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SPECTRUM FIELD TECH EXAM 2023 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
Current/ amperage - correct answer Flow or movement of electric charges Resistor - correct answer a passive two-terminal material that impedes the flow ... [Show More] of current What is the most common workplace hazard involving electricity? - correct answer Electrical shocks What is minimum approach distance? - correct answer The shortest safe distance to keep from energized conductors CATV at the pole - correct answer40'' CATV at the mid-span - correct answer24'' CATV at the house - correct answer12'' Live parts of electric equipment must be guarded against at how many volts? - correct answer50 volts What are the 2 kinds of grounds required by Safety standards for electrical systems? - correct answer Service and Equipment What are circuit protection devices designed to do? - correct answer Automatically limit or shift off the flow of electricity in the event of a ground fault, overload, or short circuit in the wiring system OSHA - correct answer Occupational Safety and Health Administration CATV - correct answer Community Antenna Television HFC - correct answer Hybrid Fiber Coax What are the four sources of signals? - correct answer Satellite, local origination, off air, fiber optics Forward - correct answer54 MHz-1 GHz G.B. - correct answer Guard Band Return - correct answer5-42 MHz Downstream (forward path) - correct answer Forward signal from the head end to a customer Upstream (reverse path) - correct answer Return signal from a customer to the head end Signal frequency - correct answer Number of times that an RF signal completes a cycle from a positive value to a negative value and back in one second Ultrasonic frequencies are higher than what? - correct answer Audio Infrasonic frequencies are below what? - correct answer Audio How many hertz can the human ear hear? - correct answer20-20,000 Per NTSC requirements, what is a tv channels bandwidth? - correct answer6MHz FCC (Federal Communications Commission) - correct answer Gov agency responsible or regulating and assigning frequencies throughout the US HFC distributes what? - correct answer Broadband signals through a network of various elements Nodes - correct answer Convert the light signals from the head end into radio frequency signals for delivery to customer Ingress signal leakage TV: - correct answer Lines in picture, ghosting, pay per view problems, scrambling problems Ingress signal leakage Internet: - correct answer Lack of internet access, lack of internet access, lack of email services, data problems Ingress signal leakage Voice - correct answer Telephone call failures (incoming and out coming) QAM (quadrature amplitude modulation) - correct answer Is both an analog and digital modulation scheme used for transmitting digital data as an analog signal by using a carrier split into 2 carriers of identical frequency phase shifted 90 degrees apart How many programming channels can digital signals have within a 6 MHz space? - correct answer12 CLI - correct answer Cumulative Leakage Index What are charters technical standard for 256 QAM and OFDM carries at CPE? - correct answer34 dB or better BER - correct answer bit error rate Post BER - correct answer1.0e-9 Pre BER - correct answer1.0e-6 FEC - correct answer Forward Error Correction SLM - correct answer Signal Level Meter CNR - correct answer Carrier to Noise Ratio Hum Modulation - correct answer The amplitude distortion of broadband cable video and audio carriers by 60 Hz or 120 Hz voltage What are the two types of hum modulation? - correct answer Video and audio Digital= - correct answer Rate data bitstream Analog= - correct answer Concentrated at a single frequency How much bandwidth is required to transmit digital signal data? - correct answer6 MHz The wider the digital signal the more? - correct answer Power Higher BER can be caused by? - correct answer Ingress Distortion Noise Interference Hum Reflection Spaced errors - correct answer Errors that are spread out because of noise Burst errors - correct answer Errors that are grouped together because of intermittent problems such as ingress or loose connectors FEC - correct answer Generates and introduces additional bits as data is transmitted Uncorrectable FEC errors are caused by: - correct answer Impulsive noise or ingress interference Loose or intermittent connections A faulty modem MER - correct answer A measurement used to quantify the performance of communications system transmitting a digital signal Industry acceptable MER values for QPSK - correct answer~24dB Industry acceptable MER values for 64-QAM - correct answer~27dB Industry acceptable MER values for 256-QAM - correct answer~31dB Voltage - correct answer Measurement of the force or pressure that electrons to move 1v equals what? - correct answer1 current of 1 ampere through a resistance of one ohm Current are measured in what? - correct answer Amperes Resistance - correct answer The opposition a material offers to the flow of current Power - correct answer The rate at which work is done. Measured in watts 1 watt= what? - correct answer1V X 1AMP ISA - correct answer Integrated Splitter Amplifiers How many outlets are needed to use ISA? - correct answer4 OR more Grounding - correct answer a conducting connection between an electric circuit or equipment and the earth or some other conducting body. Bonding - correct answer The permanent joining of metallic ports to form an electrically conductive path that will ensure electrical continuity and the capacity to conduct safely any current likely to be imposed What is the rg6 bond? - correct answer12 What is the rg11 bond? - correct answer6 What type of bond for mobile home trailer? - correct answer Mobile home trailer beam clamp [Show Less]
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SPECTRUM FIELD TECH NEW HIRE WEEK 2 EXAM 2023
What does the "S" in S.A.F.E stand for? - correct answer Stop What does the "A" in S.A.F.E stand for? - correct answer Assess What does the "F" in S.... [Show More] A.F.E stand for? - correct answer Focus What does the "E" in S.A.F.E stand for? - correct answer Eliminate What are the three branches of the Safety Triangle? - correct answer Knowledge Technique Attitude What (in electricity) is the direct cause of injury voltage (E), current (I), or resistance (R)? - correct answer Current (I) What is the safety rating for glasses? - correct answer ANZI 87.1 What are the three main causes of electrical accident? - correct answer1) Unsafe Equipment 2) Work Places 3) Unsafe work practices What are the 2 root causes of safety accidents? - correct answer1) Failure to manage risk 2) Failure to identify real and potential hazards What is Ohm's law equation? - correct answer voltage (E) = current (I) x resistance (R) What is the max reach for a step ladder? - correct answer Ladder height + 4 feet What is the max reach for an extension ladder? - correct answer Ladder height - 1 foot What is the height:lean ration for ladders? - correct answer4 feet high:1 foot far What are the proper pole inspection steps? - correct answer1)Visual 2)FVD 3)Hammer 4)Prod What does FVD stand for? - correct answer Foreign Voltage Detector What colors are used for ground wires? - correct answer Green or Green/Yellow What colors are used for hot wires? - correct answer Red, Black, or Blue What colors are used for neutral wires? - correct answer White or Gray What does GFCI stand for and what does it do? - correct answer Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter and it shuts off as quick as 1/40 of a second. What is the most common shock related injury? - correct answer A Burn What is the drop clearance for Power? - correct answer Pole: 40" Mid-Span: 24" House: 12" What is the drop clearance for Telephone? - correct answer Pole: 12" House: 4" What is the drop clearance for crossing the road? - correct answer Road Crossing: 18' Residential driveways: 9.5' Above roof or building: 3' What is standard energy for a customer's home? - correct answer120 or 220 Volts AC What is the process for a damaged item in a customer's home? - correct answer1) Take a picture 2) Call Supervisor 3) Tell Customer What are the three A's of conflict? - correct answer Acknowledge Answer Act What voltage does an FVD not detect? - correct answer DC volts FVD only detects AC volts What other senses do you use when your FVD isn't precise? - correct answer Visual Hearing Smell What does CEM stand for? - correct answer Converged Enabled Modem How high in frequency does the human ear hear? - correct answer20 Hz - 20,000 Hz What is the equation for hertz? - correct answer1 cycle in 1 second of time = 1 hertz (Hz) What does H.F.C mean? - correct answer Hybrid Fiber Coaxial Network What is bandwidth for tv channels? - correct answer6 MHz What is the frequency for TX/Upstream/Return signal? - correct answer5 MHz - 42Mhz What is the frequency range for RX/Downstream/Forward signal? - correct answer50 MHz - 860 Mhz or 1 GHz What does CPE stand for? - correct answer Customer Premises Equipment What does PSTN stand for? - correct answer Public Switched Telephone Network What do Nodes do? - correct answer Nodes convert light signals into RF signals. They are the demarc point between fiber & coax cables. What does fiber deep mean? - correct answer Fiber deep means that fiber is run directly to a customer's house, business, or other location. What does FTTH, FTTP, FTTX stand for? - correct answer FTTH: Fiber to the Home FTTP: Fiber to the Premises FTTX: Fiber to the "x" (x meaning wherever it is located) What are the parts to a coax cable? - correct answer Jacket Braid Dielectric Center Conductor What is attenuation? - correct answer Signal Loss What is the attenuation on RG-6 cable (per 100 ft)? - correct answer3 dB (Low Band) 6 dB (High Band) What is the attenuation on RG-11 cable (per 100 ft)? - correct answer1.5 dB (Low Band) 3 dB (High Band) What are the factors of attenuation? - correct answer Cable diameter (size), length, frequency, temperature What does LED stand for? - correct answer Light Emitting Diode What is the frequency for cable systems? - correct answer5 MHz - 1 GHz Where is 70% of signal loss? - correct answer Between the tap & service location Where is 20-30% of signal loss? - correct answer Trunk/Feeder Cables Where is <10% of signal loss? - correct answer Cust. Owned Equipment What is channel 101 considered? - correct answer Data Carrier What is the spec for Upstream/TX boxes & CEMs? - correct answer35-50 dB What is the spec for Downstream/RX cable boxes? - correct answer-8-+10 dB What is the spec for Downstream/RX CEMs? - correct answer-12-+12 dB What is the video carrier transmitted using? - correct answer Amplitude Modulation When measuring signal what is used to measure picture quality? - correct answer Video What does QPSK stand for? - correct answer Quadrature Phase-shift Keying What does QAM stand for? - correct answer Quadrature Amplitude Modulation Is charter currently at 64 or 256 QAM? - correct answer256 QAM What is the benefit of digital over analog? - correct answer Digital has an high immunity to degradation How many bits are in a byte? - correct answer8 What are the most common node values? - correct answer One or Zero What are all of the node values? - correct answer One or zero high or low true or false yes or no What does BPSK stand for? - correct answer Binary Phase Shift Keying What is the successor to MPEG-2? - correct answerMPEG-4 What does dB stand for? - correct answer Decibel What does dBmV stand for? - correct answer Decibel Millivolt What does MER stand for? - correct answer Modulation Error Ratio How do you avoid the cliff effect? - correct answer MER 29 (31) dB or Better What does PCM stand for? - correct answer Pulse Code Modulation What does SLM stand for? - correct answer Signal Level Meters Is absolute power db or dbmv? - correct answerd BmV Is relative power db or dbmv? - correct answer dB What does doubling voltage do? - correct answer Increases by 6 db What does halfing voltage do? - correct answer Decreases by 6 db In a coaxial cable, where does radio frequency travel? - correct answer Near the surface of the center conductor Attenuation is the signal loss caused by cable length. It is measured in what unit? - correct answer dB The length of coaxial cable is directly proportional to the ____________ that will be suffered in the signal strength. - correct answer Loss What is the base temperature used in cable attenuation charts? - correct answer68 Degrees F 100% ________ would make the best dielectric due to its non conductive properties. - correct answer Plastic Your hardhat protects you from - correct answer Impact - Penetration - Electric Shock Which standard is imprinted on glasses or goggles that meet safety requirements? - correct answer ANSI Standard Z87.1-2010 Which items of PPE do you need under normal working conditions ( not climbing ) ? - correct answer Hard hat, Safety glasses, Safety vest, FVD, and gloves Which items of PPE would you need when working aloft on a ladder? - correct answer Hard hat, Safety glasses, FVD, Long-sleeved shirt, Gloves, Body belt, Positioning strap, and Lineman’s boots What happens to leather when it is dried too fast in excessive heat? - correct answer The leather curls and cracks How do you measure for proper "D" size on a padded body belt? - correct answer Measure hipbone to hipbone plus 2 Once at the working height , pass the positioning strap around the pole and engage the single-sided end on the D-ring with the mouth of the snap hook _________ . - correct answer inward Always verify visually that the snap hook had engaged the _________________ . - correct answer D - Ring You must document your monthly PPE inspection on the applicable inspection form. - correct answer True What type of safety vest is required? - correct answer Type 3 What is the minimum clearance of CATV cable from power at the pole? - correct answer40" What are the three indicators on the FVD? - correct answer10 step bar graph, Audible tone, and power indicator LED To use the FVD, after the self test process continue to hold pressure on the power switch and move the FVD: - correct answer Toward the object you want to test To replace the battery of the FVD, use this tool to pry the cover off the back of the device: - correct answer Small screwdriver The FVD is only a voltage detector and is not intended to be a precision measuring device. What other senses would you use as an additional safety check? - correct answer Sight, Sound, and Smell [Show Less]
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SPECTRUM FIELD TECH NEW HIRE ASSESSMENT TEST UPDATED 2023
In a coaxial cable, where does radio frequency travel? - correct answer Near the surface of the center conductor Attenuation is the signal loss caused b... [Show More] y cable length. It is measured in what unit? - correct answer dB The length of coaxial cable is directly proportional to the ____________ that will be suffered in the signal strength. - correct answer Loss What is the base temperature used in cable attenuation charts? - correct answer68 Degrees F 100% ________ would make the best dielectric due to its non conductive properties. - correct answer Plastic Your hardhat protects you from - correct answer Impact - Penetration - Electric Shock Which standard is imprinted on glasses or goggles that meet safety requirements? - correct answer ANSI Standard Z87.1-2010 Which items of PPE do you need under normal working conditions ( not climbing ) ? - correct answer Hard hat, Safety glasses, Safety vest, FVD, and gloves Which items of PPE would you need when working aloft on a ladder? - correct answer Hard hat, Safety glasses, FVD, Long-sleeved shirt, Gloves, Body belt, Positioning strap, and Linemans boots What happens to leather when it is dried too fast in excessive heat? - correct answer The leather curls and cracks How do you measure for proper "D" size on a padded body belt? - correct answer Measure hipbone to hipbone plus 2 Once at the working height , pass the positioning strap around the pole and engage the single-sided end on the D-ring with the mouth of the snap hook _________ . - correct answer inward Always verify visually that the snap hook had engaged the _________________ . - correct answer D - Ring You must document your monthly PPE inspection on the applicable inspection form. - correct answer True What type of safety vest is required? - correct answer Type 3 What is the minimum clearance of CATV cable from power at the pole? - correct answer40" What are the three indicators on the FVD? - correct answer10 step bar graph, Audible tone, and power indicator LED To use the FVD, after the self test process continue to hold pressure on the power switch and move the FVD: - correct answer Toward the object you want to test To replace the battery of the FVD, use this tool to pry the cover off the back of the device: - correct answer Small screwdriver The FVD is only a voltage detector and is not intended to be a precision measuring device. What other senses would you use as an additional safety check? - correct answer Sight, Sound, and Smell To determine if capacitive coupling is causing a hazardous voltage indication, you should provide a temporary path to _____________ for your body to remove the voltage caused be the e-field to the power line. - correct answer Ground Indications of high current include: - correct answer Charring or melting wires, Smoke, and Water damage Metal buildings and mobile homes should normally indicate voltage is present when teste. - correct answer False How many times should you test a cyclic device, such as a traffic light support strand? - correct answer One complete cycle When you ground yourself, the FVD should continue to indicate a hazardous voltage. When the ground cord is released, the voltage will no longer be detected. - correct answer FA [Show Less]
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SPECTRUM FTT WEEKS 1-3 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.
Your hard hat is intended to protect you from which of the following? - correct answer Impact, penetration, and electric shock Which standard is imprint... [Show More] ed on glasses or goggles that meet safety requirements? - correct answer ANSI Standard Z87.1-2010 Which items of PPE do you need under normal working conditions (not climbing)? - correct answer Hard hat, safety glasses, safety vest, FVD, and gloves Which items of PPE would you need when working aloft on a ladder? - correct answer Hard hat, safety glasses, FVD, long-sleeved shirt, gloves, body belt, positioning strap, and lineman's boots What happens to leather when it is dried too fast in excessive heat? - correct answer The leather curls and cracks How do you measure for proper "D" size on a padded body belt? - correct answer Measure hipbone to hipbone plus 2" Once at the working height, pass the positioning strap around the pole and engage the single-sided end on the D-Ring with the mouth of the snap hook _____________. - correct answer Outward Always verify visually that the snap hook has engaged the __________________. - correct answer D-Ring You must document your monthly PPE inspection on the applicable inspection form. - correct answer True What type of safety vest is required? - correct answer Class 3 What is the minimum clearance of CATV cable from power at the pole? - correct answer40 inches What are the three indicators on the FVD? - correct answer10-step bar graph, audible tone, and power indicator LED To use the FVD, after the self-test process, continue to hold pressure on the power switch and move the FVD: - correct answer Toward the object you want to test To replace the battery of the FVD, use this tool to pry the cover off the back of the device: - correct answer Putty knife, coin or, small screwdriver The FVD is only a voltage detector and is not intended to be a precision measuring device. What other senses would you use as an additional safety check? - correct answer Sight, sound, and smell To determine if capacitive coupling is causing a hazardous voltage indication, you should provide a temporary path to __________ for your body to remove the voltage caused by the e-field of the power line. - correct answer Ground Indications of high current include - correct answer Charring or melting of wires, and smoke Metal buildings and mobile homes should normally indicate voltage is present when tested. - correct answer False How many times should you test a cyclic device, such as a traffic light support strand? - correct answer Three complete cycles When you ground yourself, the FVD should continue to indicate a hazardous voltage. When the ground cord is released, the voltage will no longer be detected. - correct answer False Body Belt - correct answer Worn low on the hips Eye Protection - correct answer Wrap-around style provides side protection Hard Hat - correct answer Prevents injury from electrical hazards Safety Vest - correct answer Class III with reflective striping Positioning Strap - correct answer Double-locking keepers What is a breakaway clip used for? - correct answer Haul cable or rope to the working height 9" Side Cutting Pliers - correct answer Cuts RG-6 and RG-11 drop cables Bell-Hanger Wood Bit - correct answer Equipped with a hole used to pull the cable through Locking Terminator Tool - correct answer Spring loaded action allows various brands to be installed or removed 7/16" Open-end Torque Wrench - correct answer Properly tightens 'F' connector fittings Can Wrench - correct answer Combination 3/8" and 7/16" socket Which two tools are used to assist in routing aerial drop cables over outdoor obstacles? - correct answer Lay Up Sticks Set, and Throwing Weights House Box - correct answer Mount the ground block to this 2-way Splitter - correct answer Divides forward RF into two equal output RG-6 Messenger Cable - correct answer For aerial runs of up to 150' J-Hook - correct answer Hammered into a wooden pole RCA Composite Cable - correct answer Passes baseband audio and video between devices The P-Hook is designed to tie no more than ___ aerial drop(s) to the structure - correct answer1 What are primary functions of an SLM? - correct answer Measure broadband RF signal levels, and measure DC or splitter attenuation loss All SLM devices have the same operating controls? - correct answer False To accurately measure the power of a digital signal, you must measure the _________ power of all frequencies in the channel. - correct answer Peak What electrical values do most DMMs measure? - correct answer Voltage and resistance Feet - correct answer Keep the ladder from sliding Fly - correct answer Locks the extension section Pawl - correct answer The upper backbone extension Duty Rating - correct answer Label identifying the ladder grade and type When should a ladder be inspected thoroughly? - correct answer Before first use and each day, any time defects are suspected, and when it is new When carrying a ladder more than 100 feet in windy conditions or over unstable/slippery ground, which carrying method should you use? - correct answer Horizontal carry on the hip When setting up an extension ladder against a building, which is the correct height lean ratio listed below for the 4 to 1 rule? - correct answer Height 20', Lean 5' To properly place a ladder leaning against a strand, what is the proper adjustment for the strand hooks? - correct answer Engaged, turned toward the wide side of the ladder, away from you Which step from the top of a step ladders or rung from the top of an extension ladders should you not stand above? - correct answer2nd step/4th rung A properly racked ladder should be visible from the driver's seat and should not protrude? - correct answer More than two feet or less from the rear of the truck Which preferred ladders are non-conductive and corrosion resistant? - correct answer Fiberglass Which check is the best way to test a pole below ground level? - correct answer Prod It is safe to descend a ladder with your back to the ladder. - correct answer False ___________ is a frequency-tuned voltmeter used to measure signal levels, or power, at different channel frequencies. - correct answer SLM Analog channels signal levels should be _____________ higher than digital channel signal levels. - correct answer6 to 10 dB DOCSIS downstream should be within _______ to allow for sufficient margin at the cable modem. - correct answer-12 dBmV to +12 dBmV The CNR of a video carrier is defined by measuring the video carrier and measuring to the _____________. - correct answer Noise floor What is the NTSC channel bandwidth? - correct answer6 MHz What is the name of the DSAM test that can detect and display ingress that has entered the drop or home wiring system? - correct answer Ingress Resistance When troubleshooting the drop system using Ingress Resistance, where is the advised location to begin? - correct answer At the tap end of the drop What do DQI readings of 0 to 5 indicate? - correct answer Subscriber’s service being adversely affected by impairments Ingress Scan detects and displays ingress in which frequency range? - correct answer4 MHz to 42 MHz Full scan DSAM results can be displayed in which two formats to see the channel numbers, video carrier levels, and analog video to audio deltas? - correct answer Graph and Table Absolute power is the actual power level of a ______________. - correct answer Carrier CNR stands for _______________. - correct answer Carrier to noise ratio Charter's specification for hum is _______. - correct answer< 3% When does Max Jitter occur? - correct answer When packets of data reach their destination out of order, resulting in a jerky or jumbled playback When using the Viavi One Check device, where can Ingress be tested? - correct answer At the Tap and ground block Hum must be tested using a non-scrambled analog channel. - correct answer True The Viavi OneCheck test can be performed at which location(s)? - correct answer At the tap, ground Block and, CPE The Viavi OneCheck test doubles overall test time when compared to other SLMs. - correct answer False Which of the following is not recommended when conveying energy and confidence to a customer or non-sub? - correct answer Speaking slightly louder than normal You should address the customer by their first name to promote a causal, relaxed relationship. - correct answer False True or false? Is this a statement of confidence? "I don't think that will be a problem." - correct answer True Which of the following make up the three A's? - correct answer Acknowledge, answer, and act True or false? Is using a lot of hand gestures an advised way to mange your reactions to an angry customer? - correct answer False Lowering your voice tends to cause a calming effect on customers because they will often lower their voice to match yours. - correct answer True What is inflection? - correct answer The highs and lows in the pitch of your voice. Emotions are contagious. - correct answer True True or false? Is this a statement of clarifying a customer's problem? "What I heard you say is... Is that correct?" - correct answer True Forming partnerships with the customer and letting them know you are their advocate and not adversary is important. - correct answer True Cable trespassing can occur in either underground or aerial construction. - correct answer True The fascia board by itself is usually strong enough to support a P-Hook, do not attempt to screw the hook into a lookout. - correct answer False All aerial installations use flooded cable. - correct answer False What are the guidelines that are used when splicing cables? - correct answer Use a maximum of two splices between the tap and bonding demarcation, and use approved compression fitting and weatherproofing seals. J-Hooks are often used at jump poles and span clamps are used at steel stranded messenger. - correct answer True Before proceeding inside of the house to install the customers equipment, check the signal levels. If the proper levels aren't present, [Show Less]
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NEW HIRE WEEKS 2-8 EXAM WITH ANSWERS
Proper Body Belt Positioning - correct answer Low on the hips Most common time to injure your back - correct answer Lifting and Carrying Ladders Reas... [Show More] ons we use fiberglass ladders - correct answer on-conductive rails, durable, corrosion resistant Activities to maintain an extension ladder - correct answer Inspect the ladder, lubricate moving parts, remove from service if necessary Inspection of the pole - correct answer Visual, FVD, Sound/Hammer, Prod Distance between brand mark and bottom of pole if pole is less than 55 feet - correct answer10 feet Proper belt off technique at the strand - correct answer Safety strap must go under both the strand and the V-rung Culture of Interdependence - correct answer Safety is the responsibility of employees, supervisors, and managers Technician Safety Responsibilities - correct answer Use PPE as required, report unsafe conditions, follow manufacturer recommendations SAFE - correct answer Stop, Assess, Focus, Eliminate Daily Tasks Requiring FVD testing - correct answer bonding to service ground, wall fishing with fish tape, opening a metal enclosure Phone Ring Voltage - correct answer90 VAC Phone On Hook Voltage - correct answer-48 VDC Proper belt off technique at pole - correct answer Belt goes inside ladder rails on either side of the pole Ways to protect yourself and others from electrical hazards - correct answer Proper bonding, use of FVD, maintain proper clearances Neutral Conductor - correct answer Protects against injury or damage, grounded at electrical service entrance Safe Climbing Area at Pole - correct answer30 inch unobstructed space around pole Clearance between power and cable at the pole - correct answer40 inches Electrical "hot" wires - correct answer Black, Red, Blue Next Step If Cable Looks Like It Was Overheated - correct answer Test with foreign voltage detector Condition Requiring Immediate Exit and Call to Supervisor - correct answer Frayed electrical wires/exposed electrical conductors in attic Breakaway clip - correct answer Safely holds a drop cable or hand line while climbing a ladder Safety Triangle - correct answer Knowledge, Attitude, Proper Technique Lineman's boots - correct answer PPE that must be worn at all times while working A/C Voltage - correct answer The only type of voltage an FVD can detect 3 X 5 Test for brakes - correct answer Pump Break Pedal 3 times and hold it for 5 seconds Space + Visibility = - correct answer Time What is your safety perimeter? - correct answer360 degree safety space cushion around your vehicle Culture Interdependence - correct answer Employees, supervisors, and managers taking responsibility for their safety and the safety of others PPE - correct answer Personal Protective Equipment What is the SAFE Method? - correct answer Stop, Assess, Focus, and Eliminate both real and potential workplace hazards OSHA - correct answer Occupational Safety and Health Administration Resistor - correct answerA passive, two-terminal material that impedes the flow of current DMM - correct answerDigital multimeter Foreign Voltage Detector (FVD) - correct answerA small, lightweight device that detects and warns you of potentially dangerous voltage Approach distance for a power line carrying between 300 and 750 V - correct answer12 inches Minimum approach distance for a power line carrying over 2 kV - correct answer24 inches Minimum clearance from CATV Cable from power at the pole - correct answer40 inches Minimum clearance from CATV Cable from power at the house - correct answer12 inches Required minimum safe climbing space on the pole - correct answer30 inches Hot wires in home wiring are normally colored ____ and ground wires are - correct answerBlack/Green Service Ground - correct answerThis type of ground is designed to protect machines, tools, and insulation against damage Equipment Ground - correct answerProvides another path from the tool or machine through which the current can flow to the ground. City Driving 12- 15 second eye lead time distance - correct answer1 to 1/2 blocks 45 degree eye scan - correct answerScans in front of vehicle from sidewalk to sidewalk When Passing or changing lanes what should you do to check the traffic coming behind you? - correct answerCheck Rear View and Side Mirrors, then turn head 90 degrees to look over your shoulder Rule for determining proper following distance - correct answerthe 3-4 second rule Break Type requiring steady firm pressure when breaking hard - correct answerABS brakes Rear Tire Rule - correct answerWhen Stopped behind a vehicle you should be able to see the rear tires of the front vehicle touching the ground Most Important rule to remember concerning right of ways - correct answerDon't assume or demand the right of way Direct Current - correct answerThe Flow of electrical Charge in only one direction Conductor purpose - correct answerMoves electrical Charges Arc - correct answera hazardous condition when current "jumps" from one conductor to another Foreign Voltage Detector - correct answera small lightweight non contact device that detects potentially dangerous voltage approach distance for a power line carrying between 300 and 750 V - correct answer12 inches minimum approach distance for a power line carrying over 2 kV - correct answer24 inches minimum clearance from CATV Cable from power at the pole - correct answer40 inches minimum clearance from CATV Cable from power at the house - correct answer12 inches minimum drop vertical clearance of CATV cable from power at the mid-span - correct answer24 inches required minimum climbing space on the pole - correct answer30 inches GFCI - correct answersafety device that interrupts current with 1/40 of a second in the event of a ground fault Fuses - correct answerDesigned to melt when too much current flows through them ANSI Standard Z87.1 - correct answerRequired Standard for Safety Glasses Hard Hat - correct answerGood for 5 years from manufacturing date Safety Vest - correct answerClass 3 & required replace when reflectivity wears down Climbing Belt - correct answerShould fit snug, with D rings about one inch from hip bones Gloves - correct answerOne piece of leather on the palm, no holes, enclosed fingers, and must cover the wrist Safety Strap - correct answerMust be adjusted depending on if you are climbing a pole or a ladder Lineman's Boots - correct answerSteel toe, Steel Shank, 1 inch heel, electrical rating Frequency of PPE Inspections - correct answerEvery time you use it, daily, and annually with your supervisor Alternating Current - correct answerFlow of electric charge that periodically reverses direction Insulators - correct answerprotect us from shock, fires, and short circuits Passive Device - correct answerany device not needing power Active Device - correct answerany device requiring power Ohm's Law - correct answerdefines relationship between voltage current and resistance Voltage - correct answerCurrent X Resistance Current - correct answerVoltage / Resistance Resistance - correct answerVoltage / Current Potential Difference/Voltage - correct answerWhat moves electrical Charges Rails - correct answerSides of the ladder, hold it all together Pawls aka flipper - correct answerUsed to lock the fly side of the ladder to the base side How to determine safe reaching height for Extension ladders - correct answerLadder Height - 1 foot how to determine safe reaching height for step ladders - correct answerLadder Height + 4 Feet B tag or brand on a pole - correct answersignifies a defective pole not requiring immediate replacement C Tag or brand on pole - correct answerDefective, dangerous pole in need of immediate replacement Cable Locator - correct answerFinds the depth of a buried cable and identifies the path a buried cable is taking Next step if receptacle tester identifies a wiring issue - correct answerStop, inform supervisor and customer of the situation Line toner - correct answerIdentify which interior wire goes to which room Only location you will NOT torque an F-connector - correct answerThe back of the CPE Security Shield Tool - correct answerUsed to connect drop cables to tap ports through port shields Fish Tape - correct answerThin metal rod used to pull wire, typically comes in lengths greater than 25' Punch Down Tool - correct answerUsed for inserting wire into insulation-displacement connectors on certain types of blocks, patch panels, keystone modules, and surface mount boxes Banjo Adapter - correct answerCan quickly adapt a butt set to a phone line MER - correct answerDigital Representation of Noise BER - correct answerNumber of Wrong Bits over the total number of Bits Transmit - correct answerCommunication from the CPE traveling back to the Headend Fly Section - correct answerPart of the ladder that moves Base Section - correct answerStationary side of the ladder Rail Guide - correct answerKeeps the fly and Base sections together at the top of the ladder V-Rung - correct answerRung which will rest on the pole Rung Lock Assembly - correct answerComponent which will lock the fly section and keep it from moving down Strand Hooks - correct answerComponent which will be used to set the ladder on the strand L Sticker - correct answerSticker showing 4:1 ratio Check Duty Rating - correct answerSticker showing weight limit Inspection Sticker - correct answerDate of last yearly inspection from outside vendor Rungs - correct answerComponent of the ladder you stand on DC Loop Resistance - correct answerFormula for determining drop length DC Loop Resistance Formula - correct answerMeasured Resistance/ (Loop Resistance/1000)= Drop Loss Formula - correct answerCable Length / 100 X Loss Per 100' Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-6 at 750 MHz - correct answer6 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-6 at 550 MHz - correct answer5 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-6 at 55 MHz - correct answer2 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-6 at 5 MHz - correct answer1 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-11 at 750 MHz - correct answer4 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-11 at 550 MHz - correct answer3 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-11 at 55 MHz - correct answer1 dB Attenuation over 100 Feet of RG-11 at 5 MHz - correct answer0.5 dB Ingress Scan Frequency Range - correct answer2-42 MHz (return carriers) Ingress Resistance Frequency Range - correct answer88-108 MHz (FM Band) SNR - correct answerComparison of Signal Strength to background noise Number of Analog Channels that fit into 6 MHz of space - correct answer1 Number of SD Channels that fit into 6 MHz of space - correct answer8-12 Number of HD Channels that fit into 6 MHz of space - correct answer2 FVD - correct answerForeign Voltage Detector E-field - correct answerCreates a False Positive for Foreign Voltage dB - correct answerDecibel, a relative measurement, the amount signal changes dBmV - correct answerDecibel per millivolt, an absolute measurement, how much signal you have Resistance of our Cable - correct answer75 Ohms Minimum Distance between Cable Drop and Phone Drop - correct answer4" Mandatory Clearance for drop crossing the street - correct answer18' How deep should underground cable be buried? - correct answer12" to 18" [Show Less]
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FIELD TECH 2-3 FINAL EXAM WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS 2023
What is unique about WDM - PON ? - correct answerWDM-PON deployed in a greenfield system allows each subscriber to get their own designated wavelength. ... [Show More] What is the main benefit of deploying WDM technology? - correct answerIt will increase the capacity of the existing fiber networks tenfold without adding any more fiber. How are optical splitters used in the forward path? - correct answerAs passive branching devices that divide an optical signal across multiple output fibers. What is the purpose of a fiber demarcation box? - correct answerIt provides a safe place to splice, split, distribute, store, and cross-connect fiber optics. What is the purpose of the MST? - correct answerIt provides access to connect fiber-optic cable drops from the customer premises to the network. What is the one main function of the FDH? - correct answerThe FDH provides effective fiber management by grouping splitters into local serving areas Which PON element uses patch panels? - correct answerODN Which type of fiber topology used in a PON places the PON splitters at the headend while providing one designated fiber for every customer premise? - correct answerHome-Run What are the three categories of the fiber-optic cable used to identify the location of the fiber in the network? - correct answerTrunk, branch, and drop. What is the difference between the FTTN and FTTC topologies? - correct answerAn FTC is allowed a smaller number of RF amplifiers between the optical fiber and the customer premises. What is the purpose of the SDU? - correct answerIt provides surge protection, a test jack, circuit protection, wiring management, and fiber termination. What are the advantages of loose buffer tube fiber? - correct answerIt offers the best protection for the fibers under high pulling tension and moisture with its fiber-coated gel. What is an ONU/ONT? - correct answerIt is a device that converts light from fiber to RF for coaxial distribution into the home. What are the characteristics of ITU-T G.657 BIF? - correct answerIt is flexible for installation in small spaces and has a small bend radius of 7.5 mm or 10 mm. What le true about using a premade fiber-optic pigtail for splicing to patch panels or terminal equipment? - correct answerIt is faster and more rellable than installing eonnectors in the field. What is the proper way to handle fiber once it is spliced? - correct answerAt the heat-shrink protective sleeve that has a steel bar inside it. What is the purpose of the ground block? - correct answerTo protect fragile electronics like TV's and STBs from damaging lightning strikes and power surges. In a PON FTTx network, which OSP device contains fiber test points that will minimize service disruption to customers? - correct answerFDH (Fiber Distribution Hub) What parameter is critical in an OTDR when testing a PON with significant splitters losses? - correct answerHigh Dynamic Range What is the best approach to repairing an aerial fiber-optic drop cable for FTTx applications? - correct answerReplace the entire section of fiber drop cable. (-25) + (42) + (-62) + (20) =? - correct answer-25 (17) x (-19) =? - correct answer-323 -17-(-34)=？ - correct answer17 -49 ÷ -7? - correct answer7 (20) ÷ (-4) + (-2) x (-10) - (-2) x (7) =? - correct answer29 3 6/9 + 6 1/3 + 9 5/9= - correct answer19 5/9 7 3/8 ÷7 1/4= - correct answer1. 1/58 8.13 X 0.123 =? - correct answer0.99999 0.5349 ÷ 0.1420? - correct answer3.7669014 67.84 + 81.786 + 4281.98 = ? - correct answer4,431.606 0.00004= ——- × 10 to the power of ——? - correct answer4,-5 What is the square of 7? - correct answer49 Which of the statements is true of axioms? - correct answerWhen A = C and B = C, then A = B because both are equal to C, which supports the axiom: Quantities equal to the same quantity are equal to each other. Simplify and solve the equation: If E = IR, then | =? - correct answerE/R What is the square root of 81? - correct answer9 0.00004= —— × 10 to the power of —— ? - correct answer4,-4 (83 × 10^ 6) + (27 × 10^7) = ? - correct answer353 × 10^6 (480 × 10^-5) divided by (60 x 10^-3) = ? - correct answer8 × 10^-2 (250 x 10^-6) - (7 x 10^-5) = ? - correct answer180 x 10^-6 (75 × 10^3) + (25 x 10^4) =? - correct answer32.5 x 10^4 (10 x 103) + (26 x 104) = ? - correct answer270 x 10^3 Why should you take the time to take notes and accurately record data at each job location? - correct answerNotes and recorded data are tools that can help you accurately remember events at a site that can help you determine a plan of action or evaluate the decisions you made. You are at a customer's home, and you are asking the customer whether the problem is intermittent or constant. Which steps are you using from the six-step troubleshooting process? - correct answerIdentify the problem Which technique can be useful in helping others understand your emotional state and in providing them with direction around how to help you restore balance? - correct answerFeel, Felt, Found technique. Which of the following best describes stereotyped thinking? - correct answerPresuming that all members of a group have certain characteristics. The attribute of being "active" as a critical thinker means - correct answerYou observe and take notes relevant to the issue. It is essential to pay attention to warning signs of stress overload. Poor attitude is one of the behaviors that may indicate that you are overstressed. What are the symptoms of poor attitude behavior? - correct answerA significant change in attitude with a noticeable movement toward negative, hostile, cynical, or paranoid thoughts You are at a customer's home, and you believe you have solved the problem. When you check to ensure the resolution did not introduce any new problems, which step are you using from the six-step troubleshooting process? - correct answerVerify the solution To break the habit of a negative self-talk cycle - correct answerTell yourself "not now" and move onto a positive thought whenever negative thoughts occur. By taking control of the expectations you have, you are - correct answerMore likely to improve your motivation and be a better problem solver. Which of the following statements describes creative problem-solving? - correct answerThinking outside of the box and looking at problems from a fresh perspective. What is done to ensure equal power in all channels in a network with analog and digital modulation channels? - correct answerOperate the analog TV channels at higher amplitude level than the QAM channels What does a set-top box (STB) diagnostic page of a quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) channel showing signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) near or below 30 dB indicate? - correct answerThe QAM channel quality is on the edge for reliable reception, and the source of the problem is likely in the distribution network or customer premises. Which of the following characterizes the successful troubleshooter? - correct answerSomeone with an inquisitive and relentless desire to solve and fix problems. What must a technician be aware of when analyzing a digital TV (DTV) problem? - correct answerThere is frequently more than one contributor to a specific DTV service problem. After a digital TV (DTV) service problem has been analyzed and possible causes considered, what is accomplished by isolating the various network elements? - correct answerIt narrows the scope of likely problem sources. During which step of the six-step troubleshooting process for a digital TV (DTV) service problem are quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) channel measurements typically taken? - correct answerDiagnosing symptoms. When replacing a splitter to resolve a digital TV (DTV) service problem, what does confirming the splitter output levels before attaching the output connectors do? - correct answerConfirmation reinforces the technician's confidence that the problem will be resolved by replacing the splitter. Which of the following digital TV (DTV) trouble calls could have been avoided with customer education about the product? - correct answerThe digital set-top box (STB) overheats. When troubleshooting a digital TV (DTV) authorization issue, what can be verified using the set-top box (STB) diagnostic page? - correct answerSTB reception of authorization message data. Which type of set-top box (STB) operates more like Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) cable modems with return channels on the same frequencies used for cable modems? - correct answerSTB with DOCSIS Set-top Gateway (DSG) client software and embedded DOCSIS modems. How does IP multicast differ from IP broadcast? - correct answerIP multicast traffic is only sent to specific modem addresses on the network; IP broadcast traffic is sent to all modems on the network. What layers of the OSI reference model are specific to cable networks and are present onlv between DOCSIS modems and the CMTS? - correct answerLayers 1 through 4 (Physical layer, Data Link Layer, Network Layer, and Transport Laver) are applied between the DOCSIS modem and CMTS. Which DOCSIS layer is used by the CMTS to differentiate between cable modems? - correct answerThe Docsis MAC layer What was introduced in DOCSIS 3.0 to allow enough bandwidth for upstream carriers from previous DOCSIS versions? - correct answerThe option to increase the top frequency of the upstream to 85 MHZ. In a DOCSIS network, why is the data throughput over the return or upstream path typically less than the throughput of data over the forward or downstream path? - correct answerCompared to the downstream path, the narrower bandwidths and lower orders of modulation used to transport data over the return path cause the downstream and upstream data throughput to be unequal or asymmetrical. What would be the downstream throughput if two QAM channels with a throughput of 38 Mbps were bonded? - correct answer76 Mbps. What are two features that were added in DOCSIS 3.1 to extend the viability of HFC networks into the next decade? - correct answerOFDM and LDPC. Which step in the troubleshooting process requires a discussion with the customer to gather more detail about the problem? - correct answerStep 1: Identify the problem. When analyzing a problem, what can the technician learn by asking the customer to show or demonstrate the problem? - correct answerThe symptoms of the problem can be viewed and any unusual screens or customer entries can be identified. When using a digital signal analyzer to troubleshoot data throughput im the DOCSIS network, what is the minimum MER into the cable modem for a 256-QAM carrier? - correct answer32 dB or greater How should the digital multimeter (DMM) be used to troubleshoot problems in the telephone wiring? - correct answerUse tie voltmeter fumction, both the network interface device (NID) and the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) provide a steady On-hook voltage. If the telephone wiring is in the bus topology and the twisted-pair cable tester is connected at the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) with the remote unit connected to the last outlet in the loop, what is the quickest way to locate the incorrectly wired outlet if the tester indicates a wiring error? - correct answerBreak the loop into smaller sections and retest the two sections to identify which one has the wiring error. Continue to divide the section with the error into smaller sections until the wiring error is identified. After resolving the problem with the premises wiring issue, which of the following is the next step in the six-step process that the technician should take? - correct answerVerify that the problem has been resolved and that phone service [Show Less]
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FIELD TECH 6 EXAM GRADED A+ WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
Which piece of equipment in the VoIP phone system routes a call to the public switched telephone network (PTSN) when the receiving location is from outside... [Show More] the PacketCable managed IP network? - correct answerGateway What are the three sub-network interfaces managed by PacketCable? - correct answerHybrid fiber/coax (HFC), managed IP, and public switched telephone network (PSTN). Why is PacketCable VoIP a more efficient way of handling calls? - correct answerMost cable operators have built their own IP telephone networks that use Internet Protocol rules. Which of the VoIP service tiers bypass the cable operator's direct link to the public switched telephone network (PSTN) and route packets over the Internet to another telephone company? - correct answerTier II Secondary VoIP. When a call is made from a phone that is on a managed IP phone system to a phone that is outside the managed IP phone system, how does the call get routed to the receiving phone? - correct answerThe gateway down-converts the digital data to an analog electrical signal format and routes the call to the public switched telephone network (PSTN). Because a cable operator will support as many lines as technically possible for a business customer, what does the installer have to do prior to connecting the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA)? - correct answerCheck the RF signal levels on the cable entering the building. When a PBX or key system is involved in a business installation, the installer can set up the embedded multimedia terminal adapters (EMTA) and cable, but what has to happen before the installer can begin connecting the equipment? - correct answerThe customer's PBX and key system technician must arrive at the location. For a business telephone installation, which of the following is the preferred location for the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA)? - correct answerThe main closet. Which of the following is a process that must be followed during a business order installation and differs from a residential order process? - correct answerMaking sure the PBX is tested and is functioning properly. What is the location where the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) is connected to both the outside and inside wiring? - correct answerThe main closet or telecommunications closet. Before a business telephone installation is performed in an office building, who must first approve it? - correct answerThe building owner or management company. This organization is responsible for developing the telecommunications standards that address commercial building cabling for telecom products and services with wiring standards such as T568A and T568B to ensure consistent wiring and service delivery. - correct answerThe Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). When extending wiring into another part of a building becomes necessary, who is responsible for initiating the service? - correct answerThe customer. Who owns and is responsible for the wiring between the small and medium business (SMB) customer's cross-connect block and the cross-connect block installed by the cable operator? - correct answerThe customer. What is the advantage of using a multiple-clip configuration for distribution applications in the 66-block? - correct answerSeveral extensions can have a direct (i.e., home-run) connection to the same network circuit. What organization is responsible for developing telecommunication standards that address commercial building cabling for telecom products and services? - correct answerTelephone Industry Association / Electronic Industry Association (TIA/EIA). According to Telecommunications Industry Association/Electronic Industries Alliance (TIA/EIA) standards, which type of unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cabling is recommended for data-grade applications? - correct answerCategory 5e. Which configuration enables several telephone extensions to have a direct (home-run) connection to the same network circuit? - correct answerA multiple-clip configuration. If it is necessary to run cables from one intermediate distribution frame (IDF) to another, what type of connection block is used? - correct answerM66-150. Grounding and protection are required in two places. One is in the equipment room or telecommunications closet. Where is the other? - correct answerBuilding entrance. When a circuit is cross-connected to a customer's equipment or telephones, it is tagged for identification. Where else are telephone numbers and line positions on the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) noted? - correct answerOn the orange cover of the 66-block. Why is the T568A wiring configuration recommended over the T568B wiring configuration? - correct answerThe T568A configuration is backward compatible with Universal Services Ordering Code (USOC) RJ-XX wiring. Which pins are often not installed in a RJ-11 jack? - correct answerPins 1 and 6. In a T568A wiring scheme for a four-pair connection, which pair uses white/brown for tip and brown/white for ring? - correct answerPair 4. When installing a 66-block, which mounting guidelines should be followed? - correct answerA mount support bracket (also called a stand-off bracket) should be installed to help provide needed clearances. What is a main distribution frame? - correct answerA wiring arrangement that connects outside and internal telephone lines. What is the maximum pulling tension for a four-pair unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) CAT-5e cable? - correct answer25 lbs. When running unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable, it is critical that - correct answerThe minimum bend radius be maintained to no less than 4 times the outside diameter. If a 66-block has a green cover, what does that designate? - correct answerNetwork connections. What code covers the installation of station jacks? - correct answerUniversal Service Ordering Code (USOC). Which tool is used to force down a twisted pair conductor in an insulation displacement connector (IDC) termination? - correct answerPunch down tool. When stripping unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable, what is one factor that must be taken into account to ensure proper stripping? - correct answerJacket thickness varies because of flame rating and manufacturer. The IDEAL Pathfinder Tester is made up of: - correct answerOne main unit and up to four remote modules. One of the functions of the IW (inside wire) cable tester is to: - correct answerTest line cords that connect the customer premises equipment (CPE) to modular data and telephone jacks. When using a twisted-pair cable tester, a green condition means: - correct answerContinuity exists throughout the circuit pair without faults. A wire map field cable tester can include a time domain reflectometer (TDR) to determine the distance to any breaks, shorts, or missed wires. In what situations can the tester be used? - correct answerIt is used to certify structured wiring in commercial buildings and can be used to verify inside wire (IW) in residential settings. Which of the following best describes how a wiremap tester checks pin-to-pin continuity? - correct answerA wiremap includes one unit that injects a signal at one end of the cable and a second unit that checks the signal at the other end. What causes unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable to come in a variety of thicknesses? - correct answerUTP jacket thickness varies because of flame rating and manufacturer. The terminator tool is used to: - correct answerGive new service or take away service to a customer. Which tool is used to tighten "F" connectors securely? - correct answer7/16 inch wrench Which of the following features are normally part of a PBX system? - correct answerCall forwarding, call waiting, speed dialing. Which key system architecture enables individual telephone sets that do not require any single shared-control unit? - correct answerIndependent keysets. Which type of telephone system allows a company to have a single phone number reach all employees even though they reside in different geographical locations? - correct answerHosted PBX. Which telephone system is characterized by dual tone multi-frequency (DTMF) tones being transmitted to the central office? - correct answerTraditional. Which phone system generates dial tone at the central office? - correct answerTraditional. What is the maximum number of hunt groups that can be set up for a business IP voice account? - correct answerThree. Which of the following is a feature of a PBX? - correct answerEach phone is addressable. Which telephone system allows one extension to ring in multiple locations, either at the same time or in sequence? - correct answerHosted PBX. What is the most common digital standard for fixed telephony devices? - correct answerIntegrated services digital network (ISDN). When a business has automatic call distribution on its telephone system, what do callers hear? - correct answerCallers are greeted with an automated message that notifies them that they will be on hold until someone is available. How are indoor EMTA units normally powered? - correct answerWith a 110-volt alternating current (VAC) power source with battery backup. Once power has been disconnected at the tap, which of the following represents the proper way to jumper the EMTA for coax power? - correct answerGround to return and coax to supply. Which EMTA powering scheme provides power independent of the cable system and includes a battery backup and telemetry? - correct answerLocal. Which condition causes an EMTA to generate an alternating current (AC) fail alarm? - correct answerLoss of power. Which of the following best describes a media access control (MAC) address? - correct answerA unique 12-digit, alpha-numeric identifier that is burned into the device by the manufacturer to identify it so that IP packets can be routed to it. Which of the following represents a valid MAC address? - correct answer09:00:70:B3:B9:99. Which one of the following is a step to take during the site survey when reviewing the location of all telephones and customer premises equipment (CPE)? - correct answerVerify that all of the telephones are working properly. When confirming work with the customer, if you are asked to make changes to their long-distance carrier, what should you do? - correct answerExplain to the customer that you do not have the authority to make these changes. Before starting a final review with a customer at the end of an installation, what should an installer try to do? - correct answerTalk to the same person that he or she spoke to at the beginning of the installation. Which of the following does an embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) local powering scheme provide? - correct answerTelemetry data about the power operation of the EMTA. To prevent incompatibility between IP telephony and security systems, what should a cable company recommend that a customer do? - correct answerContact the alarm company prior to IP installation to ensure compatibility. There are three specific alarm monitoring concerns related to VoIP installation. Besides incompatibility issues with the in-line seizure module and the loss of electric power, what is the third concern? - correct answerImproper wiring at the installation. What is a primary function of an RJ31X jack? - correct answerIt provides a method for quickly disconnecting an alarm system by unplugging its jumper. What will occur when the jumper is removed from an RJ31X jack? - correct answerThe alarm system will not function properly. [Show Less]
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PROGRESSION FIELD TECH IV - V CONVENTIONAL EXAM WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS 2023
Which of the following is most typical of a broadband network? - correct answerMultiple analog channels What components are common to all computer syste... [Show More] ms? (Check all that apply.) - correct answerProcessor Memory Storage I/O What does I/O stand for? - correct answerInput / Output A NIC is a device used for: - correct answerSignaling A sound card is what general type of computer component? - correct answerInput/output Which of the following is managed by the OS? - correct answerKeyboard input Screen display File I/O Peripheral control The primary purpose of a device driver is to control hardware under the supervision of the OS. True or False? - correct answerTrue Which of the following network topologies forms a closed loop? - correct answerRing topology Which of the following network topologies connects devices to a shared straight-line cable? - correct answerBus topology M1L5 When is UTP cable preferred over STP? - correct answerWhen there is little electrical interference Which connector type is used with Thinnet coaxial cable? - correct answerBNC Which of the following cable types uses a T-connector to connect each NIC to the cable? - correct answerThinnet Which of the following cable types can transmit data farthest? - correct answerFiber optic How are bits represented on fiber optic cable? - correct answerPulses (on/off) of light Which of the following are the two primary types of light sources in fiber optic cables? - correct answerLaser diode and LED What is the main advantage of star topology? - correct answerEase of management Which of the following would not be used in a typical star topology? - correct answerThinnet How many wire pairs can be terminated on a 66 block? - correct answer25 or 50 What makes a crossover cable different from a patch cord? - correct answerA crossover cable uses the 568A pattern on one jack, and the 568B pattern on the other. A patch cord uses the same pinout pattern on both jacks. What is the key reason that smart LAN administrators demand well-made cable connections? - correct answerBad cable connections degrade a network's performance. What is the main advantage of using balanced signaling on a serial cable? - correct answerThe cable can be longer because balanced signaling is less vulnerable to interference. What term describes the number of wave crests that pass a fixed point during a particular period of time? - correct answerFrequency In data networking, this term is defined as "Signals may flow in either direction, but not simultaneously". - correct answerHalf-duplex Two CPUs have the same size data bus. Which one will process data faster? - correct answerThe one with a higher clock speed This unique ID number is coordinated by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers and is used by only one network interface card anywhere in the world. - correct answerMedia access control address (MAC) Which is a network management and utility software that is typically used by network administrators and information systems personnel when the network is unused or lightly used, often in the middle of the night? - correct answerBackup and recovery utilities Which of the following is also called "Thicknet" or "yellow wire" and includes two layers of foil shielding as well as an additional copper mesh shield? - correct answer10Base5 cable According to 10BaseT wiring rules, what is the maximum segment length without a repeater? - correct answer100m When light travels through a fiber-optic cable, the change in refractive index causes the light to refract off which of the following? - correct answerThe boundary between the core and the cladding Which of the following requires a laser transmitter? - correct answerSingle-mode fiber In what part of a building would you typically find punch-down blocks? - correct answerWiring closet Which OSI model layers are concerned primarily with applications? - correct answerThe top three Which layers are primarily concerned with moving raw data? - correct answerThe lower four Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Physical Layer protocol? - correct answerTransmit bits across a physical link Which of the following will not occur at the Physical Layer? - correct answerRerouting of information Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Data Link Layer protocol? - correct answerTransmit frames across a physical link Which of the following hardware devices builds a frame? - correct answerNIC Frame headers and packet headers contain addresses. True or False? - correct answerTrue Which of the following is an example of a Network Layer protocol? - correct answerIP The Network Layer is to packets as the Data Link Layer is to: - correct answerFrames Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Transport Layer protocol? - correct answerTransmit messages from process to process The Transport Layer is not concerned with which of the following? - correct answerNone of the above Which layer uses port numbers for communication? - correct answerTransport Layer The Session Layer is concerned with which of the following? - correct answerManaging dialog Beginning dialog Ending dialog The OSI model Presentation Layer does which of the following? - correct answerManages the way computers read information Encrypts and decrypts information Is concerned with the order of bytes and integers Which activities occur at the Application Layer? - correct answerFile transfer and access email Web browser Encapsulation and protocol headers, decapsulation, and reassembly are three of the four basic techniques used whenever different layers of protocols work together. What is the fourth? - correct answerSegmentation Which type of address is unique anywhere in the world? - correct answerNIC address Which layer of the OSI protocol stack handles frames? - correct answerData Link Which of the following best represents a logical address? - correct answerIPv6 In data networking, ________ describes the characteristics of a transmission link, such as throughput, setup time, or accuracy. - correct answerQuality of service (QoS) Transport layer processes work with transmission channels using multiplexing and ___________ techniques. - correct answerParallelization Which of the following protocols is commonly used in the Session Layer? - correct answerAdvanced Program-to-Program Communications (APPC) What is the binary equivalent to the decimal number "14"? - correct answer0000 1110 Data security, data compression, and ________ are the three main services that the Presentation Layer provides. - correct answerData representation Which of the following is an example of a Transport Layer protocol? - correct answerTransmission Control Protocol (TCP) Ethernet operates at all speeds except which of the following? - correct answer16 Kbps Which of the following is the most popular LAN Data Link Layer technology? - correct answerEthernet An Ethernet LAN that uses UTP cabling and a hub as the physical medium is referred to as which of the following? - correct answerStar The CD in CSMA/CD refers to the ability of an Ethernet node to do which of the following? - correct answerDetect frame collisions The CS in CSMA/CD refers to the ability of an Ethernet node to do which of the following? - correct answerSense an electrical signal Collisions are normal on CSMA/CD LANs and not usually the result of errors. True or False? - correct answerTrue Which of the following is another name for a CO? - correct answerLocal exchange Which of the following is the primary difference between a public and private network? - correct answerWho owns and maintains the network Which of the following WAN services usually provides the highest bandwidth? - correct answerSONET Which of the following is the unit of data transferred by an ATM network? - correct answerCell Why is ATM better for multimedia? - correct answerAll cells are the same size. Cells are small. ATM runs over fast fiber optics. WANs are shifting away from switched services and increasingly using dedicated network services. True or False? - correct answerFalse A frame relay network uses fewer lines to connect 10 locations than a T1 mesh, and is therefore more cost effective. True or False? - correct answerTrue ATM requires fiber media to run. True or False? - correct answerFalse Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is most like which of the following? - correct answerAn informal conversation in which each person speaks when the opportunity presents itself, but only one person speaks at any time The IEEE 802.3 standard defines which of the following? - correct answerEthernet What Fast Ethernet standard can send Ethernet frames at 100 Mbps over Category 5E UTP or fiber optic cabling? - correct answerIEEE 802.3u What enables the transport of computer data over analog telephone local loops? - correct answerTelephone modems. Which of the following describes the bandwidth of a single FT1? - correct answer64 Kbps How much bandwidth in a T1 circuit is allocated for control information? - correct answer8 Kbps. What device is required to attach a non-ISDN device to an ISDN network? - correct answerTerminal adaptor (TA) Which of the following is a connection-oriented packet-switched network service that works at the Data Link Layer? - correct answerFrame relay What is a private, internal network that uses Internet applications, tools, and protocols? - [Show Less]
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FINAL EXAM PROGRESSION FIELD TECH III – IV ANSWERS AVAILABLE
The open system interconnection reference model (OSI/R<) Network layer serves which primary function? - correct answerIt uses layer 3 addresses to create m... [Show More] ultiple routed networks The address 68.56.189.17 belongs to which internet protocol IP class? - correct answerClass A What happens to a datagram sent by a higher level protocol to a 127.x.y.z address? - correct answerThe datagram loops back inside the host and never leaves the network interface card (NIC) Which device evaluates and acts upon a packet's internal protocol (IP) address? - correct answerRouter The network layer must do what to a recieved frame, in order to determine the route over which it will forward the datagram to the next network? - correct answerDecapsulate the packet What network information can be determined from a logical internet protocol (IP) address? - correct answerThe host portion and network portion the physical address of a device is processed by which layer of the open systems interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)? - correct answerThe data link layer Which layer of the open system interconnection reference modle (OSI/RM) would you suspect as being the problem when packets arriving at the server but no information is being returned to the client? - correct answerThe transport layer All computers running on the transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) suite have which of the following in common? - correct answerEach computer is assigned its own internet protocol (IP) address A repeater operates at which layer of the open systems interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)? - correct answerThe physical layer. Which of the following protocols allows email clients to download their messages from an email server? - correct answerPost office protocol version 3 (POP3) Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is what type of protocol? - correct answerStateless On the file transfer protocol (FTP) server, what manages client requests for file retrieval or transmission? - correct answerA daemon What are the primary requirements to connect a transmission control protocol/ internet protocol (TCP/IP) network? - correct answerUnique pairs of network layer and transport layer addresses and use of the TCP/IP protocol suit. What type of delivery method uses an email server between the sender and the receiver of messages? - correct answerStore-and-forward Host names and uniform resource locators (URL) are resolved to internet protocol (IP) addresses by which of the following? - correct answerDomain Name System (DNS) What happens when the browser application finishes the downloading the files necessary to display a web page? - correct answerThe browser server drop the connections, and the browser maintains th epage and its elements in local memory. Which email protocol enables the messages to be viewed without first downloading them from the email server? - correct answerInternet Message AccessPprotocol version 4 (IMAP4) What type of server maintains an access log to assist with troubleshooting and tracking down malicious users? - correct answerFile transfer Protocol Server (FTP) A store and forward email system will not deliver messages until - correct answerThe host requests the information What is the binary equivalent of decimal 136? - correct answer10001000 Convert the internet protocol (IP) address 172.68.10.2 from decimal to binary. - correct answer10101100.01000100.00001010.000000010 Convert the binary internet protocol (IP) address 01110011.11001000.00101100.00000010 to decimal. - correct answer115.200.44.2 Which is the result of ANDing the internet protocol (IP) address 23.176.224.18 with the subnet mask 255.224.0.0? - correct answer23.160.0.0 Which represents the prefix bits for the subnet mask 255.255.0.0 - correct answer/16 if we borrow 3 bits from a class C network address, how many usable subnets have we created? - correct answer8 What isolates an internet protocol (IP) address's network portion from its host portion? - correct answerA network mask What is the best description if the internet protocol (IP) address prefix? - correct answerIt is the shorthand notation for the combined network and subnet mask. In a network mask address, what identifies the network and host portions of the address? - correct answerThe network portion of the net mask is set to all ones, and the host is set to all zeros Why is sub-netting used? - correct answerIt allows network administrators to break up a single network address into smaller network addresses. Which internet protocol (IP) packet fragmentation header field specifies where the fragment belongs in the original data gram? - correct answerFragment offset Which is the internet protocol (IP) header protocol number used to specify that the packets contents were created with transmission control protocol (TCP)? - correct answer6 Which protocol allows a disk-less workstation to contact a sever and obtain an internet protocol address? - correct answerRevers address resolution protocol (RARP) What provides user data gram protocol (UDP) with the ability to demultiplex data for an application? - correct answerA UDP destination port number Which user datagram protocol (UDP) port address enables connection to a device running secure shell? - correct answer22 Which transmission control protocol (TCP) header control bit represents that the message is initiating a connection? - correct answerSYN Which of the following two ports are combined in the transmission control protocol (TCP) header? - correct answerdestination and source You know the logical address of an associates computer on the company's local network and you want to learn the media access control (MAC) address of your associates computer. Which of the following tools could you use? - correct answerAddress resolution protocol (ARP) What is the primary difference between transmission control protocol (TCP) and user datagram protocol (UDP)? - correct answerTCP messages are tracked to ensure they are recieved; UDP messages are sent without tracking. The five stages of (1) obtaining logical addresses, (2) obtaining physical addresses, (3) establishing a connection between applications, (4) the transfer of information, (5) the termination of the connection are necessary to accomplish what? - correct answerThe transfer of information accross a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network Where does the Domain Name System (DNS) namespace begin? - correct answerRoot Domains The maximum Domain Name System (DNS) domain name length is how many bytes? - correct answer255 Zones maintain domain name information in which record type? - correct answerResource records When Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) carries vendor specific options, what tells the client the vendor specific format? - correct answerCodes 128-256 At which point in the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) lease dos the client first attempt to renew its lease? - correct answer50% Which is the correct destination of a user datagram protocol (UDP) port number for a DHCPDISCOVER message? - correct answer67 When network address translation (NAT) uses IP (internet protocol) address translation, it assigns external address to internal devices in which way? - correct answerit assigns the internal address to one of a pool of external addresses Which statement best describes network address translation (NAT) masquerading? - correct answerit hides all internal addresses behind one external address What does the Domain Name Systems (DNS) allow users to do? - correct answerDistinguish between two similar names For Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) , what are the hosts requesting and supplying the configuration parameters called? - correct answerThe client request parameters and the server provides the parameters A router makes its packet forwarding decision based on what information? - correct answerThe routers routing table On which network type is a static route best used? - correct answerstub routing Which network address represents a default route? - correct answer0.0.0.0/0. Which router protocol type shares routing information within the autonomous system (AS)? - correct answerInterior Gateway Protocol (IGP). Distance Vector Algorithms (DVA) operate in wihch manner? - correct answerThey advertise their routing tables directly to directly connected neighbor routers. What can cause routing loops in the flat router architecture? - correct answerThe router receives data packets before it receives routing information, causing the router to generate additional address request messages for routing information What are routers that belong to the same autonomous system (AS) called? - correct answerInterior neighbors What is a benefit of using static routes? - correct answerNo bandwidth usage passing updates between routers. Why are routers known as neighbors or peers? - correct answerbecause they exchange routing information When using multipath routing and multiple routes are available for a single destination address, how does the router make the route section? - correct answerit selects the route with the highest precedence. Which of the following is a characteristic of static routing? - correct answerStatic systems do not operate well in an environment of rapid growth or change. When a client connects to a web browser, the first action is typically media access control (MAC) address resolution. Under what circumstance may address resolution be bypassed? - correct answerWhen the client has recently made a request to the same server Which hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) message request from the client allows it to obtain additional information regarding options and requirements without initiating any actions on the part of the server? - correct answeroptions What are some of the issues that can arise when making a file available for transfer to other users? - correct answerData type, file structure, and transmission mode. What are the common file extensions used to transfer image data in file transfer protocol (FTP)? - correct answerBitmap (.BMP), graphics interchange format (GIF), and joint photography experts group (.JPG or .JPEG) What is the name of the protocol by which management information for a network element can be inspected or altered by a management station? - correct answerSimple network management protocol (SNMP) Why does simple network management protocol (SNMP) use unsolicited messages (traps) from the network elements to poll for appropriate information? - correct answerUsing traps is [Show Less]
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PRACTICE TEST--CABLE TECHNICIAN EXAM 1 WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
Which transmission modes are used to send data between secondary hubs and the headend? - correct answermicrowave, coax, and fiber After the RF signals a... [Show More] re combined into one broadband signal and amplified to the proper level, what must happen to the signal before it can be transmitted over fiber-optic cable? - correct answerThe signal must be converted into light frequencies In a coaxial-only plant, which of the following is true? - correct answerBridger filters are used to block the signal from the feeder system In a hybrid fiber/coax system - correct answerThe trunk is fiber and the feeder and drop systems are coax The primary function of line extenders is to extend signals farther down the feeder line into the service area. As they do this, what do line extenders add to cable signal? - correct answerNoise and distortion Insertion loss - correct answerThe signal loss between the tap's input port and its output port Which of the following receives power from a power distributing tap? - correct answerNetwork interface unit (NIU) A broadband signal whose voltage varies continually over time is? - correct answerAn analog signal When a customer makes a phone call using a CBR network, which of the following is true? - correct answerthe call is carried to the PSTN by the cable system Reverse path signals go from the customer premises to the headend. How are reverse path signals sent to the headend - correct answerreverse path signals travel to the headend on sub-band RF carriers on the coaxial cable, which are converted into digital light signals to travel on the fiber-optic cable Which of the following represents 1,000,000,000 cycles per second - correct answerOne gigahertz The RF spectrum is made up of several bands of frequencies. What is the name of the band located between 216 MHz and 300 MHz? - correct answerSuper-band What happens when a carrier is modulated? - correct answerthe baseband signal changes the carrier signal so it can carry information What is the process of recovering the information from a modulated carrier called? - correct answerDemodulation What is "a measurement of the force or pressure that causes electrons to move"? - correct answerVoltage What is the difference between two carriers, one measure at +3 dBmV and one measured at -8 dBmV? - correct answer11 dB What unit of measure is used to express the difference between two carrier measurements? - correct answerDecibel (dB) According to the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) , what is the minimum signal level for an analog video carrier? - correct answer0 decibel-millivolts (dBmV) Why is it important that the carriers be maintained at proper levels - correct answerto maintain proper carrier-to-noise ratios (C/N) and to limit distortion Which of the following is caused by egress? - correct answerInterference with aeronautical freqencies [Show Less]
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ASSESSMENT TEST WEEK ONE! FOR SPECTRUM 2023
3 tiers of Cable - correct answer Select, Gold and Silver 3 premiums of Silver - correct answer Stars, Encore, TMC How much for modem? - correct answ... [Show More] er$5.00 3 forms of internet? - correct answer Not sure Is Wifi included with Ulta? - correct answer Yes! cable from wall to Equipment? - correct answer Coaxial What Tier of cable is Nick on? - correct answer Gold What channels Would football lover like - correct answer Red zone NFL network Charter name of product - correct answer Spectrum Is NBC a premium - correct answer False 2nd step of call flow process - correct answer Discovery What's the 1st question in discovery - correct answer Who is current provider [Show Less]
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FIELD TECH II - III CONVENTIONAL ASSESSMENT TEST UPDATED 2023
Which of these components is used in a passive optical network (PON)? - correct answerOptical splitters. Which should be used to cut the fiberdrop's buf... [Show More] fer tube? - correct answerA tube cutter What is one reason why broadband cable operators install fiber-optic cable in stages instead of changing the infrastructure all at once? - correct answerChanging the infrastructure all at once would cause too many service disruptions. When a pre-connectorized fiber is not attached to equipment, what should be attached to help keep it clean? - correct answerA dust cap Simplify and solve the equation: If E = IR then I = ? - correct answerE/R (480 x 10 to the power of -5) divided by (60 x 10 to the power of -3) = - correct answer8 x 10 to the power of -2 7 3/8 divided by 7 1/4 = - correct answer1 1/58 (20) / (-4) + (-2) x (-10) - (-2) x (7) = - correct answer29 What should you avoid to prevent stress? - correct answerExcessive caffeine It is essential to pay attention to warning signs of stress overload. Poor attitude is one of the behaviors that may indicate that you are overstressed. What are the symptoms of poor attitude behavior? - correct answerA significant change in attitude with a noticeable movement toward negative, hostile, cynical, or paranoid thoughts During which step of the six-step troubleshooting process for a digital TV (DTV) service problem are quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) channel measurements typically taken? - correct answerDiagnosing symptoms. When troubleshooting a digital TV (DTV) authorization issue, what can be verified using the set-top box (STB) diagnostic page? - correct answerSTB reception of authorization message data. Which of the following is a multicast control protocol between the cable modem and the CMTS that works in harmony with the downstream channel bonding for efficient and extensible support for multicast applications? - correct answerSource-specific multicast (SSM) Which step in the troubleshooting process requires a discussion with the customer to gather more detail about the problem? - correct answerStep 1: Identify the problem. Which of the following wire color combinations make up quad station wire? - correct answerGreen, red, black, yellow A customer reports a problem of no dial tone (NDT). Upon inspection, the technician notices that new carpeting has been installed. What should the technician do next? - correct answerLook for a cable that runs under the carpet; it is likely that the cable has a short from the carpeting tack strip. What uses the 2.4-GHz band and runs at 54 Mbps? - correct answer802.11g What is the last step of the basic wireless access point (WAP) setup? - correct answerApply security. Why are wireless local area networks (WLAN) usually deployed in an access capacity instead of as the network's core layer? - correct answerWLANs are generally incapable of meeting the requirements of the network core layer, which needs to be very fast and stable, able to handle a tremendous amount of traffic with little difficulty, and must experience no down time. Wireless internet service providers (ISP) provide which of one of the following services? - correct answerLast mile data delivery What is a symptom of a high voltage standing wave radio (VSWR) in a radio transmitter? - correct answerhigh voltage standing wave radio How does an antenna create gain in the received signal? - correct answerThe antenna's shape focuses the received signal into a tighter beam A transmitter outputs 100 milliwatts (mW). An antenna cable connects the transmitter to an amplifier, and the power into the amplifier's input measures 50 mW. The amplifier increases the signal to the original transmitter's power level and sends the signal to the antenna. The antenna receives the signal from the amplifier at 75 mW, and then transmits at 150 mW. What is the intentional radiator's (IR) power level in this radio frequency (RF) circuit? - correct answer75 mW Which of the following is an advantage of 802.11b direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) over 802.11 frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS)? - correct answer**Data throughput What is the width of direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) channels and how far apart are their center frequencies spaced? - correct answer22 megahertz (MHz) and 5 MHz. What statement best describes frequency-hopping spread spectrum's (FHSS) use of frequency agility? - correct answerIt refers to a radio's ability to change transmission frequency abruptly within the usable RF frequency band. When a wireless bridge is configured in repeater mode, the range of the wireless segment can be extended at the expense of which of the following? - correct answerThroughput What value does the profile configuration utility in a wireless client device provide the user? - correct answerThe user can configure profiles for each wireless network during the initial configuration of the client device instead of manually reconfiguring all of a wireless client's settings each time the user changes networks What is a half-duplex device that is only capable of Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model Layer 2 connectivity? - correct answerA wireless bridge. As a general rule, how does an increase in effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) relate to the link budget range? - correct answerEach 6 decibels (dB) increase in EIRP equates to a doubling of range. What specification requirements should you consider when selecting an amplifier for a wireless local area network (LAN)? - correct answer Which term describes the RF loss incurred when an item or component is introduced into an RF circuit? - correct answerInsertion loss Which of the Institute of Electronics Engineers (IEEE) wireless LAN standards listed below is the only one that includes infrared technology? - correct answer802.11 Operation as an IEEE 802.11ac device occurs only in the 5 gigahertz (GHz) Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band, so how are 802.11ac devices able to maintain compatibility with earlier standards that operate in the 2.4 GHz Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) radio bands? - correct answerIEEE 802.11ac devices also operate in the 2.4 GHz ISM range. What are some Federal Communications Commission (FCC) regulations within which wireless local area networks (LAN) and devices must operate - correct answer What three levels of security does virtual private network (VPN) technology provide in a wireless local area network (LAN)? - correct answerUser authentication, data encryption, and data authentication [Show Less]
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PROGRESSION FIELD TECH V - VI CONVENTIONAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023-2024
Which concept has enabled Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Networking as a Service (NaaS) offerings? - correct answerThe sep... [Show More] aration of the transport and connectivity from the applications and services running atop the transport. Which piece of equipment in a VoIP (voice over Internet protocol) phone system routes a call to the public switched telephone network (PSTN) when the receiving location is from outside the Packet Cable managed IP network? - correct answerGateway What are the three sub-network interfaces managed by PacketCable? - correct answerHybrid fiber/coax (HFC), managed IP, and public switched telephone network (PSTN). Why is PacketCable VoIP (voice over Internet protocol) a more efficient way of handling calls? - correct answerMost cable operators have built their own IP telephone networks that use Internet protocol rules. Which of the voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) service tiers bypasses the cable operators direct link to the public switched telephone network (PSTN) and routes packets over the Internet to another telephone company? - correct answerTier II Secondary VoIP. When a call is made from a phone that is on a managed IP phone system to a phone that is outside the managed IP phone system, how does the call get routed to the receiving phone? - correct answerThe gateway down-converts the digital data to an analog electrical signal format and routes the call to the public switched telephone network (PSTN). Because a cable operator will support as many lines as technically possible for a business customer, what does the installer have to do prior to connecting the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA)? - correct answerCheck the RF signal levels on the cable entering the building. When a PBX or key system is involved in a business installation, the installer can set up the embedded multimedia terminal adapters ( EMTA ) and cable, but what has to happen before the installer can begin connecting the equipment? - correct answerThe customer's PBX and key system technician must arrive at the location. For a business telephone installation, which of the following is the preferred location for the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA)? - correct answerThe Main Closet Which of the following is a process that must be followed during a business order installation and differs from a residential order process? - correct answerMaking sure the PBX is tested and is functioning properly. What is the location where the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) is connected to both the outside and inside wiring? - correct answerThe main closet or telecommunications closet. Before a business telephone installation is performed in an office building, who must first approve it? - correct answerThe building owner or management company. This organization is responsible for developing the telecommunications standards that address commercial building cabling for telecom products and services with wiring standards such as T568A and T568B to ensure consistent wiring and service delivery. - correct answerThe Telecommunications Industry Association - TIA When extending wiring into another part of a building becomes necessary, who is responsible for initiating the service? - correct answerThe customer. Who owns and is responsible for the wiring between the small and medium business (SMB) customer's cross-connect block and the cross-connect block installed by the cable operator? - correct answerThe customer. What is the advantage of using a multiple-clip configuration for distribution applications in the 66-block? - correct answerSeveral extensions can have a direct (i.e., home-run) connection to the same network circuit. Several extensions can have a direct (i.e., home-run) connection to the same network circuit. - correct answerTelecommunications Industry Association/Electronic Industries Alliance - TIA/EIA According to Telecommunications Industry Association/Electronic Industries Alliance - TIA/EIA standards, which type of unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cabling is recommended for data-grade applications? - correct answerCategory 5e. Which configuration enables several telephone extensions to have a direct (home- run) connection to the same network circuit? - correct answerA multiple-clip configuration. If it is necessary to run cables from one intermediate distribution frame (IDF) to another, what type of connection block is used? - correct answerM66-150. Grounding and protection are required in two places. One is in the equipment room or telecommunications closet. Where is the other? - correct answerThe Building Entrance When a circuit is cross-connected to a customers equipment or telephones, it is tagged for identification. Where else are telephone numbers and line positions on the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) noted? - correct answerOn the orange cover of the 66-block. Why is the T568A wiring configuration recommended over the T568B wiring configuration? - correct answerThe T568A configuration is backward compatible with Universal Services Order Codes (USOC) RJ-XX wiring. Which pins are often not installed in an RJ-11 jack? - correct answerPins 1 and 6. In a T568A wiring scheme for a four-pair connection, which pair uses white/brown for tip and brown/white for ring? - correct answerPair 4 When installing a 66-block, which mounting guidelines should be followed? - correct answerA mount-support bracket ( also called a stand-off bracket ) should be installed to help provide needed clearances. What is a main distribution frame? - correct answerA wiring arrangement that connects outside and internal telephone lines. What is the maximum pulling tension for a four-pair unshielded twisted-pair ( UTP ) CAT-5e cable? - correct answer25 lbs When running unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable, it is critical that - correct answerThe minimum bend radius be maintained to no less than 4 times the outside diameter. If a 66-block has a green cover, what does that designate? - correct answerNetwork connections. What code covers the installation of station jacks? - correct answerUniversal Service Order Codes (USOC). Which tool is used to force down a twisted pair conductor in an insulation displacement connection ( IDC ) termination? - correct answerPunch Down Tool When stripping unshielded twisted-pair - UTP cable, what is one factor that must be taken into account to ensure proper stripping? - correct answerJacket thickness varies due to flame rating and manufacturer. What tool should be used to test the line cords that connect the customer premises equipment (CPE) to modular data and telephone jacks? - correct answerAn inside wire cable tester. One of the functions of the IW (inside wire) cable tester is to: - correct answerTest line cords that connect the customer premises equipment ( CPE ) to modular data and telephone jacks. When using a twisted-pair cable tester, a green condition means - correct answerContinuity exists throughout the circuit pair without faults. A wire-map field cable tester can include a time domain reflectometer - TDR to determine the distance to any breaks, shorts, or missed wires. In what situations can the tester be used? - correct answerIt is used to certify structured wiring in commercial buildings and can be used to verify inside wire ( IW ) in residential settings. Which of the following best describes how a wiremap tester checks pin-to-pin continuity? - correct answerA wiremap includes one unit that injects a signal at one end of the cable and a second unit that checks the signal at the other end. What causes unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable to come in a variety of thicknesses? - correct answerUTP jacket thickness varies due to flame rating and manufacturer. The terminator tool is used to: - correct answerGive new service or take away service to a customer. Which tool is used to tighten & loosen connectors securely? - correct answer7/16-inch wrench When a business changes to a voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) service, which of the following sets of concerns would most businesses find most significant? - correct answerPoor or unreliable telephone service that costs money in lost revenue, whether the cable operator can meet the company's high expectations for service, and whether the new service will save money. Which of the following best describes the importance that business telephone service has for a small- or medium-size business? - correct answerLifeline. Which of the following is an example of performing good customer service during a business telephone installation? - correct answerCalling ahead with an estimated time of arrival. When the installation is complete, all critical features must be tested. Which of the following is one of the critical features? - correct answerCaller ID. At the end of the installation process, when verifying the operation of a modular jack by connecting a customer phone or a test set to the jack, which of the following should be tested? - correct answerInbound call capability. In a multi-tenant building, what should an installer do if the installation requires hammering, drilling, or other loud noises? - correct answerNotify the customer as well as the other tenants in the building. What should one do to avoid disrupting the business operations of a customer who lets an installer into secured work areas? - correct answerAsk for a temporary key or authorization card. During a site survey, what does one do upon learning that the customers telephone system contains complex key system or PBX wiring? - correct answerHave the customer call the key system or PBX vendor directly and schedule their support. In which phase of the business telephony implementation process should complex wiring issues be identified? - correct answerSite Survey What should one do if one of the customer's employees asks for a change in the business's long distance provider? - correct answerTell the employee that, for any changes, they should check with the associate who placed the order. When a business has automatic call distribution on its telephone system, what do callers hear? - correct answerCallers are greeted with an automated message that notifies them that they will be on hold until someone is available. Which of the following is a feature of a PBX? - correct answerEach phone is addressable. What is the maximum number of hunt groups that can be set up for a business IP voice account? - correct answer3 Hunt Groups Which telephone system is characterized by dual tone multi-frequency - DTMF tones being transmitted to the central office? - correct answerTraditional. Which type of telephone system allows a company to have a single phone number reach all employees even though they reside in different geographical locations? - correct answerHosted PBX. Which key system architecture enables individual telephone sets that do not require any single shared-control unit? - correct answerIndependent Key-sets. Which of the following features are normally part of a PBX system? - correct answerCall forwarding, call waiting, speed dialing. How are indoor embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) units normally powered? - correct answerWith a 110-volt alternating current (VAC) power source with battery backup. Once power has been disconnected at the tap, which of the following represents the proper way to jumper the embedded multimedia terminal adapter (EMTA) for coax power? - correct answerGround to return and coax to supply. Which EMTA powering scheme provides power independent of the cable system and includes a battery backup and telemetry? - correct answerLocal power supply unit - LPSU Which condition causes an EMTA to generate an alternating current (AC) fail alarm? - correct answerLoss of power. Which of the following best describes a media access control ( MAC ) address? - correct answerA unique 12-digit, alphanumeric identifier that is burned into the device by the manufacturer to identify it so that IP packets can be routed to it. Which of the following represents a valid media access control (MAC) address? - correct answer09:00:70:B3:B9:99. Which one of the following is a step to take during the site survey when reviewing the location of all telephones and customer premises equipment (CPE)? - correct answerVerify that all of the telephones are working properly. When confirming work with the customer, if you are asked to make changes to their long distance carrier, what should you do? - correct answerExplain to the customer that you do not have the authority to make these changes. [Show Less]
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PROGRESSION FIELD TECH III - IV CONVENTIONAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIEFIED ANSWERS 2023
The Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) Network Layer serves which primary purpose? - correct answerIt uses Layer 3 addresses to create m... [Show More] ultiple routed networks. The address 68.56.189.17 belongs to which Internet protocol (IP) class? - correct answerClass A What happens to a datagram sent by a higher level protocol to a 127.x.y.z address? - correct answerThe datagram loops back inside the host and never leaves the network interface card (NIC). Which device evaluates and acts upon a packet's Internet protocol (IP) address? - correct answerRouter. The Network Layer must do what to a received frame first, in order to determine the route over which it will forward the datagram to the next network? - correct answerDecapsulate the packet. What network information can be determined from a logical Internet protocol (IP) address? - correct answerThe host portion and network portion. The physical address of a device is processed by which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)? - correct answerThe Physical Layer. Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) would you suspect as being the problem when packets are arriving at the server but no information is being returned to the client? - correct answerThe Data Link Layer. All computers running on the transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) suite have which of the following in common? - correct answerEach computer is assigned its own Internet protocol (IP) address. A repeater operates at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)? - correct answerThe Transport Layer. Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) network address allocation mechanism assigns a host a temporary IP address? - correct answerDynamic Which two choices are examples of trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) use? (Choose two.) - correct answerDownload router upgrades. And Software upgrades to IP telephones. How does the Domain Name System (DNS) resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses? - correct answerBy looking up the names in an address mapping database. Which TCP/IP application allows us to transfer files either within a browser or at the command line? - correct answerFile transfer protocol (FTP). Which statement best describes Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)? - correct answerIMAP allows users to scan email headers and choose email messages to download from the email server. To resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to binary IP addresses, resolvers contact which type of TCP/IP application server? - correct answerDomain Name System (DNS). Which protocol allows clients to locate and download IP addressing and configuration information on an automatically renewable (lease) basis? - correct answerDynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP). Which TCP/IP application allows a network user to remotely log on and manipulate a network device? - correct answerTelnet. Which three of the following are Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation mechanisms? (Choose three.) - correct answerAutomatic, Dynamic, Manual Internet email uses which two protocols? (Choose two.) - correct answerSimple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). And Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). If a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client fails to renew its lease at the 50-percent point, what happens next? - correct answerIt attempts to obtain a lease at 87.5-percent lease time. Of the five trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) packet types, which three choices below are TFTP packet types? (Choose three.) - correct answerRead request, Write request, Acknowledgement If you want to locate a previously saved Uniform Resource Locator (URL) so that you can quickly return to it as needed, where on the browser toolbar would you look? - correct answerFavorites What happens when the browser application finishes downloading the files necessary to display a web page? - correct answerThe browser and server drop the connections, and the browser maintains the page and its elements in memory. Which best describes why an hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) server can handle multiple simultaneous connections? - correct answerHTTP is stateless, which means the server has no knowledge of previous connections after they are dropped. For what purpose would you choose to run the Telnet application? - correct answerTo configure a router Which three of the following are common Telnet application uses? (Choose three.) - correct answerConnect to an online database, Connect remotely to run a specific application, Connect to a router for network information Which file transfer protocol (FTP) command allows you to change directories within a file listing? - correct answerCD For what application is file transfer protocol (FTP) an excellent choice? - correct answerTo download large files. A file transfer protocol (FTP) server administrator can control server access in which three ways? (Choose three.) - correct answerMake only portions of the drive visible, Control read and write privileges, Limit file access Which is the best reason to use the file transfer protocol (FTP) application? - correct answerWhen you need to pass large files over a slow connection The file transfer protocol (FTP) server process can run as which two of the following? (Choose two.) - correct answerDaemon, Windows service As a result of issuing the file transfer protocol (FTP) DIR command, each file listing entry begins with a "-"; what does the "-" indicate? - correct answerThe entries are files Which two choices are TCP/IP email protocols? (Choose two.) - correct answerSimple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). , Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP). Which two protocols deliver email directly to the email client? (Choose two.) - correct answerPost Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4). Why does Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) need additional protocols to carry non-text data as attachments? - correct answerSMTP only carries ASCII text characters. Which two of the following are Multpurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME)-supported data types? (Choose two.) - correct answerMoving Picture Experts Group (MPEG). , Graphics interchange format (GIF). How does secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) protect email from forgery and interception? - correct answerIt uses digital signatures and public-key encryption techniques. Your network Help desk calls and asks you to help troubleshoot an email problem. Several users have complained that when they send email messages with attachments, the recipients reply that the attachments are unreadable. The message body is legible, however. You know that your users encode all attachments using Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME). Which is the best solution to this problem? - correct answerContact the recipients, and have them use MIME to decode attachments. Which is a valid email address? - correct answerkdr@ncti.com You are a networking consultant for a major telecommunications firm. They ask you to help them resolve a hacked email problem. It seems that someone is intercepting emails between district offices and inserting pornographic pictures in place of legitimate email attachments. How might you resolve this problem for them? - correct answerImplement Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) encoding on all outbound email attachments. Which two of the following are examples of email programs? (Choose two.) - correct answerMicrosoft Outlook and UNIX Sendmail Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is which type of message delivery system? - correct answerDirect delivery Remote monitoring (RMON) uses which devices, placed on remote network segments, to gather network information? - correct answerProbes. In which two ways does a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent respond to the management station? (Choose two.) - correct answerBy responding to the management station's requests for updated data By trapping information that exceeds a set threshold and forwarding the data to the management station Which two TCP/IP protocols are used for network management? (Choose two.) - correct answerRemote monitoring (RMON). Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). What results from trapping data with an Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent? - correct answerThe managed device alerts the management station of a threshold violation. Which three of the following are devices manageable with simple network management protocol (SNMP)? (Choose three.) - correct answerApplications. Bridges. Routers. Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) protocol data unit (PDU) notifies the management station of the occurrence of a significant event? - correct answerTrap Which remote monitoring (RMON) group records and stores sample statistics for each monitored interface? - correct answerThe History Control Group. Which three of the following are network management model components for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? (Choose three.) - correct answerManaged devices. Network management station (NMS). Network management protocol. How does remote monitoring 2 (RMON2) differ from remote monitoring (RMON)? - correct answerRMON2 looks at Layer 3 traffic, while RMON only looks at Layers 1 and 2. When a management station polls a device agent process to collect information, the network management system is operating in which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network management mode? - correct answerPassive. Which three of the following are examples of Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) router management categories? (Choose three.) - correct answerConfiguration Security Performance Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) management mode allows us to change a device's characteristics and operating parameters? - correct answerActive management. Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) remote monitoring (RMON) extension prepares reports about a group of devices that head a measured parameter's statistical list? - correct answerThe Host Top N Group. A remote monitoring 2 (RMON2) probe can capture a network segment's performance statistics based on which two of the following? (Choose two.) - correct answerIP address. Application. Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) sets object values on an agent with it's protocol data units (PDU)? - correct answerSetRequest Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) gathers network information from what type of database? - correct answerManagement information base (MIB). Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) allows TCP/IP users to perform which of the following? - correct answerDownload news articles. Which name resolution technique dynamically resolves Windows host names to IP addresses? - correct answerWindows Internet Naming Service (WINS). Which TCP/IP UNIX specific application would allow us to connect to a remote database over the network, but restrict database activity to the remote host? - correct answerRlogin. Which TCP/IP protocol has us attach a remote device to the local file system by mounting it? - correct answerNetwork File System (NFS). Which TCP/IP application allows users to display locally a remote UNIX host's screen? - correct answerRlogin When might you use the rlogin TCP/IP application? - correct answerTo remotely connect one UNIX workstation to another. Which TCP/IP application distributes news articles read from a central database? - correct answerNetwork News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). Which one of the following protocols allows email clients to download their messages from an email server? - correct answerPost Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is what type of protocol? - correct answerStateless. On the file transfer protocol (FTP) server, what manages client requests for file retrieval or transmission? - correct answerA daemon. What are the primary requirements to connect to a transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) network? - correct answerUnique pairs of Network Layer and Transport Layer addresses and use of the TCP/IP protocol suite. What type of delivery method uses an email server between the sender and the receiver of messages? - correct answerStore-and-forward. Host names and uniform resource locators (URL) are resolved to Internet protocol (IP) addresses by which of the following applications? - correct answerDomain Name System (DNS). What happens when the browser application finishes downloading the files necessary to display a web page? - correct answerThe browser and server drop the connections, and the browser maintains the page and its elements in local memory. Which email protocol enables the messages to be viewed without first downloading them from the email server? - correct answerInternet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4). What type of server maintains an access log to assist with troubleshooting and tracking down malicious users? - correct answerA file transfer protocol (FTP) server. A store-and-forward email system will not deliver messages until: - correct answerThe host requests the information. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 129? - correct answer10000001 Convert the decimal IP address 206.190.36.45 to a binary IP address. - correct answer11001110.10111110.00100100.00101101 Convert the binary IP address 10101111.11001100.00010110.01010101 to a decimal IP address. - correct answer175.204.22.85 Which is another name for the binary number system? - correct answerBase 2 Which is another name for the decimal number system? - correct answerBase 10 What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 254? - correct answer11111110 What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 1010? - correct answer10 What is the decimal value of the binary number 1000? - correct answer8 If we borrow 3 bits from a Class C network address, how many usable subnets have we created? - correct answer8 If we borrow 12 bits from a Class B address, how many usable subnets have we created? - correct answer4,096 Which two of the following are reasons why an organization would choose to subnet their network? (Choose two.) - correct answerTo build a more scalable network To conserve network addresses Which broadcast IP address limits packets to the local network segment only? - correct answer255.255.255.255 A subnet's broadcast address has which portion's bits set to all ones? - correct answerThe host portion. What is the binary equivalent of the subnet mask 255.248.0.0? - correct answer11111111.11111000.00000000.00000000 Using the default Class C subnet mask, 255.255.255.0, which two addresses will be able to communicate on the same network segment? (Choose two.) - correct answer192.200.129.179 192.200.129.18 Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.248, which two addresses are on the same subnet? (Choose two.) - correct answer194.212.56.20 194.212.56.18 Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.192, which sets of host addresses will be able to communicate on the same network segment? - correct answer210.68.165.65 to 210.68.165.120 Your customer owns a full Class C address, 220.14.56.0. They currently operate a flat network using the default Class C subnet mask, 255.255.255.0, and use a single router to connect to the Internet. What should the subnet mask number be changed to in order to segment their network into six subnets to better control broadcast traffic? - correct answer255.255.255.224. Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240, which two addresses are on the same subnet? (Choose two.) - correct answer200.193.15.49 200.193.15.61 In order for a host to communicate on a subnetted network segment, which two portions of its IP address must match those of the subnet address? (Choose two.) - correct answerThe network portion The subnet portion In a set of subnet address ranges, which is the first wire address in the first subnet? - correct answerThe default network's wire address. In a Class B network, if you borrowed 9 bits, how many usable subnets would you create? - correct answer512 When subnetting Class B addresses, what is the first subnet's wire address equal to? - correct answerThe default network wire address. In a subnetted Class B network, in what state will the host bits be on each subnet's broadcast address? - correct answerEach subnet's host bits are set to all 1s. If the number of hosts per subnet exceeds 255, how might you solve for the subnet incremental range? - correct answerDivide the number of hosts by 256. If a Class B address's subnet mask is 255.255.254.0, in which octet does our subnet portion increment? - correct answerThird [Show Less]
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FIELD TECH 1 EXAM WITH UPDATED ANSWERS 2023
Upstream frequency ranges - correct answer between 5Mhz and 42Mhz Downstream frequency ranges - correct answer Between 50MHz 860MHz Upstream frequenc... [Show More] y ranges - correct answer5MHz and 42 MHz A 6 MHz downstream channel can hold - correct answer2-4 hd channels or 8-12 standard definition channels Egress - correct answer When a signal leaks out of a cable Ingress - correct answer when a signal leaks into a cable Field technicians are responsible from - correct answer The tap to the CPE (customer premise equipment) The most preferred BER is measured in ________ and is shown as _______ - correct answer Billions, 1.0E-09 The headend - correct answer Is the master facility for distributing signals over a cable television system Charter passing modem receive levels (Rx) - correct answer between -10dBmv and +12dBmv Charter passing modem transmit levels (Tx) - correct answer between 35dBmv and 50dBmv Charter passing MER - correct answer35dBmv HD channels - correct answer around 10Mbps each standard definition channels - correct answer around 3-4Mbps each QAM (quadrature amplitude modulation) - correct answer two amplitude modulated waveforms at the same frequency that are phase shifted by 90 degrees QPSK (quadrature phase shift keying) - correct answer16 QAM, 64 QAM, and 256 QAM are all examples of QAM modulation. RF loss or gain - correct answer is a relative measurement and is measured in dB (decibels) RF measurements that are read from a meter are - correct answer absolute measurements and are measured in dBmV (decibels per millivolts) Analog signal loss - correct answer is often gradual and reduces signal slowly Digital signal loss - correct answer sudden where very small margin exists for difference between a good picture and no picture (called the cliff effect) FM radio stations - correct answer found between frequencies 88 MHz and 108 MHz frequency - correct answer number of fully completed cycles per second Hertz - correct answer one complete cycle MHz (megahertz) - correct answer refers to millions of cycles per second 700 Mhz - correct answer700 million hertz CATV, cable plant, or tight system - correct answer is a closed system where rf energy must be contained Signal leakage meters - correct answer typically have antennas and are used to find leaks in the plant. rubber ducky, dipole, and near field antennas 1 millivolt measured across 75 Ohms - correct answer0 dBmV characteristic impedance of cable - correct answer75 Ohms Impedance mismatches - correct answer refer to defects within the plant, such as kinks , cuts, bends, water damage, and poor installation (bad fitings/ terminators.) Line toner/ multimeter - correct answer assist in identifying lines torque wrenches - correct answer typically 20-30 inch pounds to tighten f connectors compisite video/ RCA cables - correct answer not high def, used to pass baseband video and audio signals Foil i the outer portion of the braid - correct answer should be removed when properly preparing and F-connector HDMI - correct answer uses a multi-pin connection for digital video and milti-channel audio MER - correct answer the more concentrated the dots are in a constellation display the better the signal quality fish tape - correct answercome in lengths of 25 feet and longer and are used to run lines through walls and conduit. P-hooks - correct answerinstalled at the house with P facing up J-hooks - correct answerinstalled at the pole with J facing up span clamps - correct answerinstalled with opening upward and pointing toward customers premises security shield tools - correct answerused to connect drop cables to tap port through port shields DC loop resistance - correct answeris a value that can help you determine the length of a drop Coaxial calbe - correct answertwo conductors runing around a central axis coaxial anatomy - correct answerjacket, shielding, dielectric, and center conductor self install kit jumper fittings should be - correct answerhand tightened inside the customer premises custom jumpers should be - correct answerhand tightened on customer equipment and torqued to 20 in lbs passive devices (splitters) - correct answerdo not require power to operate. active devices (amplifiers) - correct answerrequire power to operate. negative trap or filter - correct answerblocks services by attenuating certain frequencies more than others. Flooded orange underground cable - correct answerstiffer/denser jacket that better withstands compression of being buried. also contains flooding compound that helps prevent water from intruding into the cable if cable was compromised. wire braid - correct answershould be folded evenly back over the dielectric when prepping a new fitting weather grommets - correct answerused on outdoor splitters and tap ports to help weatherproof RG6 cable - correct answershould be used when distance is 0 to 150' RG11 cable - correct answershould be used when distance will be 151 to 250' distances over 250' - correct answerconsult with a supervisor center conductor - correct answershould never extend more than 1/16th" past the end of a fitting. The main difference between a splitter and a direction coupler - correct answera 2 way splitter will have equal loss on both outputs while a DC will have unequal losses on each output leg MAC (media access control) - correct answeruniquely identify each piece of equipment or CPE on the network Reconnection work orders - correct answeressentially treated as new installs. make sure cable and fittings are good with no cracks or corrosion, ensure fittings are properly torqued. level scan meter function - correct answertells you what your forward or received signal strength is. signal level meters (SLMs) calibration - correct answertested and calibrated daily scale of level - correct answerdB per division. increments of 2,5,10,20 dB per division. single channel mode - correct answeronly one channel is displayed on the meter SLMs allow you to - correct answerdisplay noise and can show the view of the return path. plain old telephone service (POTS) - correct answertwisted pair telephone service that most homes are wired to use. punch down tool - correct answerphone tool used to insert wires into blocks, patch panels, keystone modules and surface mount boxes. IDC connectors (jellybeans, scotch locks) - correct answerused to splice phone wiring together, you must fully insert wires into each hole and then crimp the connector banjo adapters - correct answerallow you to convert a modular adapter into something your test leads can use from your telephone butt set dual phones - correct answersometimes you will need to bridge the bottom and top together other times you will keep them separate. joining CAT5 wire to phone station wire - correct answerRGYB the blue/blue white matches up to the red/green pair Cat5 pair one - correct answerblue and blue white, blue is ring and white is tip Charter voice service work by - correct answerconnecting an eMTA (embedded multimedia terminal adapter) to the customer owned phones. the telephone company network interface device - correct answerOne of the most common demarcation points found in cable. Integrated splitter amplifier - correct answerthere is no loss in dBmv, your gain is the same as your loss. total offset for integrated splitter amplifier - correct answer0dBmV total integrated splitter power - correct answerpowered from an outlet and power inserter, can occur even if no outlet is in the direct vicinity. integrated splitter amplifiers VOIP port - correct answerused to ensure that it doesn't go down in the event of a power outage. known as the -3.5 dB down port. Inter system bonding terminal - correct answerif available use it over any other options. mobile home beam clamps - correct answertypically used for grounding when the electrical meter is more than 30 feet away from the mobile home. Galvanized bonding stray (intersystem bonding terminal) - correct answersplit bolt clamp and Fargo clamps are all approved bonding devices. Galvanized grounding straps - correct answershould be used to bond to galvanized conduit/pipe. acceptable use policy - correct answerthe rules the customer agrees to abide by. free primetime on demand - correct answeranytime access service of select shows from groups of networks after they have initially aired. switched digital video (SDV) - correct answertwo way technology that provides a cost effective way to create more bandwidth for high definition and internet carries. PPV (pay-per-view) - correct answeris typically ordered through the set top box on-screen in-band-data-path - correct answerpathway used to deliver programming data from the headend to the set top box spectrum is transitioning to an - correct answerall digital product, signals might be rf depending on the management area. A digital set top box - correct answerallows a customer to receive digital video services when they have an analog or standard definition TV. The reverse-band-data-path - correct answerpathway that delivers carries from the set top box to the head end (payperview requests, and purchase info from video on demand) set top box address-ability - correct answermeans the channels a box can display are remotely enabled or disabled by the cable operator. spectrum TV app - correct answerallows you to program a DVR while away from home [Show Less]
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