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SLP PRAXIS PRACTICE TEST /Exam Bundle (Graded A) updated 2023
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SLP Praxis - Practice Questions and Answers 2023
A _____________ may or many not be a speech sound; the term refers generally to any sounds that can be produced by the vocal tract - ANSWER-Phone The in... [Show More] fluence of one phoneme upon another in production and perception wherein two different articulators move simultaneously to produce two different speech sounds - ANSWER-Coarticulation _________ are produced when the dorsum of the tongue contracts the velum. Describing consonants this way is according to place - ANSWER-Linguavelrs; Place The fundamental frequency or first harmonic is know as - ANSWER-Lowest frequency of a periodic wave In _____________ speech sounds are modified due to the influence of adjacent sounds - ANSWER-Assimilation Consonants can be described according to - ANSWER-Place, voice, manner ___________ are produced by lowering the velum keeping the VP port open - ANSWER-Nasals ____________ are movements of particles in a medium containing expansions and contractions of molecules - ANSWER-Sound Waves ____________ an electronic instrument that graphically records the changing intensity levels of the frequency components in a complex sound wave - ANSWER-Sound Spectrograph A young child who says "up" when someone picks up a ball is using the relation of - ANSWER-Locative action What age does a child begin to use reduplicated babbling? - ANSWER-4-6 months A child says "jump [on] bed". This is an example of what type of semantic relation? - ANSWER-Action + Locative First grammatical morpheme in Brown's 14? - ANSWER-Present Progressive -ing When do most children use "all gone" to express emerging negation? - ANSWER-Between 1-2 years of age At what age do children have an average MLU of 6.0 - 8.0? - ANSWER-5-6 years Which language development theory states that language develops because people are motivated to interact socially with others around them? - ANSWER-Social Interactionism Theory Proponents of the ______________ theory are mostly concerned with cognitive functioning, not cognitive structures or concepts. - ANSWER-Information processing According to __________ theory, language acquisition is made possible by cognition and general intellectual processing - ANSWER-Cognitive theory Skinner is associated with what theory? - ANSWER-Behavioralist or behavioral According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development a 0-2 year old child is is the ___________ period. - ANSWER-Sensorimotor Hint: Young children are discovering their environment with there senses The English language has how many speech sounds that are classified as consonants or vowels? - ANSWER-46 When a child produces a posteriorly placed consonant instead of an anteriorly placed consonant they are using what phonological process? - ANSWER-Backing General factors related to SSD include: - ANSWER-Gender, IQ, birth order, sib status, socioeconomic status, lang development & academic performance, Auditory discrimination skills "Hallmark" of childhood apraxia of speech (CAS) - ANSWER-Inconsistent errors Children with mild hearing loss due to fluid/infections my exhibit the following - ANSWER-Final consonant deletion, stridency, fronting __________ treatment activities include sound blending, rhyming, and alliteration - ANSWER-Phonological awareness An important structure adjacent to the brainstem that contains the hypothalamus and thalamus is the _____________ - ANSWER-Diencephalon The corpus striatum is composed of 3 nuclear masses which are the - ANSWER--Globus pallidus -Caudate nucleus -Putamen These separate the laryngeal vestibule from the pharynx and help preserve the airway - ANSWER-Aryepiglottic Folds The cranial nerve that innervates the larynx and also innervates the levator veli palatini, palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus muscles is - ANSWER-Cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve Muscles that contribute to velopharyngeal closure through tensing or elevating the velum are the - ANSWER--Palatoglossus -Tensor veli palatini -Levator veli palatini The structure at the inferior position of the tongue that connects the tongue with the mandible is called the - ANSWER-Lingual frenum The muscle most involved in the production of the voiced and voiceless /th/ is - ANSWER-Genioglossus (which forms the bulk of the tongue) Which muscles are most involved in adducting the VFs? - ANSWER-Lateral cricoarytenoids and transverse arytenoids Coarticulation refers to - ANSWER-The influence of one phoneme upon another in production & perception when 2 different articulators move simultaneously to produce 2 different speech sounds The 2 properties of a medium that affect sound transmission are - ANSWER-Mass & elasticity The back-and-forth movement of air molecules because of a vibrating object is known as - ANSWER-Oscillation The lowest frequency of a periodic wave is also known as - ANSWER-The fundamental frequency or first harmonic When 2 or more sounds of differing frequencies are combined, the result is - ANSWER-A complex tone; the vibrations that make up this complex tone can be periodic or aperiodic In a periodic complex sound, tones that occur over fundamental frequency and can be characterized as whole-number multiples of the fundamental freq are called - ANSWER-Harmonics "red crayon" is an example of which type if semantic relationship? - ANSWER-Attribute + entity A child who shows slow, writhing, involuntary movements has which type of cerebral palsy? - ANSWER-Athetoid The SCERTS approach involves - ANSWER-An emphasis on the importance of targeting goals in social communication and emotional regulation by implementing transactional supports such as visuals, environmental arrangements, and adjustments to communication-style What area is worked on when targeting word retrieval skills? - ANSWER-Semantics The articulation therapy approach that emphasizes the syllable as the basic unit of speech production and heavily uses the concept of phonetic environment is - ANSWER-McDonald's sensorimotor approach Stuttering in preschool children is more likely on what type of words - ANSWER-Function words Who developed to fluent stuttering treatment - ANSWER-Van Riper Cancellations, pull-outs, and preparatory sets are taught in which approach? - ANSWER-The fluent stuttering approach Airflow management, gentle onset, and reduced rate of speech are targets in - ANSWER-The fluency shaping technique The theory that stuttering is caused by lack of a unilateral dominant hemisphere is the - ANSWER-Cerebral dominance theory The suprahyoid muscles or elevators include: - ANSWER--Digastrics -Geniohyoids -Mylohyoids -Stylohyoids -Genioglossus -Hyoglossus The amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breathing cycle - ANSWER-Tidal volume The volume of air that the patient can exhale after maximum exhalation - ANSWER-Vital capacity When a patient impounds the air in the oral cavity, pushes it back into the esophagus, and vibrates the cricopharyngeus muscle they are demonstrating the use of the ______________ method - ANSWER-Injection method A patient has damage to her recurrent laryngeal nerve. Intervention should focus on - ANSWER-Strategies to improve VF adduction The Blom-Singer prothetic device is used to - ANSWER-Shunt the air from the trachea to the esophagus so that the patient can speak on pulmonary air entering the esophagus The term describing the perception of 2 distinct simultaneous pitches during phonation is - ANSWER-Diplophonia A patient w/ history of heavy drinking who presents with memory problems , difficulty processing abstract info, and visual-spatial deficits probably has - ANSWER-Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome Conduction aphasia is caused by lesions in what area? - ANSWER-The region between Broca's & Wernicke's, especially in the supramarginal gyrus and the arcuate fasciculus The speech of individuals w/ Parkinson's disease is characterized by - ANSWER-Monopitch, a harsh & breathy voice, short rushes of speech, imprecise consonants, and respiratory problems Apraxia of speech is often associated with lesions in what area? - ANSWER-Broca's Forced inspirations and expirations that interrupt speech is associated with - ANSWER-Dysarthria Primary symptoms of Parkinson's disease include - ANSWER-Bradykinesia, festination, and cogwheel rigidity Dementia of the Alzheimer's type is caused by - ANSWER-Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques What is Carhart's notch? - ANSWER-A specific hearing loss at 2000 Hz, as indicated by a bone-conduction test The auditory nervous system includes cranial nerve VIII has these 2 branches: - ANSWER-Vestibular & Auditory-acoustic ____________ causes sensorineural hearing loss and is accompanied by vertigo & tennitues - ANSWER-Meniere's disease What are homophenous word pairs? - ANSWER-Words that look the same on the lips (ex. man-ban) The muscle that exerts the pull that allows the eustachian tube to open during yawning is - ANSWER-Tensor Palatini An infant with cleft palate will most likely have hearing problems due to - ANSWER-Eustachian tube dysfunction Speech reception thresholds (SRTs) are - ANSWER-the lowest or softest level of hearing at which a person can understand 50% of words presented Spondee words are - ANSWER-2-syllable words with equal stress on each syllable If a test has adequate construct validity then - ANSWER-The test scores are consistent with theoretical predictions or expectations Willam's syndrome is caused by - ANSWER-the deletion of approximately 25 genes on one copy of chromosome 7q11.23 A condition in which the surface tissue of the soft or hard palate fuse, but the underlying muscle or bone tissues do not is called - ANSWER-Submucous or occult cleft palate A technique that uses emission-computed tomography to allow imaging of metabolic activity through measurements of radioactivity in the section of the body being viewed is called - ANSWER-a PET scan The neurons that transmit information away from the brain are called - ANSWER-Efferent neurons The neurons that transmit information to the brain are called - ANSWER-Afferent neurons An important structure to the brainstem which contains the hyothalamus and the thalamus is called the - ANSWER-Diencephalon The structure that regulates body posture, equilibrium, and coordinated fine motor movements in the - ANSWER-Cerebellum The anterior cerebral artery supplies blood to the - ANSWER-Corpus callosum & basal ganglia The nasopharynx adds noticeable resonance to which sounds? - ANSWER-m, n, ng What formant typically characterizes a high vowel? - ANSWER-Low-frequency first format (F1) A 65-year-old patient is transferred from another facility with a diagnosis of aphasia. The patient's symptoms, however, appear more consistent with apraxia. Which of the following tasks for the patient is most appropriate when assessing verbal apraxia of speech? - ANSWER-Repeating words of increasing length Oropharyngeal dysphagia in a child with Down syndrome is most likely caused by which of the following factors? - ANSWER-Hypotonia Which of the following recommendations to a parent of an infant with cleft lip and palate should an SLP make to best optimize feeding for adequate nutrition and appropriate growth? - ANSWER-Using a bottle with a modified nipple during feedings The head lift exercise published by Shaker et al. (2002) was designed to produce which of the following changes in swallow biomechanics? - ANSWER-Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UES) opening Inhalation during respiration is primarily carried out through the movement of which of the following muscles or muscle groups - ANSWER-Diaphram An SLP receives a referral from an audiologist for a 72-year-old woman who demonstrates a moderate to severe bilateral sensorineural hearing loss preventing her from participating in social activities. Which of the following best identifies the SLP's role? - ANSWER-Training in speech reading [Show Less]
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SLP Praxis Practice (Form 1) Exam 2023 Questions and Answers
Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk infants? A. Establishing object permanence through play acti... [Show More] vities B. Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning C. Creating readiness activities in the context of play D. Enhancing social communication through play activities - ANSWER-Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning The figure above shows the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal structures involved in swallowing. Which of the following best describes the transit of the bolus at the moment depicted in the figure? - ANSWER-B.The bolus is being propelled from the oral cavity by the tongue and has entered the pharynx. Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve? - ANSWER-IX- Vagus Nerve Fela is a third-grade student in a public school. She is a speaker of African American Vernacular English (AAVE) who has difficulty with the Standard American English (SAE) dialect used in her classroom. Her teacher believes that Fela's language skills are affecting her academic performance and has referred her to the school's speech-language pathologist. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for providing language intervention for Fela? A.It will likely foster better communication with Fela's linguistically and culturally diverse peers. B.It will likely improve Fela's code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE. C.It may expand Fela's later academic and vocational opportunities. D.It will likely lead Fela to adopt SAE as her primary dialect. - ANSWER-Options (A), (B), and (C) are correct. The intervention will foster better communication because Fela and her peers will have a common dialect. Also, the intervention will provide Fela with the ability to switch easily between dialects using SAE structures. Furthermore, being able to switch codes will enable Fela to participate in more educational and vocational opportunities. Federal laws regarding freedom of access to information stipulate that client records kept or written by health care professionals can be A.reviewed only by other health-care professionals B.reviewed only by the clients themselves unless the client provides written permission to share with others C.reviewed by anyone who submits a formal written request D.released only by subpoena - ANSWER-B.reviewed only by the clients themselves unless the client provides written permission to share with others To justify providing individual treatment for a 2½ year old with apraxia of speech, which of the following would be LEAST important for the SLP to include in the evaluation report? A.A description of the child's typical interaction with peers B.Relevant prognostic data C.Information about apraxia of speech D.A description of the language development of the child's older siblings - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. A description of the child's older siblings' language development does not provide the objective, documented evidence required to justify provision of treatment for a child of an age at which some unintelligibility would be typical. The speech reception threshold (SRT) is a basic component of an evaluation of hearing function. Which of the following statements about the SRT is most accurate? A.It is measured in decibels and corresponds to the intensity level at which spondaic words can be recognized approximately 50% of the time. B.It makes use of test materials that are limited to monosyllabic words. C.It provides information on how well speech is understood at conversational levels. D.It is useful in validating acoustic intermittence measures - ANSWER-A.It is measured in decibels and corresponds to the intensity level at which spondaic words can be recognized approximately 50% of the time. A clinician who employs active listening is doing which of the following? A.Responding to both the content and the affect of the client's remarks B.Listening very carefully and taking extensive notes C.Conducting a clinician-directed interview D.Directing the client to specific answers to questions - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. A clinician who employs active listening responds to both the content (the denotative message) and the affect (the emotional content) of a client's remarks. This investigation was motivated by observations that when persons with dysarthria increase loudness, their speech improves. Some studies have indicated that this improvement may be related to an increase of prosodic variation. Studies have reported an increase of fundamental frequency (F0) variation with increased loudness, but there has been no examination of the relation of loudness manipulation to specific prosodic variables that are known to aid a listener in parsing out meaningful information. This study examined the relation of vocal loudness production to selected acoustic variables known to inform listeners of phrase and sentence boundaries: specifically, F0 declination and final-word lengthening. Ten young, healthy women were audio-recorded while they read aloud a paragraph at what each considered normal loudness, twice-normal loudness, and half-normal loudness. Results showed that there was a statistically significant increase of F0 declination, brought about by a higher resetting of F0 at the beginning of a sentence and an increase of final-word lengthening from the half-normal loudness condition to the twice-normal loudness condition. These results suggest that when some persons with dysarthria increase loudness, variables related to prosody may change, which in turn contributes to improvement in communicative effectiveness. However, until this procedure is tested with individuals who have dysarthria, it is uncertain whether a similar effect would be observed. From: Watson, P.J., & Hughes, D. (2006). The relationship of vocal loudness manipulation to prosodic F0 and durational variables in healthy adults. Journal of Speech, Language, and Hearing Research, 49, 636-644. ***Which of the following represent(s) the independent variable or variables used in the Watson and Hughes study?*** ***Watson and Hughes are cautious when suggesting that the speech of some persons with dysarthria improves because of the prosodic changes that result from increasing vocal loudness. Of the following, which is the most likely reason for this caution?*** ***Which of the following best describes the experimental design of the Watson and Hughes study? - ANSWER-C.Vocal loudness B.The prosody of persons with dysarthria may not show similar loudness effects. C.A within-subjects design A 55-year-old woman, recently hospitalized for probable cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is referred for evaluation of stuttering speech. The initial conversation with the client indicates that speech is characterized by frequent initial-phoneme repetitions and prolongations as well as associated mildly effortful eye blinking. Which of the following pieces of information is crucial to accurate speech diagnosis and decisions regarding management of the speech problem? A.The site and extent of the lesion associated with the suspected CVA B.Whether the client has any associated dysphagia or dysphonia C.Whether the dysfluencies began before or after the suspected CVA D.Whether the client feels frustrated by the dysfluencies - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Dysfluent speech may or may not be directly caused by the patient's suspected CVA. Which of the following is the best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia? A.Thickening liquids so that the client will be better able to control oral movements for swallowing B.Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventions C.Evaluating the client's ability to eat a variety of foods in order to determine which foods are safest D.Prescribing that the client be NPO, since aspiration is present - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. An assessment of the problem must be undertaken before treatment is provided, and the best way to do this is to obtain a modified barium-swallow study. A number of research reports have described poor auditory memory in children with language impairments. Which of the following can most appropriately be concluded from these studies? A.Poor auditory memory can be improved by language-intervention programs that focus on teaching vocabulary and word meanings. B.Poor auditory memory is a reflection of a language impairment, and clinicians and researchers cannot effect improvement. C.Poor auditory memory could be a reflection or a cause of a language impairment or could be related to some other factor, and further research is needed to determine which is the case. D.Children with language impairments normally do not have well-developed representational skills. - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Research reports are restricted to the variables examined in the studies on which they are based. A relationship between poor auditory memory and language impairment has been found in some research studies. Other factors could be involved, however, suggesting that further research is needed. Conclusions about treatment or the effects of the impairment must be made through additional research studies. Ms. Brown, a 70-year-old retired female, was admitted to the hospital following a CVA. The SLP conducted a comprehensive evaluation that revealed the presence of left-side neglect, anosognosia (denial of impairment), and visuospatial problems, including prosopagnosia (difficulty recognizing familiar faces). Although her auditory comprehension and repetition skills were good, she experienced difficulty with topic maintenance and turn taking. Based on the clinical features described, Ms. Brown's diagnostic classification would most likely be A.Wernicke's aphasia B.Conduction aphasia C.Cognitive-communicative disorder consistent with right hemisphere damage D.Cognitive-communicative disorder consistent with left hemisphere damage - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with damage to the right hemisphere. A client exhibits weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations of the right side of the tongue and lower face. The client also has right vocal-fold weakness and nasal regurgitation of fluid when swallowing. These problems are the result of damage to which part of the nervous system? A.Brain stem B.Cerebellum C.Left cerebral cortex D.Right cerebral cortex - ANSWER-A.Brain stem ***Why? -- Weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, and the other described symptoms are all consistent with a lower motor neuron locus and suspected cranial nerve abnormalities (primarily CN X and XII). These cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain stem and help mediate the transfer of messages from the brain to the brain stem and to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following constitutes the major component of an audiologic rehabilitation program for infants with a moderate sensorineural hearing loss? A.Development of cognitive skills B.Development of social skills C.Parent-mediated auditory stimulation D.Gestural stimulation - ANSWER-C.Parent-mediated auditory stimulation ***Why?-- For an infant known to have a hearing loss, parents are in the best position to provide consistent auditory stimulation, which the infant needs in order to develop an awareness of sound. A child exhibits the following production errors. w/r θ/s t/ʃ t/tʃ z/dʒ t/k d/g If a target sound for initial intervention is to be selected on the basis of established developmental norms, then that sound will be A./s/ B./ʃ/ C./k/ D./tʃ/ - ANSWER-/k/--- According to developmental norms, /k/ is the target phoneme that should be selected for intervention. A public-school-based speech-language pathologist is employed in a state that sets the maximum caseload at 65. However, the clinician's caseload is currently at 64 with a waiting list of 10 additional students. The school principal insists that the speech-language pathologist enroll the 10 students immediately, because the district cannot locate another clinician to assist with the caseload. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the speech-language pathologist to address the situation? A.Enroll 1 of the 10 students and provide the principal with a written statement of caseload needs, mentioning the amount, type, and frequency of treatment B.Refer the 10 students to a speech-language pathologist working in a private setting C.Suggest that the principal ask a school speech-language pathologist from another school district to take the 10 students D.Maintain current caseload until an additional speech-language pathologist is hired - ANSWER-A.Enroll 1 of the 10 students and provide the principal with a written statement of caseload needs, mentioning the amount, type, and frequency of treatment **Why?--It provides the principal with a statement detailing the needs of the students awaiting treatment but also observes the state's caseload limit. Fiber-optic instrumentation is appropriate for evaluation of which of the following types of disorders? A.Articulation B.Phonation C.Proprioception D.Respiration - ANSWER-Phonation--- Fiber-optic nasopharyngoscopy or laryngoscopy is a commonly used approach to evaluate vocal fold anatomy and physiology for voice production (phonation). Which of the following views make up a standard videofluoroscopic swallow study? A.Frontal B.Lateral C.Transverse D.Anterior-posterior - ANSWER-Lateral & Posterior/Anterior--- A lateral view is best for seeing all stages of a swallow, and an anterior-posterior view shows the symmetry (or asymmetry) of the swallow. Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the following? A.The infant's inability to create positive pressure in the oral cavity B.Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palate C.Eustachian tube dysfunction D.Cochlear dysfunction - ANSWER-Eustachian tube dysfunction--- a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate. Which of the following, if observed in the speech of an African American child, is most likely to represent a dialectical variation rather than an articulation error? A./f/ for /θ/ in postvocalic position B./θ/ for /s/ in all positions C.Affricates for fricatives in word-final position D.Dentals for velars in word-initial position - ANSWER-/f/ for /θ/ in postvocalic position--- [Show Less]
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SLP Praxis Practice (Form 2)
Which of the following formants typically characterizes a high vowel? High-frequency second formant (F2) High-frequency first formant (F1) Low-frequen... [Show More] cy first formant (F1) Low-frequency second formant (F2) - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. The F1 is inversely associated with tongue height, such that high vowels tend to have low F1 frequencies. A 65-year-old patient is transferred from another facility with a diagnosis of aphasia. The patient's symptoms, however, appear more consistent with apraxia. Which of the following tasks for the patient is most appropriate when assessing verbal apraxia of speech? A Repeating word of increasing length B Recalling three common items C Performing voluntary oral movements D. Following two-step commands - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Inability to repeat two-syllable words is a clear indicator of apraxia of speech. Oropharyngeal dysphagia in a child with Down syndrome is most likely caused by which of the following factors? A.Hypotonia B.Digestive problems C.Pneumonia D.Aversive feeding behaviors - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Hypotonia is the leading cause of swallowing disorders in children with Down syndrome. Which of the following recommendations to a parent of an infant with cleft lip and palate should an SLP make to best optimize feeding for adequate nutrition and appropriate growth? A.Providing a bottle rather than breast-feeding the infant B.Positioning the infant in a supine position during feeding times C.Allowing the infant to take as much time as needed to feed D.Using a bottle with a modified nipple during feedings - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. A bottle with a modified nipple allows for greater control over the quantity of liquid expressed and the pacing of feeding. The head lift exercise published by Shaker et al. (2002) was designed to produce which of the following changes in swallow biomechanics? A.Increase in laryngeal closure duration B.Strengthening of the base of the tongue C.Increase in diameter and duration of the upper esophageal sphincter (UESU E S) opening D.Prolonged relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. The results of Shaker et al. (2002) demonstrated a significant (p<.01p left angle bracket period zero one) increase in the opening duration of the UESU E S. Which of the following sounds are typically mastered by the time a child turns 3? A./k/ and /g/forward slash k forward slash and forward slash g forward slash B./p/ and /b/forward slash p forward slash and forward slash b forward slash C./l/ and /s/forward slash l forward slash and forward slash s forward slash D./ch/ and /sh/ - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. /p/ and /b/forward slash p forward slash and forward slash b forward slash should be mastered by age 3 in a typically developing child. When assessing the ability of a student with cerebral palsy to access an augmentative and alternative communication device, which of the following physical factors must be evaluated first? A.Upper extremity range of motion B.Lower extremity strength C.Trunk stability and control D.Fine motor dexterity - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Trunk stability will guide the clinician in making an appropriate recommendation for the type of device a client can access as it influences more distal movements. A school-based SLP wants to discharge a fifth-grade student. The student has mastered all his goals except /r/forward slash r forward slash in conversational speech. The SLP worked with the student for the entire school year, and the student is able to use /r/forward slash r forward slash accurately 75 percent of the time. However, the goal is to reach 90 percent accuracy. Because the student worked on the skill all year and still has not met the established goal, the SLP feels the student performs at his highest possible level. The SLP does not think it is in the student's best interest to continue pulling the student out of class to address the goal. The parents are upset and are questioning the SLP's decision. Which of the following statements from the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association (ASHA) Code of Ethics can be used to back up the SLP's decision? A.Individuals who hold the Certificate of Clinical Competence shall evaluate the effectiveness of services provided, technology employed, and products dispensed, and they shall provide services or dispense products only when benefit can reasonably be expected. B.Individuals shall honor their responsibility to hold paramount the welfare of persons they serve professionally or who are participants in research and scholarly activities, and they shall treat animals involved in research in a humane manner. C.Individuals shall use every resource, including referral and/or interprofessional collaboration when appropriate, to ensure that quality service is provided. D.Individuals shall provide all clinical services and scientific activities competently - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. According to ASHA, it is important that SLPs remember to provide services when a benefit can be expected. The SLP has exhausted all treatment options and a benefit for this student is no longer expected. Put in order of acquision: p, k, dj, th - ANSWER-/p/forward slash p forward is first because this phoneme is developed between ages 1 and 3. /k/forward slash k forward slash is second because this is developed by age 3 1/2. /θ/forward slash omega forward slash is third because this is developed between ages 3 and 8. /ʒ/forward slash ezh forward slash is last because this is developed between ages 6 and 8. ((P, K, TH, J)) An 81-year-old female presents to a rehabilitation hospital following a severe L MCA stroke. The patient has poststroke right-sided weakness, right neglect, and suspected nonfluent aphasia. Receptive language appears to be mildly impacted. The patient has a complex medical history, including TBI following a car accident two years ago, obesity, diabetes, seizure disorder, congestive heart failure, and hypertension. Socially, the patient has lived alone for the past three years following her husband's death. Since her car accident she mainly watches TV at home and leaves her house only for dialysis. She has meals on wheels and home health aides to assist her with showering. Because of her TBI, her behavior is often variable and erratic. The highest level of education she attained was seventh grade. She stayed home to take care of her children and did not have a career. 1-Which of the following medical conditions, in combination with her stroke, is likely to have the greatest impact on the patient's communication abilities? A.Seizure disorder B.Diabetes C.TBIT B I D.Obesity 2-Which of the following tasks is most appropriate to include when assessing the patient's phrase length? A.Completing divergent naming tasks B.Maintaining a conversation with a known partner C.Responding to open-ended questions D.Repeating sentences of varying lengths 3-Which of the following medical factors should the SLP give the most weight when determining the patient's communication prognosis? A.Frequency of seizures B.Severity of the stroke C.Level of obesity D.Severity of diabetes - ANSWER-1- are more likely to have metacognitive problems in addition to the aphasia, thus impacting their ability to improve. 2-Option (C) is correct. When an SLP assesses phrase length, it is important to task the patient with open-ended questions to assess the patient's ability to spontaneously produce speech. 3-Option (B) is correct. Information about the severity of the patient's stroke is necessary to estimate the patient's chance of recovery. Inhalation during respiration is primarily carried out through the movement of which of the following muscles or muscle groups? A.Diaphragm B.Internal intercostals C.External intercostals D.Scalenes - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. The diaphragm is the muscle that creates the most volume in the lungs. An SLP receives a referral from an audiologist for a 72-year-old woman who demonstrates a moderate to severe bilateral sensorineural hearing loss preventing her from participating in social activities. Which of the following best identifies the SLP's role? A.Training in speech reading B.Prescribing hearing aids C.Performing an auditory evaluation D.Using auditory integration training - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Providing speech-reading therapy is a primary role for SLPs as it enhances the overall communicative competency for the client. An SLP provides home practice for a patient with aphasia as part of discharge plans. The patient is approximately six-months post left-hemisphere stroke that resulted in aphasia. Verbal output has improved significantly since the stroke; however, the patient is still very concerned that written expression is moderately impaired at the single-word level. The homework assignment is to implement copy-and-recall treatment to improve written expression, which involves practicing writing target words (from photographs) and then copying those words multiple times. However, during a follow-up phone call, the SLP determines that the patient is struggling to write the assigned target words because the patient "can't think of the correct letters." Although a model is provided on the back of each target photograph, the patient wants to find a way to practice without looking at the answer. The SLP's best course of action is to suggest that the patient A.try anagramming the words using letter tiles to form the target word B.practice writing the alphabet in order multiple times before beginning the homework again C.use a cell phone voice-to-text application as a compensatory strategy D.use drawing to convey messages instead of using written expression - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. This approach would give the client the best access to completing the homework. The letter tiles would provide a support for the client to complete the homework and are a regular part of this treatment approach. Which of the following instruments is often used to document stages of recovery after traumatic brain injury (TBIT B I) ? A.Glasgow Coma Scale B.Scale of Executive Function C.Sequenced Inventory of Communication Development D.Rancho Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. The Rancho Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function is the only truly "scaled" instrument developed specifically for rehabilitation documentation following TBIT B I. A large metropolitan school district wants to determine the prevalence of developmental stuttering among all enrolled students during the past year. Which of the following approaches is most appropriate for accomplishing the task? A.Dividing the total number of students who currently stutter by the total number of students who were enrolled during the past year B.Subtracting the total number of students who received treatment for stuttering during the past year from the total number of students who currently stutter C.Multiplying the total number of students who currently stutter by the total number of students enrolled during the past year D.Dividing the total number of newly identified students who stutter by the total number of students enrolled during the past year - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. The prevalence of stuttering is the percentage found by dividing the number of students who currently stutter by the number of students enrolled in school. An SLP uses evidence-based practice by integrating the perspectives and values of the client, patient, or caregivers into the treatment plan. Which of the following best reflects simultaneous incorporation of the host culture's perspectives and values and maintenance of the native culture's perspectives and values? A.Acculturation B.Assimilation C.Enculturation D.Ethnocentrism - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Acculturation is the incorporation of the host culture's perspective and the native culture's perspective and values. The commonly used chin-down posture was initially developed to eliminate thin-liquid aspiration in people with delayed pharyngeal stage onset after having a stroke, and when its efficacy was investigated, it was found to be 50% effective. For whom is the chin-down posture ineffective at eliminating thin-liquid aspiration? A.People who have cricopharyngeal dysfunction B.People who aspirate residue from the pyriform sinuses C.People who have impaired lingual function D.People who aspirate residue from the valleculae - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. Shanahan et al. (1993) found that 50 percent of people with stroke- and swallowing-related aspiration due to delayed onset of the pharyngeal response continued to aspirate from the pyriform sinuses using the chin-down posture. Moreover, Eisenhuber et al. (2002) found that people with a pyriform sinus residue with a height that was less than 50 percent of the pyriform sinus height aspirated significantly more than those with less or no pyriform sinus residue. [Show Less]
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SLP Praxis Practice Test with correct Answers
C. Phonology - ANSWER-A 6-year-old child produces /t/ for /s/, /d/ for /z/, /p/ for /f/, and /b/ for /v/. Intervention for this problem would target langua... [Show More] ge at the level of A. morphology B. syntax C. phonology D. pragmatics E. Semantics C. The influence of context on the speaker and the listener - ANSWER-A treatment plan for an adult client with an acquired language disorder recommends focusing on pragmatic communication. Goals established for this client would most appropriately emphasize which of the following? A. the rules for arranging sounds in words B. the denotative meanings of words C. the influence of context on the speaker and the listener D. The rules that apply to the structure of sentences E. the perceptual properties of speech sounds E. Duration of the preceding vowel - ANSWER-Which of the following is the most important acoustic cue that distinguishes between an unreleased final /p/ and an unreleased final /b/, as in "cap" vs. "cab" A. Frequency of third formant B. locus frequency of burst C. Voice onset time D. Vocal fundamental frequency E. Duration of the preceding vowel C. Walked - ANSWER-When using Roger Brown's system for computing mean length of utterance in a language sample, which of the following utterances would be scored as having two morphemes? A. Bought B. Doggie C. Walked D. Sticky E. Choo-choo A. The epithelium and superficial lamina propria - ANSWER-Anatomical studies of the human vocal folds and detailed observation of mucosal behavior during phonation has led to the current "cover-body" characterization of the vocal fold. Which of the following is included in the vocal fold cover A. the epithelium and superficial lamina propria B. The epithelium and deep lamina propria C. The intermediate and deep layers of the lamina propria D. The vocalis portion of the thyroarytenoid muscle E. The lamina of the thyroid cartilage A. /b/ for /m/ - ANSWER-Which of the following substitutions is most likely to occur in conjunction with hyponasality? A. /b/ for /m/ B. /n/ for /d/ C. /ng/ for /k/ D. glottal stop for /t/ E. /m/ for /p/ A. Provide stuttering intervention, but no articulation intervention for /r/ at the present time - ANSWER-Parents bring their daughter of 4 years and 3 months for a speech and language evaluation. The parents have expressed concern that their daughter does not pronounce the /r/ sound correctly and has exhibited periods of stuttering for the last 18 months. During the evaluation, the SLP observes that the child exhibits sound-syllable repetitions on 30 percent of her words. What is the best action for the SLP to take? A. Provide stuttering intervention, but no articulation intervention for /r/ at the present time B. Provide both articulation intervention for the /r/ and stuttering intervention C. Provide articulation intervention for the /r/ and ignore the stuttering D. Provide articulation intervention for the /r/ first and later provide stuttering intervention E. Provide no intervention at this time B. Acute Laryngitis - ANSWER-Voice therapy is least appropriate for clients with A. Ventricular phonation B. Acute laryngitis C. Vocal nodules D. Contact ulcers E. Unilateral Adductor Paralysis B. Lower or decreased - ANSWER-An SLP is assessing the physiology of voice production in a client. If the client has a hyperfunctional voice disorder, then during phonation the client's average airflow rate is most likely to be A. almost absent B. lower or decreased C. higher or increased D. within normal limits E. erratic and inconsistent D. Culture - ANSWER-When experiences, language, religion, and a shared history bring people together over time, they develop shared traditions and customs, which are referred to as A. ethnicity B. race C. creolization D. culture E. pidginization E. no noticable abnormalities - ANSWER-During a transient ischemic attack, Mr. Mahmood has difficulty producing intelligible speech and retrieving words in conversation. One week later, Mr. Mahmood's speech and language would typically be characterized by A. mild dysarthria B. Expressive aphasia C. anomic aphasia D. both aphasic and dysarthric errors E. no noticeable abnormalities A. That the parents be invited to participate in the development of an individualized education plan (IEP) - ANSWER-The Individuals with Disabilties Education Act mandates which of the following for a fifth grade student who has been identified as eligible for services? A. that the parents be invited to participate in the development of an individualized education plan (IEP) B. That the parents be given at least three names as referral sources for treatment of the disorder C. That the parents be notified of the results of a multidisciplinary conference within ten days of the time the conference was convened D. that the child's name be placed on a waiting list for services and that the parents be notified when space is available. E. that the child and parents be given an explanation of the types of support services that are available in the community and that they be informed about the possibility that an IEP will be approved for the child D. Teach her picture representations for the intentions she expresses in other modalities. - ANSWER-Ellie is a 4 year old girl with developmental delay of unknown origin. She is ambulatory, and her receptive vocabulary, as assessed with a standardized picture vocabulary test, is in the 3 year, 0 month range. Her family members report that she uses six gestures and four words consistently. Ellie's expressive inventory appears in the table below Repetitive contact of hands at midline = more Right hand flicked against left arm = finished Flapping hands above head = yes Hand to head = mine Head down = sad Head shake side to side = no /kaji/ = animal /i^/ = no /i/ = ice cream /oki/ = open How can the SLP most immediately help Ellie become more easily understood by others outside her family, such as her day-care provider and her peers? A. teach her conventional signs to replace her idiosyncratic gestures and words. B. Initiate oral motor treatment to improve speech intelligibility. C. Develop her literacy skills so she can convey her thoughts in writing. D. Teach her picture representations for the intentions she expresses in other modalities. E. Give her a keyboard so she can type messages letter by letter and have them spoken aloud. D. A 40 year old man who presents with severe hoarseness and recurrent laryngitis - ANSWER-For which of the following individuals is a medical evaluation most necessary before beginning a treatment program with an SLP? A. A 2 year old child who has overall developmental delays, abnormal muscle tone, and speech-language delays B. A 4 year old child who presents with phoneme specific nasal emissions with no visible evidence of any clefting condition C. A 6 year old child with an articulation disorder who appears to have a restricted lingual frenulum D. A 40 year old man who presents with severe hoarseness and recurrent laryngitis E. A 78 year old woman who complains of occasional difficulties retrieving the names of her friends. D. Based on the gradualness principle, since the SLP reinforces a response that involves stopping on the initial consonant, a successive approximation of the target - ANSWER-A child with a phonological disorder typically produces "sack" as /kak/. During an intervention session, the child produces /tak/ and is rewarded for it by the SLP. The situation described illustrates a therapeutic strategy that is A. based on behavior modification principles and distributed practice B. based on sound behavioral principles, since it involves application of a random reinforcement schedule C. Based on the theory of negative practice, which permits occasional reinforcement of incorrect responses to prevent discouragement D. Based on the gradualness principle, since the SLP reinforces a response that involves stopping on the initial consonant, a successive approximation of the target E. A misapplication of variable reinforcement, since the SLP erroneously reinforces a production lacking the essential feature of stridency. E. The SLP works with teachers and families to facilitate a student's communication and learning. - ANSWER-Which of the following best describes the role of the SLP in a collaborative-consultation service-delivery model? A. The SLP is responsible for providing both academic/curricular instruction and speech language services B. The SLP provides services to students individually or in small groups within the speech-language resource-room setting C. The SLP provides services directly to the student within the classroom and other natural environments D. The SLP sees the student for a specific amount of time each marking period to monitor communication performance E. The SLP works with teachers and families to facilitate a student's communication and learning. B. Having the client flex her head forward (perform the chin-down posture) during oral preparation and transit stages of the swallow - ANSWER-A 70 year old female has dysphagia characterized by poor posterior oral containment of the bolus during the oral preparatory stage, causing aspiration before the swallow. Cognition and the pharyngeal stage of the swallow are intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment approach for the client? A. providing a puree diet with thickened liquids B. Having the client flex her head forward (perform the chin-down posture) during oral preparation and transit stages of the swallow C. Having the client turn (rotate) her head to the right when swallowing D. Having the client eat more slowly to prevent aspiration E. Providing a diet that consists of thin liquids A. As a result of pharyngeal flap surgery - ANSWER-An 8 year old child with moderately severe hypernasality has persistent nasal regugitation following an adenoidectomy performed 6 months eariler. The child's speech is likely to show the greatest improvement A. as a result of pharyngeal flap surgery B. as a result of intensive speech intervention C. as a result of the natural regrowth of the adenoid tissue before puberty D. gradually and spontaneously, starting at age 9 E. gradually and spontaneously, starting after puberty B. Aspiration during the swallow - ANSWER-A 61 year old woman has dysphagia, characterized by incomplete laryngeal closure during the swallow. Which of the following is the most significant risk to the patient? A. Aspiration before the swallow B. Aspiration during the swallow C. Residue in the valleculae D. Residue on top of the epiglottis E. Excessive weight loss A. An occupational therapist, a pediatric physiatrist, and a physical therapist - ANSWER-In addition to an SLP, which of the following constitutes a team likely to be most helpful in the acute stage rehabilitation of a child with a moderate-to-severe traumatic brain injury? A. An occupational therapist, a pediatric physiatrist, and a physical therapist B. A physical therapist, a psychologist, and a special education teacher C. An occupational therapist and a psychologist D. A special education teacher and a pediatrician E. A pediatrician and a geneticist B. A teenager with a repaired cleft palate who continues to experience hypernasality - ANSWER-For which individual would an AAC intervention be least appropriate? A. a preschool child with a language learning disorder and highly unintelligible speech B. a teenager with a repaired cleft palate who continues to experience hypernasality C. A young adult with severe cerebral palsy precluding functional oral communication D. A 55 year old man who has had a laryngectomy E. A 76 year old woman with severe Broca's aphasia D. Referring the child to a cleft palate team for consideration of surgical or prosthetic management - ANSWER-An 8 year old child with a repaired palatal cleft has received speech intervention for two years in order to reduce moderately severe hypernasality and nasal emission. Cognitive and linguistic skills are normal. All clinical data support a conclusion that abnormal speech characteristics are primarily the result of an inadequate velopharyngeal mechanism. There have been small improvements, but none in the past six to nine months. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the SLP to take with the child at this point? A. terminating speech intervention and reassessing at three month intervals the potential for benefiting from renewed speech intervention B. Instituting an additional three months of articulation intervention C. Instituting a program of blowing, sucking, and swallowing exercises for a six-month trial period D. Referring the child to a cleft palate team for consideration of surgical or prosthetic management E. Conferring with another SLP concerning a treatment decision A. Canonical babbling - ANSWER-A typically-developing 10 month old child will exhibit which of the following skills? A. canonical babbling B. imitation of sequences of four syllables C. naming of objects D. an expressive vocabulary of four words E. a mean length of utterance of 1.5 C. A collaborative program emphasizing skills in establishing presuppositions within units of discourse - ANSWER-Carrie a 9 year old child, has normal receptive language abilities and normal intelligence. She produces narrativ [Show Less]
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SLP Praxis Exam 2023 Questions and Answers
What are Piaget's stages of cognitive development? - ANSWER-Sensorimotor (0-2) Preoperational (2-7) Concrete (7-11) Formal (11+) What are the muscles... [Show More] involved in inspiration? - ANSWER-Diaphragm External intercostal muscles: raise the ribs up and out Serrates posterior superior: elevates rib cage Levator costarium brevis: elevates rib cage Levator costarum logies: elevates rib cage What are the muscles involved in expiration? - ANSWER-Internal intercostal muscles Latissimus dorsi Rectum abdominis Transverse abdominis Internal oblique abdominal Quadrates lumborum What structures are involved in respiration? - ANSWER-Lungs Bronchi Trachea Spinal column Sternum: manubrium, corpus, xiphoid process Rib cage What is the myoelastic-aerodynamic theory? - ANSWER-It's a theory of phonation. VF closure -> build up of sub glottal air pressure -> pressure blows the folds apart -> folds vibrate -> air moves through glottal opening, decreasing pressure -> folds sucked back together. What are the laryngeal cartilages? - ANSWER-Hyoid bone Epiglottis Thyroid cartilage Cricoid cartilage Arytenoids Corniculates Discuss the vocal folds, aryepiglottic folds and ventricular folds. - ANSWER-Vocal folds: They have three layers Epithelium: the outer cover. Lamina propia: the middle. Vocalis muscle: the body Aryepiglottic folds: They go from arytenoids to larynx. Help preserve airway. Ventricular folds: Sometimes vibrate with low frequencies. What are the intrinsic muscles involved in phonation? - ANSWER-internal thyroarytenoid: it's the primary portion of thryoarynteoid muscles. it vibrates and produces sounds. cricothyroid: lengthens and tenses vocal folds. oblique and transverse arytenoid: contract and pull arynteoids together for adduction. posterior cricoarynteoid: abducts lateral cricoarytenoid: adducts What are the extrinsic muscles involved in phonation? - ANSWER-Elevators: Digastric Geniohyoid Mylohyoid Stylohyoid Hyoglossus Genioglossus Depressors: Thyrohyoid Omohyoid Sternothryoid Sternohyoid How many/what type of teeth do we have? - ANSWER-32 teeth: 4 incisors, 2 canine, 4 premolar and 6 molar What are the parts of the tongue? - ANSWER-tip, blade, dorsum, root and lingual frenulum. What are the intrinsic muscles of the tongue? - ANSWER-All innervated by CN 12 Superior longitudinal muscle: shortens tongue. turns tip upward. Inferior longitudinal muscle: shortens tongue. turns tip downward. Transverse muscle: elongates tongue Vertical muscle: narrows tongue What are the extrinsic muscles of the tongue? - ANSWER-All innervated by CN 12 Genioglossus: forms bulk of tongue. retracts, draws tongue downward Styloglossus: draws tongue up and back Hyoglossus: retracts and depresses tongue Chondroglossus: depresses tongue Palatoglossus: elevates tongue and depresses velum What are the muscles of the pharynx? - ANSWER-salpingopharyngeus: elevates laryngeal wall stylopharyngeus: elevates and opens pharynx superior pharyngeal constrictor: pulls wall forward middle pharyngeal constrictor: narrows diameter or pharynx inferior pharyngeal constrictor: constricts office of esophagus and reduces diameter of pharynx What are the muscles of the soft palate? - ANSWER-levator veli palatini: elevates velum tensor veli palatini: tenses velum palatoglossus: elevates and depresses velum palatopharyngeus: lowers velum What are the structures of the hard palate? - ANSWER-Pre maxilla Palatine process What are the muscles of the mandible? - ANSWER-Elevators: Masseter Temporalis Pterygoid Depressors: Digastric Geniohyoid Mylohyoid What are the cranial nerves? - ANSWER-Olfactory Optic Oculomotor Trochlear Trigeminal Abducens Facial Vestibulocochlear Glossopharyngeal Vagus Spinal accessory Hypoglossal Trigeminal: function and damage - ANSWER-Provides sensory information to face. It has three branches. Ophthalmic: nose and eyes Maxillary: lip, maxilla, upper cheek Mandibular: lower teeth Provides motor information to the jaw. Damage could result in an inability to close mouth and chew. Facial: function and damage - ANSWER-Provides sensory information to anterior 2/3 of tongue. Provides motor information to muscles of the face. Damage could result in a mask like appearance. Vestibulocochlear: function and damage - ANSWER-There are two branches. The vestibular branch and acoustic branch. Provides sensory information. Damage could result in hearing loss or balance issues or both. Glossopharyngeal: function and damage - ANSWER-Provides sensory information to posterior 1/3 of tongue Provides motor information to muscles of pharynx (some) Damage could result in loss of taste, difficulty swallowing and damage to the gag reflex. Vagus: function and damage - ANSWER-Provides sensory and motor information to some muscles of larynx and pharynx. There is the recurrent laryngeal nerve which is responsible for intrinsic muscles of larynx (except cricothryoid) The pharyngeal branch is responsible for the pharyngeal constrictors and most muscles of velum (except tensor tympani) Damage could result in swallowing issues, velum paralysis and voice problems Spinal accessory: function and damage - ANSWER-Provides motor information to head and shoulder and some soft palate. Damage could result in neck weakness, inability to turn head, shrug or raise arms Hypoglossal: function and damage - ANSWER-Provides motor information to all intrinsic and some extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage could result in tongue paralysis, unintelligible speech and swallowing issues Describe spinal nerves. - ANSWER-Cervical: 8 pairs. Neck Thoracic: 12 pairs. Chest Lumbar: 5 Sacral: 5 Coccygeal: 1 What is the temporal lobe responsible for? - ANSWER-Processing hearing information and comprehending speech. Contains primary auditory cortex, Heschl's gyrus and Wernicke's area. What is the frontal lobe responsible for? - ANSWER-Important for planning, decision making, etc. Contains important speech structures, such as Broca's, primary motor cortex (aka motor strip. controls voluntary movements) and the supplementary motor cortex (helps with motor planning of speech) What is the parietal lobe responsible for? - ANSWER-Contains the primary somatic sensory area, which integrates somesthetic information (pressures, pain, temperature, touch). Also contains supra marginal gyrus and the angular gyrus What are the structures of the cerebrum? - ANSWER-Longitudinal fissure: goes along middle of hemispheres Central sulcus: divides frontal and parietal Lateral fissure: divides frontal and temporal Cerebellum: function and damage - ANSWER-It acts as a modulator for neural activity. It regulates balance, posture and fine motor movements Damage to the cerebellum results in ataxia. Loss of voluntary control. Think: COORDINATION Basal ganglia: function and damage - ANSWER-The basal ganglia is a highly complex system of neural pathways that receive input and relay messages back to the brain via the thalamus. Damage to the BG results in unusual body postures, dysarthria, involuntary movements, changes in body tone. It's part of the extrapyramidal system which regulates motor movements. Discuss the brainstem and its structures. - ANSWER-Contains midbrain, pons and medulla The midbrain, aka mesencephalon, controls motor and sensory reflexes. The pons, aka metencehpalon, transmit information relative to movement from the hemispheres to the cerebellum. they act as a message station. The medulla houses several cranial nerves for speech production Discuss the diencephalon and its structures. - ANSWER-It is located above the midbrain. Thalamus: relays sensory information to various parts of the brain. Hypothalamus: integrates actions of the ANS, such as hunger, thirst, emotions. Discuss the automatic nervous system. - ANSWER-The sympathetic system is responsible for the "fight or flight". Causes heart to accelerate, raises blood pressure. increases blood flow to various areas of the body. The parasympathetic system is what relaxes you. Efferent vs Afferent - ANSWER-Efferent are motor neurons that carry nerves away from CNS to muscles Afferent are sensory neurons that carry nerves toward CNS. LMN vs UMN - ANSWER-LMN go from spinal nerves to muscles UMN are in the CNS Discuss the pyramidal system and its tracts - ANSWER-The pyramidal system is responsible for providing muscle movement to muscles of the head, neck and limbs. This is a direct activation pathway. The fiber tracts of this system originate in cerebral cortex and go to muscles. In the corticospinal tract, the nerve fibers begin in pre central gyrus (aka motor strip), goes through midbrain, pons and then about 80-85% of the nerve fibers decussate at medulla. Then they synapse at the anterior horn and communicate to the spinal nerves. they start in cortex and end in spine, which is why it's called corticospinal. In the corticobulbar tract, the nerve fibers begin in motor cortex, go to the brainstem and synapse with the cranial nerves , then decussate. Discuss the extrapyramidal system. - ANSWER-It's the "extra" that controls the postural support needed for fine motor movements. It's indirect and influences LMN. Damage results in involuntary movement, bizarre postures, unusual movement patterns. Examples include spasms, tremors, myoclonus and dystonia. Discuss the meninges. - ANSWER-Protect the brain. Pia Arachnoid Dura Discuss the cerebral ventricles. - ANSWER-The choroid plexus produces cerebrospinal fluid, which is responsible for nourishment, removal of waste and protection, and it travels via the ventricles. There are lateral ventricles, the third ventricle and the fourth ventricle. Hydrocephalus is a buildup of CSF. Discuss cerebral blood supply and the Circle of Willis - ANSWER-The aorta is the main artery of the heart. The aorta branches into the carotid arteries and subclavian arteries. The subclavian arteries branch into right and left vertebral arteries. The two vertebral arteries enter the skull and join to form the basilar artery, which branches out to form cerebral arteries. The carotid arteries go up the neck and branch into internal and external carotid arteries. Then you have the middle cerebral artery and anterior cerebral artery which supply blood to several areas of the brain. What are the three types of connecting fibers? - ANSWER-projection: connect between cortex and subcortical structures association: within hemispheres commissural: between hemispheres (corpus callosum) What is language? What is phonology? What are phonemes? What are allophones? - ANSWER-Code or system used to express concepts formed through exposure and experience Scientific study of sound systems and patterns Smallest unit of sound that can affect meaning Variations of phonemes What symbols do we use for broad phonetic transcription? - ANSWER- What are the parts of a syllable? - ANSWER-Onset: initial consonant or cluster of the syllable Nucleus: vowel or diphthong Coda: consonant at the end of the syllable Open vs closed syllable - ANSWER-Open syllables end in vowels, closed end in consonants What does vocalic describe? - ANSWER-Little constriction. Includes vowels and the consonants /l/ and /r/ What does consonantal describe? - ANSWER-Sounds with marked constriction. All the consonants except /l/ and /r/ What does lateral describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that create a lateral opening. Only /l/ What does back describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are created by retraction of the tongue. /k/ /g/ and ng What does continuant describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are produced with an incomplete point of constriction. The airflow is not stopped. The speaker produces the sound until out of breath. These include the fricatives, glides, liquids and laterals and NOT nasals, stops and affricates What does anterior describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are produced with a point of constriction located anteriorly than that of [sh]. What does coronal describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are produced when the tongue blade is raised above the normal schwa position. What does round describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are produced with round lips, such as /r/ and /w/ What does strident describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are produced by forcing air through a small opening. These sounds are the affricates and fricatives (minus th) What does sonorant describe? - ANSWER-Sounds that are produced by allowing airstream to pass uninterrupted through oral or nasal cavity. These are the nasals, glides and liquids What are syllabic sounds? - ANSWER-Sounds that serve as the nucleus in a syllable. All vowels, nasals and liquids What are obstruent sounds? - ANSWER-Sounds that have notable air obstruction. All affricates, fricatives and stops. What are sibilant sounds? - ANSWER-Sounds that have longer duration and more stridency than other consonants. Affricates and fricatives. What are approximants sounds? - ANSWER-Glides and liquids What is simple harmonic motion? - ANSWER-The back and forth movement of particles when the movement is symmetrical and periodic. Also known as a sine wave What is sinusoidal motion? - ANSWER-A wave with horizontal and vertical symmetry. What is compression? - ANSWER-Density of sound molecules What is rarefaction? - ANSWER-Thinning of air molecules What is an aperiodic wave? - ANSWER-Waves that do not repeat themselves. Random vibratory patterns. What is a period wave? - ANSWER-Waves that repeat themselves. What is amplitude? - ANSWER-The magnitude and direction of displacement. The greater the amplitude, the louder the sound signal. What is intensity? - ANSWER-The quality of sound that creates the sensation of loudness. Expressed in decibels. What is density? - ANSWER-Mass per unit volume What is oscillation? - ANSWER-The back and forth movement of air molecules because of a vibrating object What is frequency? - ANSWER-Rate of vibratory motion that is measured in cycles per second. Also Hz. What is natural frequency? - ANSWER-The frequency with which a source of sound normally vibrates. Determined by mass and stiffness. What is fundamental frequency? - ANSWER-The lowest frequency of a periodic wave. The first harmonic. What is a complex tone? - ANSWER-When two or more single frequency tones are combined. Can be periodic or aperiodic. What are free morphemes? What are bound morphemes? - ANSWER-Free morphemes can stand alone. Ex. Ocean Bound morphemes may change a word: Ex. Oceans What is a passive sentence? What is a active sentence? What is an interrogative sentence? What is a declarative sentence? What is an imperative sentence? What is an exclamatory sentence? [Show Less]
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SLP Practice Praxis (Form 3) Exam Questions and Answers (Graded A)
As part of a routine preschool screening, an SLP tests a 4-year-old whose speech is characterized by sound omissions, hypernasality, nasal emission, and we... [Show More] ak consonants. Which of the following would be most appropriately evaluated initially? A.Oral-motor behavior B.Velopharyngeal function C.Laryngeal function D.Phonological awareness - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. The characteristics described are consistent with a resonance disorder, hence velopharyngeal function would be evaluated initially. Which of the following is the minimal contrast approach most appropriately used to treat? A.Phonological disorders B.Dysphagia C.Dysarthria D.Global aphasia - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Minimal contrast approach was one of the first approaches designed to adhere to phonological principles of intervention. Alicia is a fourth-grade student with a language impairment that interferes with her academic performance and social communication. On a standardized test of expressive language ability, she received an overall score of 97.5, placing her in the 65th percentile. Alicia's test result indicates that she A.performed as well as or better than 65% of the individuals on whom the norms were developed B.responded correctly to 65% of the 150 items included in the expressive-language test C.performed as well as or better than 65% of the other fourth graders who took the same test D.responded correctly to 97.5% of the test items, as did 65% of the other children taking the test - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Percentile rank is the percentage of the scores within the norm range that are equal to or lower than the score gained by the student. Which THREE of the following variables are considered risk factors for late language emergence? A.Male gender B.Access to print material C.Low socioeconomic status D.Moderately low birth weight E.Exposure to rich and varied vocabulary - ANSWER-Options (A), (C), and (D) are correct. Being of male gender is a risk factor cited by both ASHAA S H A and researchers for late-talking toddlers. Having a low SESS E S is considered a risk factor by ASHAA S H A and researchers for late talking. Finally low birth weight is a risk factor as well. During a trip to the grocery store, a three-year-old boy with delayed language points to an apple on the floor and says to his mother, "Apple." The boy's mother says, "Yes, that's a big, shiny apple." Based on the mother's response, which of the following language stimulation techniques is she using? A.Imitation B.Parallel talk C.Think aloud D.Expansion - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. Expansion is a method that entails providing a subject a more complex speech model but does not directly stimulate another response from the subject. An SLP works with a 4-year-old patient diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. The patient is nonverbal, does not have a functional communication system, and does not follow simple directions. Which of the following communicative target goals is most appropriate for the SLP to prioritize for the patient? A.Matching identical pictures in an array of pictures B.Requesting wants in any modality C.Labeling of common items verbally D.Imitating a sequence of two actions - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. Requests (mands) are very important for the early development of language and for day-to-day verbal interactions with others. Requests (mands) are usually the first type of communication acquired by an infant. A 75-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease underwent a three-vessel coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The patient needed to be intubated for three days following surgery. After extubation, the medical team requested a swallow consultation to determine if it was safe for the patient to take oral medications and initiate oral nutrition. Based on the patient's condition, which of the following assessment procedures is most appropriate for an SLP to practice? A.Administering a clinical bedside swallow evaluation and recommending an oral diet as there were no clinical signs or symptoms of aspiration during the evaluation B.Deferring the evaluation for 24 hours because the patient was just extubated to allow a possible improvement in the patient's swallow function before evaluation C.Completing a clinical bedside swallow evaluation to determine patient readiness for an instrumental evaluation and then completing the instrumental evaluation if the patient is ready D.Determining any preexisting dysphagia with the patient and the patient's family; if there is no history of dysphagia, recommending to advance the patient's diet - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Several studies using instrumental assessment have concluded that some patients recover airway protection and swallow function within 24 hours of extubation and others much later than 24 hours post-extubation following prolonged endotracheal intubation, suggesting that a 24-hour "deferral time" benchmark is not particularly useful. Which of the following procedures is most important for an SLP to consider when assessing the social aspect of a school-age child's communication skills? A.Collecting a language sample to assess narrative skills B.Assessing expressive vocabulary used by the child on a picture vocabulary test C.Observing the child interacting with peers in natural settings, such as during recess D.Looking for a discrepancy between the child's IQI Q and communication skills to determine eligibility - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Informal observation of a student in a natural setting is part of a comprehensive assessment. A determination of eligibility for SLP services in a school must be made from more than one source and should include authentic assessment in an informal setting. A study is conducted to determine how well a dysphagia screening test predicts aspiration that is later confirmed with a videofluoroscopic swallow study (VFSSV F S S). The study results are presented in the table below. (Top left) Failed Screen/Aspiration: 45 (Bottom left) Passed Screen/Aspiration: 5 (Top right) Failed Screen/No Asp: 20 (Bottom right) Passed Screen/No Asp: 30 Which THREE of the following statements about this dysphagia screening test are true? A.The screening test's sensitivity is 90% B.The screening test's sensitivity is 69% C.The screening test's specificity is 90% D.The screening test's specificity is 60% E.The number of false negatives was 5 F.The number of false negatives was 20 - ANSWER-Options (A), (D), and (E) are correct. The screening test's sensitivity is the proportion of patients who aspirated and failed the screen (top cell in the first column) to the total of all patients who aspirated on the VFSS (total of the first column); therefore, 45/50 = 0.9045 divided by 50, equals 0.90. The screening test's specificity is the proportion of patients who did not aspirate and passed the screen (bottom cell in the second column) to the total of all patients who did not aspirate on the VFSS (total of second column); therefore, 30/50 = 0.6030 divided by 50, equals 0.60. False negatives are patients who passed the screen who actually aspirated on the VFSS (bottom cell of first column). A study is conducted to determine how well a dysphagia screening test predicts aspiration that is later confirmed with a videofluoroscopic swallow study (VFSSV F S S). The study results are presented in the table below. (Top left) Failed Screen/Aspiration: 45 (Bottom left) Passed Screen/Aspiration: 5 (Top right) Failed Screen/No Asp: 20 (Bottom right) Passed Screen/No Asp: 30 Which TWO of the following statements about the results of a screening test are correct? A.Sensitivity is the proportion of people who fail the screening test who are aspirators B.Specificity is the proportion of people who pass the screening test who are aspirators C.Sensitivity is the proportion of people who pass the screening test who are not aspirators D.Specificity is the proportion of people who pass the screening test who are not aspirators - ANSWER-Options (A) and (D) are correct. The screening test's sensitivity is the proportion of patients who aspirated and failed the screen (top cell in the first column) to the total of all patients who aspirated (total of the first column). The screening test's specificity is the proportion of patients who did not aspirate and passed the screen (bottom cell in the second column) to the total of all patients who did not aspirate on the VFSS (total of second column). During a speech-language evaluation at a preschool, a child has difficulty with receptive language tasks and responds with only one-word utterances to expressive language items. The child's eye contact is poor throughout the session. When observed with the other children in class, the child does not engage with peers but prefers self-stimulating behaviors such as flapping arms and throwing papers up in the air. According to the child's teacher, these are typical behaviors for the child. Given the data obtained, which of the following steps is most appropriate for the SLP to take next? A.Engaging in an inter-professional practice (IPP) to determine the appropriate diagnosis of ASDA S D B.Conducting the full evaluation when the child is more cooperative so that accurate recommendations can be made C.Initiating expressive language therapy to focus on expanding conversational utterances D.Training the teacher to deliver language stimulation tasks because the child does not respond well to the SLP - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Although it is in the SLP's scope of practice to diagnose ASD, it is stated that best practice suggests a team approach when making this determination. Christel and Sharon are 14-month-old fraternal twins. Christel has more intelligible words than her sister, although she talks far less frequently. Sharon speaks almost exclusively in running jargon that nobody understands. Their parents are worried about Sharon's development because her language skills appear to be behind those of her sister. Which of the following is an SLP's best response to the parents' concern? A.At Sharon's age, jargon is normal and may even continue for another three to four months. B.Christel's language development is more abnormal because she should be beyond single words. C.Both girls were exposed to the same language environments, so the relative lack of intelligible words indicates a language delay. D.Jargon should not persist past the age of 12 months and thus Sharon may be presenting a language disorder. - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Jargon typically continues until around 18 months of age. An SLP engages in inter-professional practice in a large health care center and works with a neurologic rehabilitation team to treat a patient who is status post left-hemisphere stroke. The SLP's primary focus on the team is to A.lead the interdisciplinary team to improve patient care B.reduce costs and the number of professionals working at the site C.obtain licenses in multiple areas of practice to engage in a range of services D.improve the patient experience and outcome of care at the site - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. The primary goal of inter-professional practice is to improve patient care. Which of the following communication diagnoses would most likely require a treatment program that is focused on improving auditory language comprehension? A.Right-hemisphere communication impairment B.Global aphasia C.Wernicke's aphasia D.Broca's aphasia - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. The hallmark of Wernicke's aphasia is deficits in auditory comprehension, because the site of lesions is most typically the left superior temporal gyrus. Which of the following procedures best establishes whether velopharyngeal dysfunction causing hypernasality is present in a patient with flaccid dysarthria? A.A nasopharyngoscopy B.A videofluoroscopic swallow study C.A laryngoscopy D.A manometry - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Nasopharyngoscopy is the only procedure that allows visualization of the velopharyngeal port during speech. The parents of an 8-year-old boy who stutters are upset because their child was placed in the lowest reading group at school because of his poor performance on an oral reading fluency assessment in the classroom. The parents are very sure that their child is reading at an average to above-average level compared to his classmates. The SLP's informal observations of the boy's reading performance during fluency therapy sessions are consistent with the parents' report. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the SLP to advocate for the boy? A.Offer to conduct a reading assessment with the boy and report the score to the boy's teacher. B.Recommend that the teacher reassess the child's reading level with an assessment that uses silent reading. C.Wait until the child's speech improves in therapy, and then ask the child's teacher to readminister the oral reading assessment. D.Encourage the child to continue practicing oral reading to demonstrate to his teacher that individuals who stutter can read as well as other people. - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. The boy's stuttering is affecting his fluency during oral reading, so an assessment of his silent reading fluency will provide more valid results. Which of the following conditions is primarily associated with a short lingual frenulum, heart-shaped tongue tip, and a failure to elevate the tongue tip beyond the mandibular incisors, as revealed during oral-facial examination? A.Bulbar palsy B.Ankyloglossia C.Glossoptosis D.Congenital lip pits - ANSWER-Option (B) is correct. Limited tongue mobility, heart-shaped tongue tip and a failure to elevate the tongue tip beyond the mandibular incisors are all characteristics of ankyloglossia (tongue-tied/short lingual frenulum). A school district does not use a standard therapy log for SLP services. An SLP who works for the district develops a form to document therapy services provided. Which THREE of the following are key to include on the form to document the provision of speech and language IEP services? A.The date a student's IEP was established B.Student performance during the therapy session C.Names of other students in the group D.Types of services provided within a therapy session E.Signature from the SLP verifying delivery of services - ANSWER-Options (B), (D), and (E) are correct. Information on student performance is important data and helps to track progress, listing the types of services indicates what was provided, and the SLP's signature documents who provided the service. Which of the following activities is an example of a metalinguistic strategy used to assist a student with language difficulties? A.Providing a definition of a word B.Placing story elements in sequential order C.Editing the writing of same-aged peers D.Discussing similarities and differences between two pictures - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Editing the writing of a same-age peer is an example of a metalinguistic activity because it involves the awareness, analysis, and control of language form, content, and use. A 24-year-old male self-refers for a fluency evaluation. His presenting complaint is stuttering. During conversation at the initial assessment, he speaks intelligibly at a typical rate and produces no overt stutter-like disfluencies. He reports that he often expects to stutter while conversing, but that he usually can prevent or conceal the occurrence of the expected fluency disruptions either by substituting a word or by inserting a pause or "um" before the word upon which he expects to be disfluent. He states that these strategies are useful and that he would like to be able to "talk without thinking about talking." He reports that he attended speech therapy from elementary school through high school and that it helped him reduce disfluency significantly during therapy activities, but his disfluency frequency did not change much during activities outside of therapy. He fears that coworkers will react negatively to hearing him stutter. Consequently, he talks as little as possible at work. The patient's assessment results are most consistent with which of the following diagnoses? A.Neurogenic stuttering B.Cluttering C.Developmental stuttering D.Specific language impairment - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Some people who stutter can prevent anticipated instances of stutter-like disfluency either by substituting words or by delaying the start of a word upon which stuttering is anticipated, e.g., by pausing or by interjecting fillers such as "um." Speech-related fear, concern about listener evaluations, and anticipated disfluency are all hallmarks of stuttering but are not typical symptoms in SLI or cluttering. Even though the SLP has not heard stuttering-like disfluency in the patient's speech, all other symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of stuttering. A 24-year-old male self-refers for a fluency evaluation. His presenting complaint is stuttering. During conversation at the initial assessment, he speaks intelligibly at a typical rate and produces no overt stutter-like disfluencies. He reports that he often expects to stutter while conversing, but that he usually can prevent or conceal the occurrence of the expected fluency disruptions either by substituting a word or by inserting a pause or "um" before the word upon which he expects to be disfluent. He states that these strategies are useful and that he would like to be able to "talk without thinking about talking." He reports that he attended speech therapy from elementary school through high school and that it helped him reduce disfluency significantly during therapy activities, but his disfluency frequency did not change much during activities outside of therapy. He fears that coworkers will react negatively to hearing him stutter. Consequently, he talks as little as possible at work. Which of the following approaches is the most appropriate initial therapy focus for the patient? A.Improving the naturalness of the speech B.Implementing use of the cancellation technique in conjunction with conversational disfluencies C.Improving the ability to pause at appropriate linguistic boundaries when speaking D.Reinforcing the patient's attempts to produce words without the use of fillers, pauses, or word substitutions - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. Reinforcing open stuttering directly addresses the client's fear of stuttering and provides opportunities for the client to objectively evaluate how other people respond when he stutters openly. A 24-year-old male self-refers for a fluency evaluation. His presenting complaint is stuttering. During conversation at the initial assessment, he speaks intelligibly at a typical rate and produces no overt stutter-like disfluencies. He reports that he often expects to stutter while conversing, but that he usually can prevent or conceal the occurrence of the expected fluency disruptions either by substituting a word or by inserting a pause or "um" before the word upon which he expects to be disfluent. He states that these strategies are useful and that he would like to be able to "talk without thinking about talking." He reports that he attended speech therapy from elementary school through high school and that it helped him reduce disfluency significantly during therapy activities, but his disfluency frequency did not change much during activities outside of therapy. He fears that coworkers will react negatively to hearing him stutter. Consequently, he talks as little as possible at work. Which of the following approaches would be the most direct way to address the patient's fear of how coworkers might react to his disfluent speech? A.Application of principles from cognitive behavioral therapy B.Fluency-shaping therapy based on prolonged speech C.Pharmacological management D.Application of progressive relaxation therapy principles - ANSWER-Option (A) is correct. Research supports the idea that Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) can change the communication-related attitudes of people who stutter. Which of the following nerves provides efferent innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle and contributes toward the elevation of the pharynx and the larynx? A.The trigeminal B.The hypoglossal C.The vagus D.The glossopharyngeal - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. The functions described are controlled by cranial nerve IX (9), the glossopharyngeal. A patient presents to a speech-language pathologist with voice changes. After completing a patient assessment, the SLP notes that the patient's vocal quality and function indicate the possibility of a superior laryngeal nerve injury. Which of the following presentations is most consistent with this impression? A.Inspiratory stridor B.Hypernasal resonance C.Complete aphonia D.Reduced pitch range - ANSWER-Option (D) is correct. The superior laryngeal nerve controls the cricoarytenoid muscles, which lengthen the vocal folds for pitch elevation. Injury to this nerve can result in reduced pitch range, particularly in the higher frequency range. Kimberly, a patient who suffered a brain stem stroke and has had a fairly successful recovery, complained of food sticking in her throat and needing to swallow two to three times to clear liquid and solid boluses. She underwent a videofluoroscopic swallowing study that showed a limited duration of upper esophageal sphincter opening. The SLP decides to employ an intervention plan that includes the Mendelsohn maneuver. Which of the following strategies is most likely to be effective in accomplishing this goal? A.Completing a fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES) to determine if the patient is performing the maneuver properly B.Performing cervical auscultation (CA) to quantify improved swallowing with the maneuver C.Using submental surface electromyography (sEMGs) as biofeedback during attempts to perform the maneuver D.Teaching the patient to use palpation of her neck and a mirror to help her master the maneuver - ANSWER-Option (C) is correct. Submental surface EMG has been shown to improve acquisition of the Mendelsohn maneuver in some people though the maneuver itself is very difficult to learn. Which of the following statements a [Show Less]
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Praxis Exam II Questions with correct Answers
Praxis Exam II Questions with correct Answers
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SLP Praxis Exam Questions and Answers 2023
Chin-Down method is not appropriate for - ANSWER-Individuals who aspirate residue from the pyriform sinuses Acculturation - ANSWER-Incorporating host's ... [Show More] culture and values while maintaining native culture and values Leading cause of swallowing Disorders in children with Downs Syndrome - ANSWER-Hypotonia The Shaker head-lift exercise is designed to - ANSWER-Increase diameter and duration of UES opening First physical factor to evaluate in person with CP when looking at AAC options - ANSWER-Trunk stability and control Instrument used to document stages of recovery after TBI - ANSWER-Ranchos Los Amigos Scales of Cognitive Function fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement - ANSWER-the number of responses required to receive each reinforcer will always be the same number variable-ratio schedule - ANSWER-in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses continuous ratio - ANSWER-reward after every correct response reversible passive - ANSWER-Participant can fit into either role; Jared was bullied by Michael ABAB design - ANSWER-An experimental design, often involving a single subject, wherein a baseline period (A) is followed by a treatment (B). To confirm that the treatment resulted in a change in behavior, the treatment is then withdrawn (A) and reinstated (B). Maximal Oppositions Approach - ANSWER-contrasts two errored sounds differing across place, manner, and voicing to gain the greatest amount of generalization minimal pairs approach - ANSWER-uses a set of words that differ by a single phoneme tensor veli palatini - ANSWER-Muscle that opens auditory tube levator veli palatini - ANSWER-elevates velum contraindication for safe and successful patient tolerance of the one-way valve - ANSWER-Patient's inability to pass air to the oral cavity with the tube cannula occluded by SLP What type of dysarthria is associated with Lower Motor Neuron damage? - ANSWER-Flaccid dysarthria Discriminative stimulus associated with who? - ANSWER-Skinner Zone of proximal development associated with who? - ANSWER-Vygotsky Language Generativity associated with who? - ANSWER-Chomsky Object permanence associated with who? - ANSWER-Piaget To compensate for the effects of normal aging on cognitive functions, older adults will naturally demonstrate - ANSWER-Greater amount of activation of prefrontal brain regions Esophogeal technique for alaryngeal voice - ANSWER-uses air from stomach/lower esophagus to upper esophagus/pharynx, where it vibrates the wall tracheoesophageal technique to alaryngeal voice - ANSWER-requires the patient to cover the stoma to redirect air and initiate vibration of the wall concurrent validity - ANSWER-the extent to which two measures of the same trait or ability agree What does it mean to show "congruence" in counseling terms? - ANSWER-Using words and body language that match Which muscle is responsible for changing pitch? - ANSWER-Cricothyroid Trigeminal Nerve - ANSWER-CN V- sensation to anterior 2/3 or tongue and motor of masticatory and buccinator muscles Facial Nerve - ANSWER-CN VII- taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue and motor to lip sphincter Glossopharyngeal - ANSWER-CN IX taste and sensation of posterior 1/3 of tongue Vagus nerve - ANSWER-CN X- Motor and sensory to palate, pharynx, larynx, and esophagus Lesion to _________ alone can cause aspiration - ANSWER-superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve Accessory Nerve - ANSWER-CN XI- Palatoglossus (elevates tongue root) works with pharyngeal branch of vagus Hypoglossal Nerve - ANSWER-CN XII- Controls tongue in oral and pharyngeal phase all tongue muscles except palatoglossal and palatopharyngeus Compensatory dysphagia maneuvers - ANSWER-effortful swallow mendelsohn supraglottic super-supraglottic breath-hold bolus-hold Restorative dysphagia maneuvers - ANSWER-Shaker Masako Mendelsohn Super-Supraglottic Effortful swallow Oral-motor exercises stimulation pharyngeal squeeze Purpose of chin tuck posture - ANSWER-Narrows airway, widens valleculae, pushes tongue base towards pharyngeal wall, widens pyriform sinuses, keeps bolus in mouth (bolus control) Purpose of head turn posture - ANSWER-Closes pyriform sinus in direction of head turn (turn towards weak side) Purpose of head back/extension posture - ANSWER-helps with oral propulsion but also widens airway entrance Supraglottic swallow - ANSWER-For: *Delayed pharyngeal swallow* Reduced or delayed initiation laryngeal closure How: Pt *hold breath while swallow*, *cough*, swallow again Super-supraglottic swallow - ANSWER-For: *Reduced laryngeal closure* *Combo* of supraglottic and effortful Closes airway at three points How: Inhale, hold breath, bear down tightly, hold during swallow, cough to clear Bolus Hold/Bolus Prep/3 Second Prep - ANSWER-For: premature spillage with risk of pen/asp before swallow How: get bolus ready, hold breath before swallow, swallow all at once with conscious control of bolus and trying to prevent premature spillage (usually just liquids) Great to do with FEES *Shaker* maneuver - ANSWER-For: Reduced UES opening, residue in pyriforms How: *lie on back*, no pillow, lift head to look at toes, shoulders down, hold 30sec Reverses gravity effect so residue stays pharyngeal wall not pyriforms *Strengthens* outer neck and throat muscles Not for hx reflux or arthritis Masako Maneuver - ANSWER-For: *Reduced pharyngeal constriction* How: *Hold tongue between teeth* during swallow (base of tongue contacts pharyngeal wall) Mendelsohn Maneuver - ANSWER-For: *reduced laryngeal elevation* plus *reduced UES opening* How: Swallow normal, feel larynx lift; swallow, feel and *hold larynx up after it lifts*, finish swallow (longer elevation of larynx normalizes timing of pharyngeal swallow) Effortful swallow - ANSWER-For: *Reduced base of tongue retraction and pressure in pharyngeal phase* *Food residue in valleculae* How: *Swallow hard* w tongue pushed up on roof of mouth increases base of tongue movement to clear bolus from valleculae Pharyngeal squeeze - ANSWER-For: pharyngeal contraction and hyolargyngeal elevation How: take deep breath and say /i/ and glide up to highest pitch and hold for as long as possible [Show Less]
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