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Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exams 1, 2, 3, 4 & Midterm (New Version June 2024)
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Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 4 (New Version June 2024)
Question 1 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The best defense against arboviruses is . Select one: a. prophylactic rifampin b. vaccination c. vector ... [Show More] control d. prompt treatment with acyclovir Question 2 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Meningitis can be caused by a number of microbes, and the causative organism is often identified by microscopic observation of the cerebrospinal fluid. Identify the mismatch in the following list oforganisms and the description of the microscopic observation. Select one: a. Listeria monocytogenes; gram-negative coccobacillus with flagella b. Cryptococcus neoformans; fungal cells with a thick capsule c. Neisseria meningitidis; gram-negative diplococcus d. Enterovirus; no bacteria appear to be present in CSF e. Streptococcus pneumoniae; gram-positive flattened coccus Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 4 (New Version June 2024) We are a team of experts offering class attendance for all Straighterline, Online ATI, HESI, NCLEX, Portage Learning, Sophia etc courses (including final proctored exams!!). We also write essays, discussion posts, research papers and school assignments. Should you need any of these services, Contact us via email: [email protected] or WhatsApp: +1 (540) 753-5914. Guaranteed Passing! Live Courses | Sciences | BIO250 | BIO250_MH_V6 | Unit 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety Started on State Finished Completed on Time taken 28 mins 47 secs Grade 125.00 out of 125.00 (100%)Question 4 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following statements regarding the structure of blood vessels is incorrect? Select one: a. In contrast to veins, arteries have higher blood pressure, more tissue layers, and are thinner vessels. b. Blood vessels are often found in parallel with lymphatic vessels. c. Connective tissue and muscle fibers are found in the layers of tissue surrounding both arteries and veins. d. Capillaries have only a single layer of endothelium, rendering them fragile and leaky during an infection with a hemorrhagic fever virus. Question 5 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The most important defense of the cardiovascular system against infection is . Select one: a. fever b. lymphocytes in the blood c. lymph nodes d. the blood-brain barrier As a child, you received the OPVvaccine and its boosters. Now you are going on a mission trip to Pakistan, and the vaccine is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. When you go to the health office for the vaccine, they giveyou the IPV vaccine. When you ask why you are receiving the IPV rather than the OPV, the personnel explain that . Select one: a. the IPV has fewer active viruses in it than the OPV, soit is safer b. there is no possibility of actually developing polio from this vaccine c. IPV is used as a booster only, and OPV is used exclusively for children's first immunization d. the IPV is preferred by patients because it can be taken orally Question 3 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 7 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 For the following list of anti-HIV drugs and their mechanism of action. Identify the mismatch. Select one: a. Integrase inhibitor - blocks the active site of the enzyme required to splice HIV DNA into the human genome b. AZT (azidothymidine) - as an analog of thymidine, it is incorporated into viral RNA in place of thymidine c. Reverse transcriptase inhibitor - blocks the active site of the enzyme required to convert viral RNA to DNA d. Protease inhibitor - blocks the active site of the protease required for assembling new viral particles Yersinia pestis . Select one: a. is usually transmitted by a flea vector b. was virulent historically but currently circulating strains are not virulent c. has deer as an endemic reservoir d. does not respond to antimicrobial drugs Question 6 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 9 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? Select one: a. Endotoxin b. M protein c. Tracheal cytotoxin d. Filamentous hemagglutinin e. Pertussis toxin Question 10 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include . Select one: a. polysaccharides on the cell wall b. spiky M proteins c. lipoteichoic acid d. hyaluronic acid capsule e. All of thechoices are correct. Following unprotected sex with a guy you met at a party, you are now worried about what you might have been exposed to during this episode. Ten days later, you talk to your doctor about getting an HIV test. What is the doctor's response? Select one: a. It's too soon to detect the antibody produced by your immune system in response to HIV exposure, so a test will come back negative. Wait a few more weeks to be tested. b. The incidence of HIV infection in the United States is at an all-time low level, so transmission was not at all likely, especially after only a single possible exposure. c. HIV infection can be latent and asymptomatic for years, so testing should be postponed until you exhibit symptoms of AIDS. d. The antibioticthat you have been taking for a urinary tract infection will also destroy HIV, so you don't have to worryabout an infection. Question 8 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 12 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 In addition to antimicrobials, patients with diphtheria are treated with . Select one: a. antitoxin b. heart medication c. bronchoscopy d. tracheostomy e. All of thechoices are correct. Question 13 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 A metagenomic study from a never-before-seen type of gingival infection indicates the presence of large numbers of archaea. Which of the following would be a good practice to isolate this organism? Select one: a. Use an anaerobic medium and incubate in a sealed container. b. Incubate the isolation medium adjacent to a bright full-spectrum light. c. Incubate the isolation medium at about 90°C. d. Adjust the pH of the medium to below 5. What features of the respiratory system protect it from infection? Select one: a. Cilia b. Mucus c. Macrophages d. Nasal hairs e. All of the choicesare correct. Question 11 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 15 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 It is now past the normal dinner time, but you do not even want to think about food. Only diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and vomiting are on your mind. This all started a few hours ago after having a ham sandwich for lunch purchased from a street vendor. With your microbiology knowledge, you surmise that it is a Staphylococcus aureus-related disorder. Why do you think this? Select one: a. Ham is notorious for being contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus bacteria. b. The toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus was already in the ham, so the symptoms can occur quickly. c. Staphylococcus aureus isthe most common cause of gastrointestinal disease. d. Only Staphylococcus aureus infection causes vomiting, along with cramps and diarrhea. Question 16 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Cells of the immune system are not found in which of the following tissues in the gastrointestinal tract? Select one: a. Tooth enamel b. Peyer's patches c. Tonsils and adenoids d. Appendix Which of the following is not true of enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)? Select one: a. It causes traveler's diarrhea. b. Fluid replacement is vital to surviving an infection. c. It causes a high fever. d. It can be life-threatening in infants. Question 14 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 18 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 A patient in your clinic has tested positive for syphilis, and following his visit, you must prepare the room for future use. To avoid spreading this organism to other patients, the best approach is to . Select one: a. discard all linens and instruments in biohazard containers b. lock the room and post a sign that it must be professionally decontaminated c. clean all surfaces with a common disinfectant d. contact the CDC for guidance on proper cleaning Question 19 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which population is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection? Select one: a. AIDS patients b. Post-menopausal women c. College age women d. Neonates e. Pregnant women Cholera symptoms are . Select one: a. All of thechoices are correct. b. hypotension, tachycardia, and shock c. loss of blood volume d. copious watery diarrhea e. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst Question 17 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 21 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following statements regarding genital warts is incorrect? Select one: a. They formlarge cauliflower-like masses called condyloma acuminata. b. They are not common in the United States. c. They are sexually transmitted. d. Certain strains predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis. e. They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix. Question 22 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The zone of soil around roots of plants is called the . Select one: a. biosphere b. hydrosphere c. rhizosphere d. lithosphere e. ionosphere Restriction factors in the reproductive tract . Select one: a. are enzymes that hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond in DNA b. provide an innate protective effect against viral infection c. appear to derive from unculturable microbes in the normal microbiota d. adjust the pH of the mucosa and are modified during sexual maturation Question 20 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 24 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The study of the practical uses of microbes in various industries and technologies is . Select one: a. industrial microbiology b. microbial ecology c. bioengineering d. applied microbiology e. biotechnology Question 25 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Heterotrophs include . Select one: a. consumers only b. producers and consumers c. consumers and decomposers d. producers only e. producers, consumers, and decomposers Which environment represents the largest pool of microbial genes? Select one: a. Oceans b. Freshwater lakes c. Rainforest d. Humans and animals e. Soil Question 23 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 27 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following processes is not a part of metagenomic analysis of an environment? Select one: a. Reverse transcription b. High-throughput sequencing c. Polymerase chain reaction d. Extraction of DNA from original sample e. DNA sequence assembly Question 28 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The products of maltose fermentation in bread-making are . Select one: a. ethanol and water b. ethanol and carbon dioxide c. lactic acid and carbon dioxide d. carbon dioxide and water e. lactic acid and water Select the statement that explains the usefulness of metagenomic analysis in research today. Select one: a. It evaluates microbial diversity in a habitat. b. It allows the identification of unculturable microorganisms. c. All of these are correct statements. d. It detects the abundance of microorganisms in an environment. Question 26 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 30 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which statement is true regarding pasteurization? Select one: a. During pasteurization, the heating is done very quickly to prevent achange in the integrity and taste of the product. b. The process was first used in the wine industry. c. All statements are true. d. It does not kill all microorganisms in milk. Quiz navigation 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 Show one page at a time Finish review Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that provide an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called the . Select one: a. most probable number (MPN) b. standard plate count c. coliform count d. membrane filter method Question 29 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17© 2023 StraighterLine. All rights reserved [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 3 (New Version June 2024)
Question 1 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except . Select one: a. All of the choic... [Show More] es are correct. b. contact with hospital staff c. the birth process through the birth canal d. breastfeeding e. bottle feeding Question 2 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Resident biota are found in/on the . Select one: a. All of the choices are correct. b. large intestine c. mouth d. nasal passages e. skin Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 3 (New Version June 2024) We are a team of experts offering class attendance for all Straighterline, Online ATI, HESI, NCLEX, Portage Learning, Sophia etc courses (including final proctored exams!!). We also write essays, discussion posts, research papers and school assignments. Should you need any of these services, Contact us via email: [email protected] or WhatsApp: +1 (540) 753-5914. Guaranteed Passing! Live Courses | Sciences | BIO250 | BIO250_MH_V6 | Unit 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes Started on State Finished Completed on Time taken 28 mins 21 secs Grade 125.00 out of 125.00 (100%)Question 4 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 What is one goal of the Human Microbiome Project? Select one: a. To sequence the DNA of all microorganisms b. To provide comprehensive characterization of microbiota relating to human health and disease c. To study the prevalence of disease d. To elucidate genetically linked diseases e. To study microorganisms in an artificial habitat Question 5 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves . Select one: a. the production of inflammatory cytokines b. initiation of the cascade c. the cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b d. C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane e. a ring-shaped protein digesting holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes Question 3 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Some diseases can cause long-term or permanent damage in the patient termed . Select one: a. edema b. sequelae c. abscesses d. granulomas e. swollen lymph nodesQuestion 7 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except . Select one: a. swelling b. redness c. pain d. chills e. warmth Question 8 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Plasma cells . Select one: a. are derived from T lymphocytes b. function in cell-mediated immunity c. produce and secrete antibodies d. function in blood clotting Question 6 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 A person will typically experience the sensation of when fever is starting to occur in the body. Select one: a. pain b. chills c. heat d. sweatingQuestion 10 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis? Select one: a. Secondary b. Tertiary c. Primary d. Quaternary Question 11 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Epinephrine . Select one: a. reverses constriction of airways b. causes desensitization c. inhibits the activity of lymphocytes d. is an antihistamine Question 9 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is . Select one: a. IgG b. IgD c. IgM d. IgE e. IgAQuestion 13 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of . Select one: a. high levels of degranulating mast cells suggesting an allergic reaction b. overuse of dietary supplements c. a viral and/or fungal infection d. a bacterial infection Question 14 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? Select one: a. Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability b. Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils c. Histamine acting on smooth muscle d. Degranulation e. Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils Question 12 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 John, a Peace Corps worker in the country of Mali in Africa, was in a car accident while traveling through a rural area. He was treated at a tiny rural hospital, and due to his loss of blood, he required a transfusion. John has B- blood type and has never received a transfusion before. Which statement is correct regarding this scenario? Select one: a. He can safely receive O- blood even though he makes anti-A antibodies. b. The preferred blood type to give John, in addition to his own B type blood, would be AB. Both types of blood have the B antigen on the cells, so they would correspond to his own antigens. As for Rh, he can receive only Rh- blood since he would have a reaction against Rh+. c. He can be given types O or B, no matter whether Rh- or Rh+. At this point in time, he does not have anti-Rh antibody. O has no antigens on the blood cells, so he is also safe to receive that type in addition to his own B type. d. He can be given A+ blood type in addition to B+. Rh- means that he makes no antibody to Rh.Question 16 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 An example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency is . Select one: a. SCID b. DiGeorge syndrome c. agammaglobulinemia d. AIDS e. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency Question 17 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Human blood types involve all of the following except . Select one: a. inheritance of two of three possible alleles b. genetically determined glycoprotein markers c. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors d. MHC genes e. ABO antigen markers Question 15 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when . Select one: a. maternal Rh - cells enter an Rh + fetus b. fetal Rh - cells enter an Rh + mother c. fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh - mother d. maternal Rh + cells enter an Rh - fetus e. fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh + motherQuestion 19 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 When minute samples of DNA need to be genetically analyzed for identification purposes, which test can be effectively used? Select one: a. Western Blot b. Weil-Felix reaction c. PCR d. Widal e. Direct fluorescence antibody Question 20 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Urine and fecal specimens require . Select one: a. incubation in selective media b. Both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media are correct. c. incubation in differential media d. sterile collection conditions e. Both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media are correct. Question 18 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is to . Select one: a. test for levels of IgE specific for the allergen b. inject high levels of the allergen so see if the patient goes into anaphylactic shock c. test for the allergen in the blood d. test for high levels of IgG in the serumQuestion 22 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The ELISA test has been used as the most common, rapid screening test for HIV infection. Its sensitivity is very high but its specificity is rather low (for an important identification test). Which statement describes this accurately? Select one: a. The test can identify the patient's antibody to HIV only when it is large quantities. b. Only certain kinds of instruments can be used to pick up the small amounts of fluorescence given off in the ELISA. c. A false positive test result may develop due to the test antigens capturing normal antibodies. d. The patient's specimen has to be handled in a certain way to maintain the integrity of the viral DNA. Question 23 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Dr. John Doe, a research microbiologist for a university medical center, has been accused of sending Bacillus anthracis, the causative agent of anthrax, through the mail to the President. You, as a public health official with the CDC, have to determine if it is the same strain as the two strains of B. anthracis found cultured in his lab. Which method of identification would you use to compare these three bacterial samples? Select one: a. Gram staining b. Serological testing using agglutination c. Biochemical test identification d. Pulse-field gel electrophoresis Question 21 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Specimen collection . Select one: a. does not require special handling b. is always done by a medical professional c. must be done under sterile conditions d. must utilize aseptic techniquesQuestion 25 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The integument includes all of the following except . Select one: a. sweat glands b. surface capillaries c. hair d. skin e. nails Question 26 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis? Select one: a. Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye. b. Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic. c. It can be caused by S. pyogenes or S. pneumoniae. d. It can be transmitted through both direct and indirect contact. Question 24 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The environment of human skin requires an adaptation for microbes that can tolerate moderately conditions. Select one: a. alkaline b. thermophilic c. halophilic d. psychrophilic e. anaerobicQuestion 28 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The smallpox vaccine uses the virus. Select one: a. smallpox b. variola c. human herpesvirus 6 d. herpessimplex e. vaccinia Question 29 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by . Select one: a. their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C b. the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes c. the fastidious nature of both organisms d. the common surface antigens of these two organisms Question 27 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Eyes are relatively vulnerable to infection because . Select one: a. there is a restricted response by B and T cells b. All of these choices are correct. c. they are not covered by keratinized epithelium d. immune privilege restricts access to the cells conferring innate immunityQuiz navigation Show one page at a time Finish review 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 © 2023 StraighterLine. All rights reserved Question 30 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following statements regarding viremia is incorrect? Select one: a. Droplet transmission of viruses like the measles virus results in viremia. b. Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chicken pox. c. The variola virus multiplies in white blood cells, andcell lysis results in viremia. d. HHV-3is disseminated to the skin by viremia. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 2 (New Version June 2024)
Question 1 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specifi... [Show More] c protein carrier but without energy expenditure is called . Select one: a. facilitated diffusion b. active transport c. diffusion d. endocytosis e. osmosis Question 2 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an . Select one: a. facultative anaerobe b. obligate anaerobe c. aerobe d. obligate aerobe e. microaerophile Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 2 (New Version June 2024) We are a team of experts offering class attendance for all Straighterline, Online ATI, HESI, NCLEX, Portage Learning, Sophia etc courses (including final proctored exams!!). We also write essays, discussion posts, research papers and school assignments. Should you need any of these services, Contact us via email: [email protected] or WhatsApp: +1 (540) 753-5914. Guaranteed Passing! Live Courses | Sciences | BIO250 | BIO250_MH_V6 | Unit 12: Antimicrobial Treatment Started on State Finished Completed on Time taken 32 mins 18 secs Grade 125.00 out of 125.00 (100%)Question 4 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following properties is likely to be found in a pioneer colonizer of a biofilm on an artificial joint implant? Select one: a. The ability to grow at thermophilicbodytemperature (37 ºC) b. Surface structures for attaching to tissue c. The ability to use the titanium from the implant as an energy source d. No susceptibility to reactiveoxygen species like peroxides Question 5 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Growth factors . Select one: a. are inorganic b. are synthesized by the organism c. contain elemental oxygen d. cannot be synthesized by the organism e. All of the choicesare correct. Which compound has the highest concentration in a cell? Select one: a. H 2O b. CO 2 c. CH 4 d. NH 3 e. Glucose Question 3 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 7 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following require the cell to use energy? Select one: a. Endocytosis b. Diffusion c. Facilitated diffusion d. Osmosis Question 8 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Noncompetitive inhibition is best described as . Select one: a. an anabolic reaction b. the end product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site c. the substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription d. the substrate binding to enzyme in a regulatory site e. the end product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, . Select one: a. catalase and oxidase b. superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase c. superoxide dismutase and catalase d. catalase and hydrogen peroxidase e. superoxide dismutase and oxidase Question 6 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 10 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Mixed acid fermentation . Select one: a. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus b. produces butyric acid c. produces several different acids plus CO 2 and H 2 gases d. also produces ethanol e. occurs in all bacteria Question 11 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following processes is endergonic? Select one: a. The oxidation of glucose b. Carbon fixation c. Beta oxidation of fatty acids d. Burning wood e. Deamination Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called . Select one: a. fermentation b. deamination c. nitrification d. denitrification e. aerobic respiration Question 9 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 13 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one . Select one: a. amino acid b. purine c. protein d. nucleotide Question 14 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks from initiating transcription. Select one: a. RNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase III c. rRNA d. DNA polymerase I e. mRNA In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the . Select one: a. cell membrane b. ribosomes c. cytoplasm d. chloroplasts e. mitochondria Question 12 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 16 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which microbial process had Griffith identified? Select one: a. Cloning b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. Transformation Question 17 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 DNA polymerase III . Select one: a. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction b. synthesizes an RNA primer c. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis d. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is . Select one: a. ACG b. GCA c. CGU d. UGC e. CGT Question 15 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 19 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Erythromcycin, a macrolide, inhibits protein synthesis . Select one: a. by preventing the formation of the initiation complex b. by binding to the tRNA preventing peptide bond formation between amino acids c. by interfering with both the initiation and elongation stages of translation d. by binding to the ribosome, preventing translocation due to interference with the attachment of mRNA Question 20 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 DNA polymerases used in PCR . Select one: a. must remain active at very cold temperatures b. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA c. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase d. are labeled with fluorescent dyes The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is termed . Select one: a. transmission b. mitosis c. conjugation d. transduction e. transformation Question 18 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 22 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is . Select one: a. a quaternary ammonium compound b. formalin c. chlorhexidine d. triclosan e. carbolic acid Question 23 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method? Select one: a. Exposing dental equipment to UV light b. Bleaching a kitchen counter c. Rinsing of a cut with Betadine d. Salting of meat DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of . Select one: a. 60 oC b. 100 oC c. 42 oC d. 90 oC e. 37 oC Question 21 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 25 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by . Select one: a. HIV b. influenza A virus c. respiratory syncytial virus d. hepatitis C virus e. herpes zoster virus Question 26 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms, except . Select one: a. transposons b. R-plasmids c. mutation d. conjugation Which of the following is a disadvantage of dry heat methods such as using a Bunsen burner to incinerate microbes from an inoculating loop and the use of a hot air oven? Select one: a. Use of an open flame can be dangerous and hot air ovens take much longer to sterilize than autoclaves. b. Bunsen burners take too long to sterilize and hot air ovens are hazardous for the operators. c. Neither of these methods actually sterilize; they only kill vegetative cells. d. Bunsen burners and hot air ovens only reach a maximum of 100 oC so they are not effective against endospores. Question 24 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 28 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Drugs that target the plasma membrane are able to do so because . Select one: a. they target the phosphate group on the phospholipids, breaking down the bilayer b. they act as enzymes to break down the phospholipids c. they contain a lipid part that enables them to act as a detergent d. they are able to denature the membrane-associated proteins, creating pores thereby disrupting the integrity Question 29 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which of the following is not used to treat malaria? Select one: a. Metronidazole b. Meflaquine c. Chloroquine d. Primaquine e. Quinine Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans? Select one: a. The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections. b. The use of antibiotics for livestock means that there are not enough for use in the human population. c. Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans. d. The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion. Question 27 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Quiz navigation 1 2 3 4 28 29 30 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 Show one page at a time Finish review © 2023 StraighterLine. All rights reserved Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include . Select one: a. low toxicity for human tissues b. high toxicity against microbial cells c. stability and solubility in body tissues and fluids d. All of the choices are correct. e. a lack of serious side effects in humans Question 30 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 1 (New Version June 2024)
Question 1 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The incidence of deaths from communicable disease is in the United States compared to the entire world. Se... [Show More] lect one: a. less b. greater c. about the same Question 2 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of . Select one: a. immunology b. bioremediation c. epidemiology d. decomposition e. biotechnology Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Graded Exam 1 (New Version June 2024) We are a team of experts offering class attendance for all Straighterline, Online ATI, HESI, NCLEX, Portage Learning, Sophia etc courses (including final proctored exams!!). We also write essays, discussion posts, research papers and school assignments. Should you need any of these services, Contact us via email: [email protected] or WhatsApp: +1 (540) 753-5914. Guaranteed Passing! Live Courses | Sciences | BIO250 | BIO250_MH_V6 | Unit 6: Viruses and Prions Started on State Finished Completed on Time taken 28 mins 19 secs Grade 120.83 out of 125.00 (97%)Question 4 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time? Select one: a. Morphology b. Evolution c. Transformation d. Genetics e. Phylogeny Question 5 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 4.17 The first cells appeared about billion years ago. Select one: a. 2 b. 4 c. 3.5 d. 5 e. 1 The scientific method includes all of the following except . Select one: a. publication b. observation c. experimentation d. hypothesis Question 3 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 7 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called . Select one: a. identification b. classification c. biotechnology d. experimentation e. nomenclature Question 8 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Astrobiology is considered a sub-discipline of microbiology because . Select one: a. microbes are known to exist on other planets b. all extraterrestrials known are microbial c. only microbes can reproduce under the extreme conditions in outer space d. life elsewhere in the universe is likely to be microbial Which scientific name is written correctly? Select one: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. staphylococcus aureus c. Staphylococcusaureus d. S. aureus e. Staphylococcus aureus Question 6 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 10 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Analysis of the small subunit rRNAs from all organisms in the three current domains suggests that . Select one: a. bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes are not related b. the Archaea are more closely related to bacteria than eukaryotes c. all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor d. the eukaryotes arose from prokaryotes Question 11 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 All cells contain . Select one: a. uracil in their DNA b. cell walls made of cellulose c. mitochondria to generate ATP d. ribosomes for protein synthesis e. organelles for compartmentalization Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that . Select one: a. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom b. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills c. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms d. microbes are found on dust particles e. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease Question 9 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 13 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are . Select one: a. electrolytes b. covalent c. nonpolar d. solvents e. electrons Question 14 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The valence number is the . Select one: a. number of electrons in the innermost orbital b. number of electrons in the outermost orbital c. atomic weight d. number of neutrons e. number of protons The building blocks of an enzyme are . Select one: a. phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids b. glycerol and fatty acids c. nucleotides d. monosaccharides e. amino acids Question 12 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 16 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The simple microscopes used by the earliest practitioners of microscopy contained which of the following? Select one: a. Oil-immersion lens b. Magnifying lens c. Lamp d. Ocular e. Condenser Question 17 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except . Select one: a. enriched b. agar c. broth d. semisolid e. Petri dish A textbook uses Paramecium to illustrate several types of light microscopy.Each image is magnified 230Xand measures about 4 cm. The actual size of a Paramecium is about . Select one: a. 0.2μm b. 4,000μm c. 920μm d. 57.5μm e. 175 μm Question 15 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 19 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The division of microbes termed the Mendosicuteshave a cell wall type best described as . Select one: a. gram-negative b. archaeal c. gram-positive d. lacking a cell wall Question 20 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is . Select one: a. amphitrichous b. atrichous c. peritrichous d. monotrichous e. lophotrichous Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface? Select one: a. Spread plate b. Streak plate c. Pour plate d. Replica plate Question 18 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 22 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Lysozyme is most effective against . Select one: a. archaea b. gram-negative organisms c. gram-positive organisms d. cyanobacteria e. mycoplasmas Question 23 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 All of the following are helminths except . Select one: a. tapeworms b. flukes c. trypanosomes d. pinworms e. roundworms A clinical laboratory that identifies the bacterial agents that cause human disease would refer to Bergey's Manual of Bacteriology for guidance in identification. Select one: a. Classical b. Systematic c. Determinative d. Evolutionary Question 21 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 25 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 Viral tissue specificities are called . Select one: a. virions b. uncoating c. receptacles d. ranges e. tropisms Question 26 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 The primary purpose(s) of viral cultivation is/are to . Select one: a. prepare viruses for vaccines b. isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens c. do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics, and effects on host cells d. perform wide-scale harvesting of viruses e. All of thechoices are correct. In humans, helminths generally infect the . Select one: a. skin b. muscular system c. gastrointestinal tract d. urinary tract e. nervous system Question 24 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Question 28 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following components would likely be present in a selective medium for this purpose? Select one: a. Sheep red blood cells b. Peptone c. Thioglycolic acid d. Bile salts e. NaCl Question 29 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 A reducing medium is used to culture organisms. Select one: a. aerobic b. fastidious c. anaerobic d. pathogenic Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are infectious proteins called and infectious RNA strands called . Select one: a. viroids;phages b. prions;viroids c. virions;prions d. prions;capsomeres e. prions;phages Question 27 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17Quiz navigation 1 2 3 4 28 29 30 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 Show one page at a time Finish review © 2023 StraighterLine. All rights reserved A reducing medium contains . Select one: a. extra oxygen b. inhibiting agents c. sugars that can be fermented d. substances that remove oxygen e. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors Question 30 Correct 4.17 points out of 4.17 [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Midterm Exam (New Version June 2024)
Question 1 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow? Select one: a. F... [Show More] ormation of greenhouse gases, CO 2 and methane b. Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets c. Decomposition of dead matter and wastes d. Thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior Question 2 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of the following is NOT a recent discovery that has had a huge impact on the understanding of microbiology? Select one: a. Small RNAs b. Human microbiome project c. All are significant discoveries. d. PCR technique e. Restriction enzymes Straighterline BIO250 Microbiology Midterm Exam (New Version June 2024) We are a team of experts offering class attendance for all Straighterline, Online ATI, HESI, NCLEX, Portage Learning, Sophia etc courses (including final proctored exams!!). We also write essays, discussion posts, research papers and school assignments. Should you need any of these services, Contact us via email: [email protected] or WhatsApp: +1 (540) 753-5914. Guaranteed Passing! Live Courses | Sciences | BIO250 | BIO250_MH_V6 | Unit 12: Antimicrobial Treatment Started on State Finished Completed on Time taken 43 mins 57 secs Grade 196.00 out of 200.00 (98%)Question 4 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Helminths are . Select one: a. infectious particles b. molds c. parasitic worms d. bacteria e. protozoa Question 5 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Analysis of the small subunit rRNAs from all organisms in the three current domains suggests that . Select one: a. the Archaea are more closely related to bacteria than eukaryotes b. the eukaryotes arose from prokaryotes c. bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes are not related d. all modern and extinct organisms on earth arose from a common ancestor A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on . Select one: a. nomenclature b. recombinant DNA c. determining evolutionary relatedness d. bioremediation e. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease Question 3 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 4.00Question 7 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Ionic bonds . Select one: a. are the weakest chemical bonds b. result from sharing electrons c. result from like charge attraction d. result from transferring electrons e. always involve carbon Question 8 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 A fat is called if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single-bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens. Select one: a. saturated b. unsaturated c. polyunsaturated d. monounsaturated NASA has published a list of criteria for identifying fossil bacteria in samples from Mars, as part of a search for evidence of life. Which of the following is good evidence for the presence of bacterial cells? Select one: a. Absence of carbon in the material b. Three-dimensional organization of cells in a starburst pattern c. No evidence of water in the surrounding mineral d. Cell size of 0.5 to 2 microns Question 6 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 10 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Comparing transmission electron microscopy with scanning electron microscopy, the following statement is true. Select one: a. Transmission EM gives detail of theexternal architecture of cells. b. Transmission EM can provide good images of bacteria but not viruses. c. Transmission EM is used for internal detail of cells and subcellular structures. d. Transmission EM requires dyes. Question 11 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens? Select one: a. Differential interference b. Phase-contrast c. Bright-field d. Dark-field e. Electron Hydrogen bonds . Select one: a. result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar ionic bonds b. are the strongest bonds between molecules c. result from attractive forces between molecules with polar ionic bonds d. result from attractive forces between molecules with polar covalent bonds e. result from attractive forces between molecules with nonpolar covalent bonds Question 9 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 13 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed . Select one: a. hemolytic b. aerobic c. fermentative d. anaerobic e. fastidious Question 14 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 The three physical forms of laboratory media are . Select one: a. solid, liquid, and gas b. reducing, transport, and enumeration c. a streak plate, a pour plate, and a broth d. solid, semisolid, and liquid The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs . Select one: a. magnification b. contrast c. illumination d. size of the field e. resolution Question 12 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 16 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of the following is mismatched? Select one: a. Firmicutes -gram-positive cell walls b. Mendosicutes -archaea cell walls c. Gracilicutes -gram-negative cell walls d. Tenericutes - waxy,acid-fast cell walls Question 17 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 The bacterial flagellum has three components. In order from the cytoplasm to the external environment, they are . Select one: a. basal body, filament, and hook b. filament, basal body, and hook c. filament, hook, and basal body d. hook, basal body, and filament e. basal body, hook, and filament The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called . Select one: a. fimbriae b. pili c. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) d. flagella e. cilia Question 15 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 19 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 In eukaryotic cells, which of the following organelles contain DNA? Select one: a. Nucleus, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus b. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus c. Nucleus, chloroplast, and mitochondrion d. Nucleus, nucleolus, and Golgi apparatus e. Nucleus, chloroplast, and peroxisome Question 20 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a/an . Select one: a. seed b. cyst c. endospore d. trophozoite e. sporozoa The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and . Select one: a. DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA Question 18 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 22 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called . Select one: a. viroids b. bacteriophages c. prions d. satellite viruses Question 23 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of the following is/are type(s) of cytopathic effects? Select one: a. Rounding of cells b. Inclusions in the cytoplasm c. Inclusions in the nucleus d. Multinucleated giant cells e. All of thechoices are correct. Histones are . Select one: a. proteins of the cytoskeleton b. enzymes found in lysosomes c. found in polyribosomes d. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus e. on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum Question 21 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 25 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called . Select one: a. osmosis b. diffusion c. endocytosis d. facilitated diffusion e. active transport Question 26 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called . Select one: a. antibiosis b. synergism c. symbiosis d. mutualism Infectious protein particles are called . Select one: a. viroids b. phages c. oncogenic viruses d. spikes e. prions Question 24 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 28 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 The term obligate refers to . Select one: a. using chemicals for energy production b. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions c. using light for energy production d. using oxygen for metabolism e. existing in a very narrow niche Question 29 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 30°C is called a/an . Select one: a. psychrotolerant microbe b. psychrophile c. thermoduricmicrobe d. extremophile e. thermophile An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an . Select one: a. obligate aerobe b. aerobe c. microaerophile d. facultative anaerobe e. obligate anaerobe Question 27 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 31 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Endospore-forming bacteria like Bacillus species begin the sporulation process with an asymmetric cell division to produce two cells with different fates. One will differentiate into the endospore, and the other is the sporangium that will ultimately lyse to release the mature endospore. During this asymmetric cell division, one of the compartments does not receive an intact copy of the chromosome. Which compartment can function with only part of the genome and why? Select one: a. The endospore; it is a dormant stage and requires very little to maintain its dormancy. b. The sporangium; much of the genome is "junk DNA" and not required for endospore maturation. c. The endospore; the endospore is built from the outside via the sporangium and not from the inside. d. The sporangium; it supports endospore development and then lyses. Question 32 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Reactants are converted to products by . Select one: a. enzymes releasing energy b. enzymes binding to products c. reactants always releasing energy d. breaking and forming bonds What is the difference between mutualism and synergism? Select one: a. In a synergistic relationship, the organisms cannot survive without each other. b. In a synergistic relationship, both organisms benefit, but in a mutualistic relationship both organisms are harmed. c. In a mutualistic relationship, both organisms benefit, but in a synergistic relationship both organisms are harmed. d. In a mutualistic relationship,the organisms are dependent upon each other. Question 30 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 34 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of the following processes is endergonic? Select one: a. Beta oxidation of fatty acids b. The oxidation of glucose c. Deamination d. Carbon fixation e. Burning wood Question 35 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Your bacterium is growing on a type of medium called casein agar, which contains milk protein (casein). There is a clear zone around the growth area of the bacterium, showing that it is synthesizing the enzymes needed to catalyze the breakdown of casein. These enzymes are considered . Select one: a. exoenzymes b. ribozymes c. endoenzymes d. apoenzymes Ribozymes are . Select one: a. unique to prokaryotes b. ribosomes which catalyze reactions c. unique to eukaryotes d. catalysts for DNA splicing e. catalysts for RNA splicing Question 33 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 37 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by . Select one: a. substrate bound to promoter b. repressor alone bound to operator c. substrate bound to repressor d. corepressor and repressor binding to operator Question 38 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? Select one: a. Transduction b. Transformation c. Conjugation d. Mitosis The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is . Select one: a. primase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA gyrase d. DNA helicase e. DNA ligase Question 36 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 40 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis? Select one: a. Tetracycline b. Chloramphenicol c. Ciprofloxacin d. Both tetracyclineand chloramphenicol are correct. e. Penicillin Question 41 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of . Select one: a. 37 oC b. 100 oC c. 60 oC d. 42 oC e. 90 oC Base pairs in DNA are held together by bonds. Select one: a. nonpolarcovalent b. polarcovalent c. hydrogen d. peptide e. sulfhydryl Question 39 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 43 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Using a HEPA filter in a vacuum or furnace is an example of which microbial control method? Select one: a. Surfactant b. Gases c. Dry control d. Chemical agent Question 44 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube? Select one: a. Ultraviolet (germicidal) light b. Gamma rays c. All of the choices are correct. d. 160°C for 2 hours e. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are . Select one: a. sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases b. used as cloning vectors c. genetically engineered bacteria d. principal sources of restriction endonucleases Question 42 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 46 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by . Select one: a. hepatitis C virus b. herpes simplex virus c. influenza A virus d. HIV e. respiratory syncytial virus Question 47 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans? Select one: a. The use of antibiotics for livestock means that there are not enough for use in the human population. b. Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans. c. The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections. d. The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washes, hand scrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is . Select one: a. a quaternary ammonium compound b. triclosan c. formalin d. chlorhexidine e. carbolic acid Question 45 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Question 49 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Bacteriophages selectively infect bacterial cells. How might they be used as a therapeutic treatment in humans? Select one: a. Phages can carry genes into cells which will genetically modify the host cells to prevent infection. b. Humans suffering from infections with antibiotic resistant bacteria can be treated with phages, which will infect and lyse the bacterial cells, leaving human cells unaffected. c. Phages can be used to stimulate human immune cells to attack and kill bacterial cells. d. Bacteriophages can be used to genetically engineer bacterial cells making them more susceptible to drugs. Question 50 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Which of these drugs has the most narrow-spectrum activity? Select one: a. Isoniazid b. Tetracycline c. Aminoglycosides d. Cephalosporins e. Erythromycin Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except . Select one: a. addition of antibiotics to common household products b. ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed c. overuse of antibiotics d. improper use of antibiotics e. multiple drug therapy Question 48 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00© 2023 StraighterLine. All rights reserved Quiz navigation 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 Show one page at a time Finish review [Show Less]
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