transportation Code, an operator giving hand signals shall give them from _____. - ANSWER-The left side of the vehicle . According to the Transportation Code, an operator may not drive at a speed greater than is reasonable and _____ under the circumstances existing - ANSWER-Prudent According to the Transportation Code, a vehicle equipped with hazard lamps to warn other vehicle operators of a vehicular traffic hazard shall have the lamps visible at a distance of at least _____ feet in normal sunlight. - ANSWER-500 . According to the Transportation Code, a turn signal lamp mounted on the rear of a vehicle shall emit _____ light. - ANSWER-Red or amber According to the Transportation Code, unless expressly provided otherwise, a lighting device or reflector mounted on the rear of a vehicle must be or reflect _____. - ANSWER-Red According to the Transportation Code, an operator may not follow an ambulance closer than _____ when it is displaying headlights. - ANSWER-500 feet . According to the Transportation Code, what is the minimum light transmission percentage allowable for window tinting? - ANSWER-30 According to the Transportation Code, a motor vehicle is abandoned if the motor vehicle is inoperable, is more than 5 years old, and has been left unattended on public property for more than _____ hours. - ANSWER-48 According to the Transportation Code, a buyer's temporary cardboard tags are valid for _____ days after the date of purchase. - ANSWER-21 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 114
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$25.45
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
115
0
Seller Details
Beginner
Reviews received
