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IAHSS 2023/2024 COMPLETE BUNDLE
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IAHSS Advanced Officer Certification Questions with 100- Correct Answers 2023-2024
What is the primary role of a security officer in crime prevention? a. Reduce the desire for a person to committ a crime. b. Patrol all assigned areas di... [Show More] lligently. c. Reduce the opportunity for a person to committ a crime. d. None of these - Correct Answer-c. Reduce the opportunity for a person to committ a crime. Crime prevention is the anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk. It also involves what? a. Initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk. b. Reporting the risk to law enforcement authorities. c. Documenting the risk to the administration. d. Each of the above. - Correct Answer-a. Initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk. What must be done about life safety deficiencies found in the hazzard surveillance tour? a. Report them to the nearest medical personnel. b. Correct them before the next safety committee meeting. c. Report them to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. d. Correct them immediately. - Correct Answer-d. Correct them immediately. What is the purpose of crime analysis? a. Identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems. b. Assist law enforcement in identifying known criminals. c. Solve crimes and make arrests. d. None of the above. - Correct Answer-a. Identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems. Which of the following is easier and more cost effective for an institution? a. Allowing outside organizations to conduct safety training. b. Installing access controls only on exterior doors. c. Using off-duty law enforcement officers instead of security officers. d. Building in security systems during building design. - Correct Answer-d. Building in security systems during building design. The Triangle of Crime consists of: a. Opportunity, Unattended Items, Desire b. Ability, Opportunity, Randon Access c. Opportunity, Desire, Ability d. Access, Desire, Opportunity - Correct Answer-c. Opportunity, Desire, Ability What are the layers of protection through physical security planning? - Correct Answer-* Perimeter Barrior: line or outside perimeter of the site * Building's Exterior: top, sides, bottom of building * Interior Controls: lock/key systems, access control systems, alarms, camera, policies/procedures, training How can employee awareness programs improve safety in a healthcare facility? - Correct Answer-* Generates employee involvement * Improves trust/credibility in the security program and it's personnel What are the two most important aspects of a successful security program? a. Assist law enforcement and identifying known criminals b. Patrol and crime prevention c. Crime prevention and risk assessment d. Security awareness and crime prevention - Correct Answer-d. Security awareness and crime prevention Why is crime analysis important? - Correct Answer-It helps security monitor the level and types of crime and seasonal fluctuations. How does environmental design promote a safer environment? - Correct Answer-Design areas with: CPTED Clear sight lines Appropriate lighting Unambiguous sinage Sprinkler heads must not have any obstruction or storage within _____ inches of the sprinkler head: a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 20 - Correct Answer-c. 18 What agency requires Hazard Surveillance Rounds? a. Occupational Safety Health Association (OSHA) b. The Joint Commission (TJC) c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) d. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) - Correct Answer-b. The Joint Commission What are the two categories of safety and securities inspections? a. Surveillance surveys and security surveys b. Hazard inspections and security rounds c. Hazard surveillance rounds and security surveys d. Surveillance rounds and hazard surveillance surveys - Correct Answer-c. Hazard surveillance rounds and security surveys Hazard Surveillance Round inspections are reported to: a. Occupational Safety Health Association (OSHA) b. The Supervisor of the facility c. The Joint Commission (TJC) d. The safety committee of the healthcare organization - Correct Answer-d. The safety committee of the healthcare organization Patient care buildings and satellite health centers require Hazard Surveillance Round inspections: a. Once per year b. Twice per year c. Every two years d. Every three years - Correct Answer-c. Twice per year Non-patient care buildings and exterior grounds require Hazard Surveillance Round inspections: a. Once per year b. Twice per year c. Every two years d. None of the above - Correct Answer-a. Once per year The five-step approach to crime analysis is: a. Gather, Collate, Analyze, Separate, Evaluate feedback b. Collect, Collate, Analyze, Disseminate, Gather/Evaluate feedback c. Collect, Evaluate, Collate, Disseminate, Gather feedback d.Collect, Collate, Analyze, Gather/Evaluate feedback - Correct Answer-b. Collect, Collate, Analyze, Disseminate, Gather/Evaluate feedback Crime analysis data reports should be presented to the institutional safety committee how often? a. Quarterly b. Bi-Annually c. Annually d. Never - Correct Answer-a. Quarterly Healthcare facilities that provide _______ customer service motivate customers to tell others about these organizations. a. Respectful b. Adequate c. Knowledgeable d. Excellent - Correct Answer-d. Excellent Process improvements in customer service can be measured how? a. Surveys b. Monitoring performance c. Benchmarking d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above _______ can be an excellent way to measure customer service and improve performance: a. Surveys b. Feedback c. Employee complaints d. Phone call monitoring - Correct Answer-b. Feedback ______ is an element in improving customer service: a. Identifying customers b. Attitude c. Communication d. Training e. All of the above - Correct Answer-e. All of the above Communication is ________________: a. 93% body language, 7% words b. 50% non-verbal, 50% verbal c. 80% verbal, 20% gesture d. 75% verbal, 20% gestures and tone of voice - Correct Answer-a. 93% body language, 7% words Customer retention is __________ times less expensive than attracting new customers. a. 2 to 3 b. 5 to 6 c. 7 to 9 d. 10 to 12 - Correct Answer-b. 5 to 6 Satisfied customers on average tell _________ other people about their positive experience at a healthcare facility. a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 4 to 5 d. 6 to 7 - Correct Answer-c. 4 to 5 How many healthcare organizations have earned the Planetree organization's designation as a 'patient-centered hospital'? a. Less than 100 b. Less than 115 c. More than 125 d. More than 200 - Correct Answer-c. more than 125 What are the four elements of the "Fish" philosophy? - Correct Answer-1. Choose your attitude 2. Play 3. Make Their day 4. Be present, be there The acronym HEART expresses what: - Correct Answer-Honesty Empathetic Appreciative Respectful Tolerant Research reveals that consumers make buying decisions based on: a. 70% service / 30% product b. 80% service / 20% product c. 90% sevice / 10% product d. 95% sevice / 5% product - Correct Answer-c. 90% sevice / 10% product _____ % of customers stop doing business with an company because they are dissatisifed with the product or service. a. 10 % b. 14% c. 23% d. 31% - Correct Answer-b. 14% ______ % of customers leave because of an attitude of indifference on the part of the service provider. a. 25% b. 50% c. 68% d. 75% - Correct Answer-c. 68% What determines whether a customer is satisfied or not? a. A customer that is visably pleased b. A customers perception of having needs met c. A customers who has had his questions answered d. A customer feeling good - Correct Answer-b. A customers perception of having needs met Key traits security officers should have (7): - Correct Answer-Emotional awareness; concern; Problem solving; Initiative; responsibility; Explaining, and informing What is the most powerful booster of customer service improvement? a. Surveys b. Evaluations c. Benchmarking d. Feedback - Correct Answer-d. Feedback Which legal test takes into account neighborhood crime rates, industry standards, and the owner's experience at other locations? a. Forseeability b. Neglience c. Totality of circumstances d. Duty to invitees - Correct Answer-c. Totality of circumstances The major source of premise liability in healthcare is from: a. Poor lighting b. Slips and falls c. Fire hazards d. Assaults - Correct Answer-b. Slips and falls Property owners have a ________ duty to maintain the property in a ___________ condition. a. Legal / reasonably safe b. Moral / reasonably safe c. Legal / completely safe d. Moral / completely safe - Correct Answer-a. Legal / reasonably safe Which of the following are elements necessary to establish neglience in a premise liability case? a. Duty to the plaintiff b. Failure to meet the duty c. Breech of a duty caused an injury d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above Which of the following are examples of risks security officers should identify? a. Burned out lights b. Breached fence lines c. Slip and fall hazards d. All of the above e. A and C only - Correct Answer-d. All of the above What is the definition of premise liability? - Correct Answer-Refers to the legal responsibility a property owner/organization owes to persons/individuals on their property. What are the four elements of neglience: - Correct Answer-1. Legal duty 2. Breech of duty 3. Proximate cause 4. Damages or injury What is Legal Duty - Correct Answer-The responsibility to others to act according to the law. Proving the duty (such as not to be negligent, to keep premises safe, or to drive within the speed limit). Then showing that the duty was breached is a required elements of any lawsuit for damages due to negligence or intentional injuries - Did the property owner have a legal obligation to the claimant? What is Breech of Duty - Correct Answer-When one person or company has a duty of care toward another person or company, but fails to live up to that standard. What is Proximate Cause - Correct Answer-In order for an action to be the proximate cause of an injury, it must be related closely enough through the chain of causation that the act is considered the sufficient cause of the harm. The most common test for determining if an action is sufficiently related to an injury to satisfy proximate cause is whether or not the injury was foreseeable by the person committing the action. - Did the failure to provide the duty cause harm? Damages or Injury - Correct Answer-Were the damages or injury forseeable or apparant? What is CPTED - Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (3) - Correct Answer-Promotes a clear line of sight Created perception of safety Makes criminals feel detected Define: Broken Windows - Correct Answer-Theory: Signs of neglect, ie: broken windows and/or graffiti on buildings indicate no one cares about the area and is not watching it - it invites crime. Failure to conduct routine patrol can ultimately result in what? a. An increase in security spending b. An increase in the organization's revenue c. A liability exposure d. Both A and C - Correct Answer-c. A liability exposure K-9 patrol teams can be particularly effective in dealing with which situation? a. Restraining a patient b. Emergency department violence c. Patrolling patient floors d. Children who are upset - Correct Answer-b. Emergency department violence Bicycle patrol is which one of these? a. Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic b. Faster than foot patrol, but slower than a vehicle in heavy traffic c. The safest method of patrol d. The slowest method of patrol - Correct Answer-a. Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic _______ patrol contributes, more than any other method of patrol, to excessive socialization. a. Bicycle b. Foot c. K-9 d. Vehicle - Correct Answer-b. Foot Security Officers should have a valid driver's license if they are going to do what? a. Operate motorized vehicles b. Conduct vehicle patrols on client property c. Transport authorized personnel d. All of the above - Correct Answer-a. Operate motorized vehicles What are the common methods of patrol? - Correct Answer-Foot K-9 Bicycle Motorized A dog's sense of smell is _______ times better and hearing is _______ times better than a human's. a. 100 / 50 b. 250 / 35 c. 400 / 20 d. 500 / 45 - Correct Answer-c. 400 / 20 A security officer responding to a crime scene should do what? a. Disregard his safety and arrive as soon as possible b. Respond as quickly as possible, observing all safety practices c. Wait for at lease one officer to provide backup d. None of the above - Correct Answer-b. Respond as quickly as possible, observing all safety practices After arriving at a crime scene, what should the security officer do first? a. Protect the scene from contamination b. Protect his personal safety c. Render aid to those injured d. Question any suspects or witnesses - Correct Answer-b. Protect his personal safety Which if these is an example of factual evidence? a. Eyewitness testimony b. Circumstantial evidence c. Physical evidence d. None of the above - Correct Answer-c. Physical evidence Which of these should an officer follow to be able to testify that the evidence presented has merit? a. Proper medical staff direction b. Proper safety procedures c. Proper confidentiality procedures d. Proper chain of custody - Correct Answer-d. Proper chain of custody Why are initial information gathering and proper note-taking key to a successful investigation? a. They memorialize information gathered at the scene from those involved b. They refresh your memory for later report writing purposes c. They are subject to discovery by the defense in a criminal case and thus can be supoenaed d. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. All of the above When dealing with a personal-gain informant, what should the officer do? a. Document the officer's interaction with the informant b. Let the informant run the show c. Become personally involved with the informant d. Make promises to the informant that cannot be kept - Correct Answer-a. Document the officer's interaction with the informant Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline when an outside agency conducts an undercover investigation? a. Insist that no person be submitted to entrapment b. Require daily reports c. Insist that no laws or policies ever be broken d. Insist that all security department staff receive operational information - Correct Answer-d. Insist that all security department staff receive operational information Before using any covert monitoring devices, the officer should do what? a. Notify the information system department b. Notify the engineering department c. Submit a covert investigation request to the human resources department d. Review applicable state and federal laws - Correct Answer-d. Review applicable state and federal laws Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a covert or undercover operations protocol? a. Strict, clear, and concise b. Clearly spells out when covert operations can be performed c. Formulated as an ongoing process d. Has safeguards in place to prevent improper behavior - Correct Answer-c. Formulated as an ongoing process When arriving at a crime scene, which order should issues be addressed? a. Protect the scene, protect yourself, render aid b. Render aid, protect the scene, protect yourself c. Protect yourself, protect the scene, render aid d. Protect yourself, render aid, protect the scene - Correct Answer-d. Protect yourself, render aid, protect the scene What is an informant? - Correct Answer-ANY person that provides information to some sort of authority to help with or identify a wrong (LE, SO, private agency, etc.) What are the three types of informants? - Correct Answer-1. Concerned citizen 2. Public domain source (newspaper, TV, radio, court records, criminal history report) 3. "For personal gain" informant [Show Less]
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IAHSS EXAM 2023/2024 COMPLETED!!
Schedule I Substances - Answer LSD, Herion, and Methaqulone Schedule II Substances - Answer Morphine, Fentanyl, cocaine, methadone, and meperidine (Deme... [Show More] rol) Schedule III Substances - Answer Anabolic Steroids, Codeine, combinations with Hydrocodone, or Oxycodone (the pain medications OxyContin, Percodan, Vicodin, and Percocet, Tussionex Suspension cough syrup, and paregoric. Schedule IV Substances - Answer Darvon, Valium, Xanax, and Phenobarbital. Schedule V Substances - Answer Cough medications with codeine, and diarrhea medications, combining diphenoxylate and atropine. Fire Triangle - Answer Fuel, Heat, Oxygen Seven Signs of Terrorism - Answer 1. Surveillance 2. Suspicious questioning, 3. Test of Security, 4. Acquiring supplies and assets, 5. Suspicious people or activity, 6. Dry runs, 7. Deploying assets and getting into positions. Bomb Threat Plan: Basic Steps - Answer 1. Take preventive measures, 2. Establish authority-via Incident Command, 3. Gather as much information as possible as the threat is received, 4. Search for the Bomb, 5. Evacuate, as appropriate, 6. Terminate response, 7. Document and debrief. Three main security preventive measures to deter those who would bring a bomb to your facility - Answer 1. Control access by locking sensitive areas (e.g. computer rooms, air handlers, boiler rooms, telecommunication areas, and loading docks. 2. Use deterrents such as lighting, fences, cameras, and detection devices. 3. Identify suspicious individuals and their behaviors. Communication Do's and Don'ts during a bomb search - Answer 1. Do use the existing telephone system or 2. runners, but not with cell phones or two way radios. Don't use Cell phones or two way radios because they can detonate the bomb. Questions on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist - Answer 1. When is the bomb going to explode? 2. Where is the bomb? 3. What does it look like? 4. What kind of bomb is it? 5. What will cause it to explode? 6. Why was the bomb placed? 7. Where are you calling from? 8. What is your name? 9. What is your address? 10. Why are you calling me? 11. Why would you want to hurt innocent people Emergency Operations Plan serves what 3 purposes - Answer 1. Provides a written plan to guide the facility's respose to the emergency. 2. Outlines the organizational structure for managing the response. 3. Outlines how the organization will deal with 6 critical areas identified by the Joint Commission. Emergency Plan's 6 critical areas. - Answer 1. Communications 2. Resources and assets 3. security and safety 4. staff 5. Utilities 6. Patient Care The Joint Commission requirements on exercises to the emergency plan - Answer 1. At least 2 exercises must be completed a year. 2. One exercise per year must provide for an influx of simulated patients. 3. One excercise per year must be participation in a community-wide exercise. 4. One exercise per year must be an escalating event in which the community is not able to support the healthcare facility. 5. An actual emergency response may be substitued for an exercise. Common Causes and Effects of Civil Disturbances - Answer Civil disturbance-also called civil disorder or civil unrest-is a general term used by law enforcement to describe disturbances of a group. Freedom of Assembly - Answer Freedom of assembly is the individual right to come together with other individuals to collectively express, promote, pursue, and defend common interests. Civil Disorder - Answer Civil Disorder is a public disturbance by three or more people involving acts of violence that cause immediate danger, damage, or injury to others or their property. Security's Role during Civil Disturbance - Answer 1. To protect the perimeter of the facility. 2. To ensure clear access for emergency vehicles, employees, patients, visitors , and deliveries. Response Plan - Answer Needed to effectively manage and minimize the potential for negative outcomes and developing the framework needed to respond to a civil disturbance. Key Assumptions to Address in the Written Response Plan - Answer 1. Disturbances will adversely effect facility operations. 2. Access to the facility will affected: patients and employees will have difficulty reaching the facility; delivery of supplies will be difficult. 3. Response by the police and fire to the facility may be delayed and will likely be under-resourced at first. 4. Availability or adequate staffing may be affected. 5. Facility-wide lockdown with restricted access will be implemented. 6. Media will be present and may need to be controlled and managed in a separate location. 7. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity based on the changing nature of the incident. 8. Coordination with local agencies will occur, including law enforcement and public safety agencies. Security Management Plan - Answer This plan typically outlines the hospital's response to civil disturbances and references the full response plan within the Emergency Operation Plan (EOP) Strategies to Reduce Risk - Answer 1. Access Control, 2. Presenting Identification, 3. Inspections, 4. Protecting Security-Sensitive Areas. 5. Adequate Security Staffing. OSHA's strategies to prevent workplace violence - Answer Policy; Commitment; Patient History; Training; Employee Participation; Reporting; Alert System; Plan; Law enforcement Participation; Protection; Counseling; Legal Actions. Risk Identifying for workplace violence - Answer Particular departments; Activities; Workstations; and Time of Day Measurable Indicators for workplace violence - Answer Prior Incidents; Employee Surveys; Independent Reviewers. Facilitating De-escalation in regards to workplace violence - Answer Listening, empathy, and collaboration. Some Facts on WPV's - Answer Workplace violence affects an estimated 1.7 million US employees directly and millions more indirectly each year. Forty eight percent of all non-fatal assaults and violent acts in US workplaces occur in healthcare settings. The overall injury rate for nursing or personal care workers is 25 per 10,000 full time employees. This rate is much higher than that of all private-sector injuries, which is only 2 per 10,000 full time employees. Forty-three percent of healthcare establishments report having employees affected by workplace violence. Preventing Workplace Violence - Answer Policy, Commitment, Patient History, Training, Employee Participation, Reporting, Alert System, Plan, Law Enforcement, Protection, Counseling, Legal Actions. WPV Measurable Indicators - Answer Prior Incidents, Employee Surveys, and Independent Reviewers. WPV program has two key goals - Answer 1. Communicate the philosophy of the origination in dealing with workplace violence 2. Prepare healthcare workers to respond safely. Who should receive WPV training - Answer All staff should receive basic training on wpv prevention and procedures to follow when a WPV has occurred. Benefits of WPV Prevention Program - Answer More serious forms of violence will be less likely to occur Expensive and embarrassing incidents may be avoided A safer and more motivated workforce will emerge. Hostage Situations - Answer Hostage situations occur when one or more people are held against their will, with release contingent upon certain demands being satisfied. Two main hostage situations - Answer 1. Pre-meditated, 2. Reactionary. Pre-meditated hostage situation - Answer An individual or group develops and implements a specific plan. They wish to use hostages to promote a cause or elicit another response result, such as to obtain money or some degree of notoriety. Reactionary hostage situation - Answer Reactionary hostage situations are generally not engineered with great detail. Rather, they are a response of desperation. A reactionary hostage situation can occur in response to an unsuccessful crime attempt. The hostage taker believes that taking a hostage will ultimately result in a more favorable outcome. High risk Areas for hostage taking - Answer Obstetrics, Emergency Department, Pharmacy, and Administration. Felonies - Answer These are usually punishable by death, imprisonment for more than one year, and or a fine. Misdemeanors - Answer These crimes are usually punishable by imprisonment for more than less than one year and or a fine. Violations (Infractions) - Answer These are usually minor illegal acts punishable by fine. A violation, depending on the jurisdiction, may or may not be. considered a crime. Sworn Officers - Answer Those recognized by the state as law enforcement officials, having the same legal authority as any police officer in the state. Non-Sworn Officers - Answer Those not granted law enforcement powers, in criminal matters, these officers generally have the same authority as a regular citizen of the state. Probable Cause - Answer Probable cause is the constitutional foundation or cause for most arrests and searches and seizures. Arrest - Answer As it relates to an arrest probable cause exists when there is sufficient evidence for a reasonable person to believe that a crime has been, or is being committed by the suspect. Search and Seizure - Answer As it relates to a search and seizure, probable cause is sufficient evidence for a reasonable person to believe that a certain contraband, evidence, or fruit of a crime may be found at a specific location. Reasonable Suspicion - Answer Reasonable Suspicion is the amount of evidence a sworn officer needs to make a "stop" or conduct a "frisk." The amount of evidence required is less than probable cause but more than a mere hunch. Ability to Detain or Arrest - Answer Your power to detain or arrest depends on 1. The illegal behavior of the suspect. 2. The amount of force of evidence available to you , and 3. whether you are acting as a private citizen or law enforcement officer. Non-sworn Security Officers ability to detain - Answer Non-sworn Security Officers have a citizen's power to detain others. In general they main detain an individual when a felony has "in fact" been committed in their presence. Non sworn Security Officers ability to detain for Assault - Answer In some states, a non sworn security officer may detain an individual for an assault committed in the officer's presence, a breach of the peace, or a crime involving theft or destruction of property. Reasonable and Necessary Force - Answer As a general rule, a security officer is entitled to that force that is reasonable and necessary to defend one's self or another from serious bodily harm. Authority to interview and interrogate; Interview - Answer To interview is to question a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect. Interrogate - Answer To interrogate is to question a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement. Custodial interrogation - Answer Custodial interrogation involves questioning a suspect under the circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under control of the officer. [Show Less]
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IAHSS Chapter Questions With 100- Correct Answers 2023/2024
Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations discussed in this chapter? a. proprietary or for-profit b. not-for-p... [Show More] rofit c. government-supported d. individual healthcare - Correct Answer-Individual healthcare Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? a. Drugs are used and stored in the facility b. Mostly female staff c. High percentage of technical and professional staff d. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open - Correct Answer-High percentage of technical and professional staff Which of the follwing is usually at the top of the organizational chart? a. board of directors b. department leaders c. assistant administrators d. vice presidents - Correct Answer-Board of Directors Which of the following statements best describes employees? a. medical staff contracted by the facility b. all staff directly employed by the facility c. volunteers who donate their time d. contracted persons - Correct Answer-All staff directly employed by the facility Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? a. strong and effective b. a program that works in a small part of the facility c. generally effective d. strong and simple - Correct Answer-Strong and Effective How should friendships and interpersonal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? a. Discouraged b. Encouraged c. Encouraged, but monitored d. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism - Correct Answer-Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? a. crime analysis b. risk assessments c. benchmarking - Correct Answer-Benchmarking What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? a. It's image b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility c. the goals and missions of the entity employing the security services d. Cost-effectiveness - Correct Answer-The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? a. good observation skills b. good communication skills c. tolerance d. all the above - Correct Answer-All the above Why are vendors potentially a high-security risk to a health care facility? a. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organizations may know very little about vendors background. b. vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband c. completing vendors may clash at a facility d. vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft - Correct Answer-Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organizations may know very little about vendors background In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? a. patient's parents or legal guardians b. nursing staff c. attending physician d. the patient provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so - Correct Answer-The patient provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so Which of the following is NOT an example of an external customer? a. patients b. vendors c. employees d. regulatory agencies - Correct Answer-Employees Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public? a. clean uniform b. wearing the uniform shirt untucked c. well-cared-for uniform d. shined footwear - Correct Answer-Wearing the uniform shirt untucked Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? a. bad attitude b. dishonesty c. impoliteness d. confidence - Correct Answer-Confidence What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called? a. employee relations b. protest management decisions c. family interactions d. tense conversation - Correct Answer-Employee relations Which of the following may union members NOT do during a picketing? a. carry signs b. protest management decisions c. block entrances to the facility d. congregate outside the facility - Correct Answer-Block entrances to the facility The speech pattern related to your tone of voice is considered which form of communication? a. nonverbal communication b. paraverbal communication c. excessive dialogue communication d. passive communication - Correct Answer-Paraverbal Communication Which of the following is not a proper technique to use when providing a good customer service? a. giving the customer your undivided attention b. offering the customer a place to sit c. asking the customer if you can take notes d. looking at your watch every few minutes - Correct Answer-Looking at your watch every few minutes "Perception is reality"--Which of the following is important for the security professional to remember regarding this statement? a. all interactions are subject to personal interpretation b. positive nonverbal and paraverbals will influence the "perception" of customers c. a customer's prior history of interaction may impact their initial impression of security in either an adverse or positive way d. All of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Which of the following are powerful reasons to advocate and promote strong customer services? a. strong customer service prevents violence and helps preserve a safe therapeutic environment b.customer service supports people in crisis and may have a lasting impact for the customer c. strong customer service allows security officers opportunities to problem solve with a person in crisis d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above the L.A.S.T. technique in managing complaints requires security progessionals to: a. listen, apply, select, thank b. learn, apologize, solve, turnover c. listen, apologize, solve, thank d. look, act, supply, touch - Correct Answer-Listen, Apologize, Solve, Thank Which of the following environmental factors can contribute to customer dissatisfaction and anxiety? a. lack of privacy and crowding b. excessive noise c. lack of access to refreshments d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Which of the following is NOT a reason organizations should use teams? a. teams can solve problems b. teams can help make organizational decisions c. teams encourage personal to become involved in planning d. forming a team ensures the team will be successful - Correct Answer-Forming a team ensures the team will be successful The security department would be an example of what type of team? a. a project team b. a management team c. a process improvement team d. an ongoing or functional team - Correct Answer-An ongoing or functional team To be successful, teams need which of the following? a. access to resources b. access to people in the know c. clearly defined purposes d. all of the above - Correct Answer-All of the above Which of the following is a challenge to teamwork? a. relevance b. purpose c. scope d. cost - Correct Answer-Relevance Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? a. forming b. norming c. storming d. rounding - Correct Answer-Rounding Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? a. getting to know the community b. establishing postie relationships and partnerships c. improving communications d. using the security vehicles to go offsite - Correct Answer-Using the security vehicle to go offsite Which is the most common patrol approach? a. inconspicuous b. routine c. conspicuous d. foot - Correct Answer-Foot Which of the following are the three key elements to a good patrol? a. hearing, documentation, and memory b. observation, perception, and memory c. perception, memory, and documentation d. time, memory, and perception - Correct Answer-Observation, perception, and memory Which type of patrol covers all areas equally? a. selective b. directed c. vehicle d. routine - Correct Answer-Routine Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? a. let employees know you are in the area b. get careless c. be a hero unnecessarily d. get separated from your equipment - Correct Answer-Let employees know you are in the area Security officers must interact in a professional manner with group of people? 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IAHSS Basic Officer Certification Questions & Answers 2023/2024
The basic structure of a typical healthcare organization resembles a a. Circle b. Pentagon c. Pyramid d. Straight line - correct answer b. Pyramid T... [Show More] he most primary overriding concern of any security department should be a. Its image b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility c. The goals and mission if the entity employing the security services d. Cost-effectiveness - correct answer b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility Which accreditation body provides standards to address Environment of Care, Emergency Management, and Life Safety in the healthcare environment? a. The Joint Commission (TJC) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA) d. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) - correct answer a. The Joint Commission (TJC) According to IAHSS Hospital Crime Survey, assaults have a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remained the same d. Become less violent - correct answer a. Increased What are the two types of criminal acts? a. Burglaries and Felonies b. Misdemeanors and Felonies c. Larceny and Misconduct d. Misdemeanors and Larceny - correct answer b. Misdemeanors and Felonies Business offices are often measured by: a. Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) b. The admission process c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days) d. The physician survey - correct answer c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days) Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services? a. Well staffed during the day b. Isolated at night c. Mix of certified and non-certified employees d. Located in the center of the facility - correct answer b. Isolated at night Which of the following defines property risk: a. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards b. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment c. The healthcare organizations inability to perform one or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies - correct answer d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies What three components make up the Access Control Triad? a. Identification systems, staff education & training, badging b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards c. Staff education & training, video surveillance, physical security safeguards d. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, staff education & training - correct answer b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used? a. Helmets and preventative maintenance programs b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections c. Supervisor inspections and helmets d. Battery maintenance and inspections - correct answer b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System? a. Assuring the safety of responders and others b. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives c. Assuring efficient use of resources d. Assuring constant communication between agencies - correct answer d. Assuring constant communication between agencies Standard precautions are a set of precautions that the CDC had called for in order to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions? a. Blood and body fluids b. Mucous membranes c. Non-intact skin d. Sweat - correct answer d. Sweat A class B fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Paper fire c. Electrical fire d. Wood fire - correct answer a. Flammable liquid fire Which is the best method to control a bomb threat? a. Wait for the threat to come in and see what happens b. Call the public health department to handle c. Relax because it is probably a hoax d. Prepare before the threat is received - correct answer d. Prepare before the threat is received The Joint Commission (TJC) requires how many disaster drills each year? a. Three b. One c. Two d. Six - correct answer c. Two The measurable indications that workplace violence programs should include are: a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers b. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected officials, prior incidents c. Employee surveys, environmental considerations, prior incidents d. Employee surveys, independent reviewers, engineering input - correct answer a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor? a. Simple assault b. Trespass c. Burglary d. Vandalism - correct answer c. Burglary According to statistics published by the National Association of Security Companies, how many states have NO regulations for security officers? a. Twelve b. Ten c. Five d. Eight - correct answer b. Ten Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. The Joint Commission (TJC) d.National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA) - correct answer c. The Joint Commission (TJC) The Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards addresses how many areas? a. Seven b. Six c. Four d. Eight - correct answer a. Seven [Show Less]
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IAHSS Advanced Pretest, IAHSS Advanced Training for Healthcare Security Personnel 4th Edition Exam
Security departments are judged on what they do to... - Correct Answer-Proactively prevent incidents A good crime prevention program uses perimeter barr... [Show More] iers, building exteriors, and interior controls to create: - Correct Answer-Layers of protection Employee involvement in crime prevention starts with... - Correct Answer-new employee orientation Appearing professional, friendly, approachable and positive are the basis for your - Correct Answer-attitude To make good decisions on the job, you must - Correct Answer-take care of yourself on and off the job The best way to achieve enhanced customer service is by using what method to exceed the expectations of the customeris a - Correct Answer-multi-tiered approach Customers value reliability and _____________________ - Correct Answer-competence Premise liability refers to the legal responsibility... - Correct Answer-property owner owes to persons on the property What approach should be followed to determine appropriate protective measures and security and safety for off-campus facilities - Correct Answer-security inspections and risk assessments Healthcare organizations are perhaps at a greater risk for slip and fall due to - Correct Answer-medical conditions limit Mobility What best describes the Broken Window Theory? - Correct Answer-Neglect in an area creates the impression that no one cares. The four most common methods of patrol are: - Correct Answer-Foot, K-9, Bicycle, and Motorized One of several advantages to foot patrol is - Correct Answer-providing a visible deterrent to crime. A major disadvantage to foot patrol is - Correct Answer-the opportunity to socialize excessively. Covert and undercover investigations in the healthcare setting should - Correct Answer-be undertaken only when traditional methods of handling the situation have been tried or examined Assault, both simple and aggravated, occur most often: - Correct Answer-Anytime Which of the following is not an element needed for a crime to occur? - Correct Answer-Training additional steps are necessary to sustain employee awareness and involvement in the security effort. all of the following vehicles are used except - Correct Answer-overhead paging system announcements When addressing workplace violence security officers are expected to do all of the following except - Correct Answer-respond and resolve immediately When assessing security-sensitive areas an officer might consider all of the following except - Correct Answer-creating unobstructed passage for patients and visitors Which of the following is not an activity an officer should engage in to reduce the threat of workplace of violence? - Correct Answer-Intervening quickly in resolving without involving management Which of the following steps would be least effective when treating a patient in potential danger as a victim or witness to a crime - Correct Answer-assign room without window To provide security assistance regarding combative patients, all security staff should be well trained in - Correct Answer-Descalation techniques Infants are most commonly abducted by - Correct Answer-a stranger Patients suffering from dementia require - Correct Answer-particular attention to keep them from wandering away When conducting an intervention with a mental health patient hospital security should - Correct Answer-conduct the intervention in the privacy of the patient's room During a walkout or strike at a healthcare facility hospital security can expect all of the following except - Correct Answer-striking employees will be cooperative in order to protect their job Some of the job action assignments for security in the incident command system for dealing with civil disturbances include - Correct Answer-Access Control, incident documentation, event preparation with local law enforcement In responding to an active shooter scenario the armed Healthcare security officer should - Correct Answer-realize they can minimize casualties by taking successful actions Proactive risk assessments consider all of the following events except - Correct Answer-normal planned events High sensitivity or vulnerable areas in the healthcare facility such as an emergency department or women's services are known as - Correct Answer-security sensitive areas Doors that are being secured by magnetic locks should always be connected to the - Correct Answer-fire alarm panel Which of the following was not identified as a computerized Patrol verification system - Correct Answer-biometric devices A(n) _____ _____ _____ system can have many components, including electronic locks, a video tie in and alarm contacts - Correct Answer-Electronic Access Control When responding to incidents involving violence, officers should - Correct Answer-only attempt a solo Intervention when an immediate life-threatening is present and intervention does not pose undue risk to the officer or others When an urgent call is received and little or no information is known, officer should do all of the following, except - Correct Answer-maintain radio silence What is the primary role of a security officer in crime prevention - Correct Answer-reduce the opportunity for a person to commit a crime Crime prevention is the anticipation, recognition, and Appraisal of a crime risk. It also involves what - Correct Answer-initiating some action to remove or reduce the risk what must be done about life safety deficiencies found in the hazard surveillance tour - Correct Answer-correct them immediately what is the purpose of crime analysis - Correct Answer-identify problems and develop strategies to reduce problems which of the following is easier in more cost-efficient for an institution - Correct Answer-building in security systems during building design one of security primary responsibilities after a critical incident is controlled, is to - Correct Answer-preserve the scene and gather evidence you have a pivotal role in advancing the professional standing of healthcare security and safety by - Correct Answer-adhering to the iahss code of ethics one way to overcome the image of an uncaring officer is to - Correct Answer-respond to service calls quickly four legal elements are considered in determining negligence - Correct Answer-legal Duty, breach of Duty, proximate cause, and damages or injury employees should be aware of their surroundings and familiarize themselves with regular employees so they can question unknown persons. When faced with an unknown person, the employee should - Correct Answer-offer help and notify the supervisor of suspicious activity or an unsatisfactory reply the responsibility to seek out and take advantage of training opportunities belongs to the - Correct Answer-individual officer Healthcare facilities that provide ______ customer service motivate customers to tell others about these organizations - Correct Answer-excellent process improvements in customer service can be measured how - Correct Answer-all of the above ( benchmarking, surveys, monitoring performance, service standards) ______ can be an excellent way to measure customer service and improve performance - Correct Answer-feedback ______ is an element in improving customer service - Correct Answer-all of the above ( identifying customers, attitude, communication, training) communication is _____________ - Correct Answer-93% body language, 7% words when evaluating environment as it pertains to workplace violence and an officer's responsibility, officers should know the following - Correct Answer-what's in place, who's not in compliance and what's not working which of the following is not a symptom of risk for workplace violence - Correct Answer-an average employee who is generally very dependable encourage employees to request a security escort to parking facilities to - Correct Answer-promote personal Safety and Security awareness according to William Webster, director of the FBI, informants - Correct Answer-are the single most important tool in law enforcement where should creating employee awareness and involvement in security efforts begin - Correct Answer-orientation all potential responders to an alarm activation must receive training on - Correct Answer-the management of violence and aggressive behavior in critical response when is the most Ideal Time to Begin parent education on the Infant security plan - Correct Answer-prenatal classes the national Center for missing and exploited children has published which of the following - Correct Answer-a booklet to assist in developing and abduction prevention and response plan for hospitals Which of the following is easier and more cost efficient for an institution? - Correct Answer-Building in security systems during the building design. Healthcare facilities that provide _______________ customer service motivates customers to tell others about these organizations. - Correct Answer-Excellent Process improvement in customer service can be measured how? - Correct Answer-Surveys, Monitoring Performance, Benchmarking, and Service Standards. ___________ can be an excellent way to measure customer service and improve performance. - Correct Answer-Feedback What are elements in improving customer service? - Correct Answer-Identify Customers, Attitude, Communication and Training. Communication is ______________. - Correct Answer-93% body language and 7% words. The major source of premise liability in healthcare is from _________ . - Correct Answer-Slips and falls. Property owners have a _________________ duty to maintain the property in a __________________ condition. - Correct Answer-legal... reasonably safe What elements are necessary to establish negligence in a premise liability case? - Correct Answer-Duty to the plaintiff, failure to meet the duty and breech of a duty caused an injury. Which risk factors should security officers identify? - Correct Answer-Burned out lights, breached fence lines and slip and fall hazards. Failure to conduct routine patrol can ultimately result in what? - Correct Answer-An increase in security spending and a liability exposure. K-9 patrol teams can be particularly effective in dealing with which situation? - Correct Answer-Emergency department violence. Bicycle patrol is? - Correct Answer-Faster than foot patrol and a vehicle in heavy traffic. __________ patrol contributes, more than any other method of patrol, to excessive socialization. - Correct Answer-Foot Security officers should have a valid driver's license if they are going to do what? - Correct Answer-Operate a motorized vehicle, conduct vehicle patrols on client property or transport authorized personnel. A security officer responding to a crime scene should do what? - Correct Answer-Respond as quickly as possible, observing all safety practices. After arriving at a crime scene, what should the security officer do first? - Correct Answer-Protect his or her personal safety. Which of these is an example of factual evidence? - Correct Answer-Physical evidence. Which of these should an office follow to be able to testify that the evidence presented has merit? - Correct Answer-Proper chain of custody. Why are initial information gathering and proper note-taking key to a successful investigation? - Correct Answer-1) They memorialize information gathered at the scene from those involved. 2) They refresh your memory for later report writing purposes. 3) They are subject to discovery in a criminal case and thus can be subpoenaed. [Show Less]
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IAHSS Supervisor Manual (3rd edition) Instructor Presentation Questions and Answers 2023/2024
Change, Challenge & Opportunities - Correct Answer-As a supervisor, your actions can result in liability to the organization and to you personally. Experi... [Show More] ences play a major role in becoming an effective supervisor. Supervision requires good judgment and the ability to not over-react or under-react. A healthcare facility is characterized by a rapidly changing environment. Regulation of the healthcare industry, ongoing managed care mandates, restructuring of healthcare organizations, impact of technology, and ongoing social and ethical factors. The Demands of the Security Supervisor Position - Correct Answer-Supervisors serve as the link between the higher levels of administration and the employees at the base of an administrative pyramid. Physicians do not typically fall into the pyramid, a common complicating factor. The supervisor is responsible to employees, his/her supervisor, to act as a connecting link between leadership and employees, and maintain good relationships with leaders and supervisors from other departments. A customer focus and good technical and professional skills are necessary. Basic Elements of Supervision - Correct Answer-Necessary skills: Above-average leadership skills Team-building skills Good communications skills Excellent follow-through on projects and special assignments Regularly demonstrated interpersonal skills The performance of the security officers you supervise shows your leadership ability. The most important factor in being a healthcare security supervisor is honesty and integrity. Suggestions for the Effective Supervisor - Correct Answer-Be flexible - adjust and overcome when things do not go as planned. Have a positive attitude about your department, your organization, and your profession. Be technically proficient. Find time for professional development. Stay abreast of changes in your local environment and the industry. "Your ability to create constructive change can be the greatest single indicator of your supervisory performance." Chapter 2 Supervisor Responsibilities - Correct Answer- Organizational Structure - Correct Answer-The size of an organization often determines the security department's structure. The larger the organization, the more likely security will have multiple levels of supervision. Having a champion for the security cause as close as possible to the top executive of the organization may very well determine the success of the department and, quite importantly, its funding. Success in Supervising - Correct Answer-Your success as a supervisor depends on your ability to: Make sound, value-based judgments Be honest, fair, and ethical Listen with genuine interest Be accountable—especially when you make a mistake Make tough decisions Make timely decisions Display personal and professional confidence You must be balanced in the way you interact with staff, subordinates, superiors, and the organization. Employees are security's most valuable asset: Security officers make most of the critical (in-the-moment) security decisions in the organization. Labor and labor-related costs amount to more than 93% of all security operating budgets. Success in Supervising - Correct Answer-Trust has the most impact on one's ability to successfully supervise. Advocate for your employees and do your best to put employees in situations where they are most likely to be successful. As much as you are an advocate for the employee, you are equally, if not more, an advocate for the organization. Most supervisory work falls into the categories of personnel and tasks. Key Personnel Responsibilities - Correct Answer-Hiring the right people, training, and retraining Giving recognition Coaching and mentoring Evaluating performance as an ongoing process Taking disciplinary action and terminating employees Dealing flexibly with employees' personal issues Effective listening is key Key Supervisory Tasks - Correct Answer-Documentation Often, ability to communicate in writing determines an individual's success as a supervisor. Scheduling The schedule must, first, work for your organization and, second, be fair and equitable for your staff. Budgets Being able to justify staffing needs is important Other assigned duties A means to contribute to the growth of the department as well as your own personal and professional growth. Policies and procedures Investigations Uniforms and equipment Keeping an Eye on the Little Things - Correct Answer-Every one of us wishes we had a person to take care of the "little things" that affect us. Schedules completed in advance, supplies ordered on time, etc. Keep problems small - address them as they arise. You will be respected for making a decision and standing by it. Good supervisors do not happen by accident. They are a product of hard work, tremendous patience, continuous learning, and a genuine commitment to staff. Chapter 3 Employee Relations and Employee Appraisals - Correct Answer- Employee Relations - Correct Answer-Employee relations are the employer-employee relationships that promotes morale, motivation, and productivity. The goal of employee relations is to prevent and resolve employee problems that are a product of or affect employee work situations. Management has the responsibility to provide employees with a clear interpretation of the organization's mission, vision, policies, and goals. Monthly meetings promote effective employer-to-employee relations. Employee Recognition - Correct Answer-Focusing on employee recognition develops an atmosphere that promotes teamwork, cooperation, innovation, and appreciation for individual and collective contribution. Goals of employee recognition Reinforce desired behaviors in the workplace Improve staff morale and satisfaction Increase productivity Promote teamwork Reward positive attitudes Deter negative attitudes Demonstrate value to the organization Increase loyalty to the organization Decrease turnover Create satisfied employees who contribute to satisfied patients and favorable Press Ganey scores Employee Appraisals - Correct Answer-The Joint Commission mandates that employee performance evaluations be completed and include the following: (The Joint Commission 2006; HR 1.20, 3.10, and 3.20) Planning Determine if staff qualifications are consistent with the employee's job responsibilities. Assessing Competence Assess, demonstrate, and maintain the staff's competence to perform job responsibilities. Periodic Evaluations of Performance Employee Appraisal An Ongoing Process - Correct Answer-Observe the work being performed Evaluate the results Maintain records Communicate with the employee Train the employee Observe performance again Types of reviews New hire appraisal, probationary appraisal, ongoing information review, and formal review. The Developmental Appraisal - Correct Answer-A developmental appraisal uses traditional appraisal components but incorporates a structure of communication between the employee and management. Focuses on development, emphasizes the organization's interest in employee development for retention. Most importantly, encourages an opportunity to formally indicate the direction and level of the employee's ambition, without a rankin Progressive Discipline - Correct Answer-Progressive discipline is a process of applying escalating penalties for repeated infractions. Four principles of progressive discipline Immediacy: Discipline should be immediate. Known Consequences: The employee is made aware of the consequences of his or her actions. Consistency: The employee experiences the same, consistent treatment each time a behavior is exhibited. Other employees experience the same, consistent treatment. Behavior-driven: The discipline is based on the behavior, not the person. Steps in progressive discipline Verbal warning Written warning Suspension Termination Employee Assistance Programs - Correct Answer-Most of the workforce will face problems that will interfere with daily work performance. A supervisor should know what resources are offered at their institution and how to access the resources. Sometimes disciplinary actions take advantage of an employee assistance program to create an opportunity for improvement. Employees usually are not required to participate in an employee assistance program as a condition of continued employment unless the services complement the corrective action process. Chapter 4 Authority and Control - Correct Answer- Formal and Informal Authority - Correct Answer-Formal authority is authority given to you by an organization to render decisions and perform actions related to your job responsibilities. Informal authority refers to the "gray areas" in the range of authority. Informal authority is not granted by the organization, but developed by the individual. Ability to exercise influence because you earned the respect and trust of others in the organization. Best developed through courtesy and respect for others. Chain of Command - Correct Answer-The chain of command is often described as an unbroken line of authority. The empowerment model is characterized by a moving away from rigid management authority, toward open decision making. Supervisors who exhibit delegation, team development, and self-management skills are the most successful. The span of control is invaluable to a supervisor, as decisions are best made by those closest to the action. Separates employees into levels. A situation can break down if you take on more authority and control than you have been given. Tools for Effective Management - Correct Answer-The security supervisor counts on several tools to effectively manage: The authority needed to discipline Input on who is assigned to the unit A voice when staff are considered for promotion The authority to require additional training The authority to communicate to your own staff, including sending instructions, memos, etc. The freedom to measure your staff's performance without interference Training must be continuous for supervisors. Becoming a Change Agent - Correct Answer-Businesses rarely succeed with sustainable transformation initiatives unless they are led from the top. Understanding the scope of the task at hand and creating a model to measure the effectiveness of the change are key. Styles of Authority - Correct Answer-Motivating subordinates to be productive members of the organization is your goal. The style of authority you use usually depends on the situation at hand: Authoritarian style: The supervisor is in total charge and is the enforcer in the department. You expect all subordinates to do as you order, without question. Laissez-faire: A less structured, hands-off approach to supervision where employees set their own goals, make their own policies, and follow their own procedures. Quality management is a group-oriented management style, the preferred supervisory style. Successful Quality Management - Correct Answer-Successful quality management is to use the skills and abilities of your individual officers in a group-oriented management style, giving employees the ability to make decisions that positively impact their daily assignments: Communication is open Explanations are given and reasons are provided for policies and procedures Employees have increased pride in their work and a sense of ownership Eventually, productivity increases and the quality of work is higher The Security Supervisor - Correct Answer-An inverted chain of command encourages supervisors to place themselves in the front-line, in the employees' shoes. The nursing, medical, facilities, risk management, legal, and other quality assurance departments need to understand the capability of the security officers and the resources they have been given to create a safe and secure environment. At any time, you may need and rely on external support from local, state, and federal authorities. Beyond the supervisory responsibility to manage security personnel, you also are responsible for maintaining an orderly facility. Influencing Others to Follow Orders - Correct Answer-Set a good example in following orders yourself. Make certain that orders are clear, concise, and understood. Be aware that what to do may be understood, but how to do it may not. Be thoroughly familiar with the levels and experience of subordinates. Delegate assignments to those officers whose experience is sufficient to assume the assignment. Focus on coaching those individuals who are unfamiliar with assignments to increase productivity and knowledge. Conduct yourself in a professional manner that influences loyalty in others; in return, you develop subordinates' confidence so they follow orders. Explain why assignments or orders are to be done. In Chapter 5 Leadership - Correct Answer- The Manager vs. The Leader - Correct Answer-Managers manage the status quo; they oversee a department or process to ensure efficiency and productivity. Leaders, on the other hand, go beyond that to create organizational change. Managers maintain the balance of the operation, while leaders create new approaches and imagine new areas to explore. Where managers act to limit choices by holding staff accountable to established procedures and processes, leaders work to inspire staff to challenge the established procedures and process and to develop fresh approaches to long-standing problems. The essence of leadership is found in the leader's ability to move the department to a higher level of performance. Characteristics of Good Leadership - Correct Answer-Hands-off management style A good leader recognizes when to get out of the way to let people do their jobs and when to challenge them. Focuses on staff retention and morale Employees are not loyal to organizations, they are loyal to people. Champions the staff Work is personal and what happens to someone at work is taken personally. Emphasizes accountability While employees need to feel rewarded and appreciated for a job well done, they also must see discipline imposed for unacceptable work or behavior. Actions of a Successful Leader - Correct Answer-Develops the Team: Develops a team of highly qualified officers who are jointly responsible for achieving the department's goals. Creates the Vision: Constructs a crystal clear mental picture of what the staff should become and then transmits this vision to others. Clarifies the Values: Identifies the organizational values and communicates these values through words and actions. Positions: Develops an effective strategy for moving the group from its present position toward the vision. Communicates: Achieves a common understanding with others by using all modes of communications effectively. Empowers: Motivates others by raising them to their "better selves." Coaches: Helps staff members develop the skills they need to achieve excellence. Measures: Identifies the critical success factors associated with the group's operation and gauges progress on the basis of these factors. Types of Leaders - Correct Answer-*The Transformational Leader: Motivates others by using visionary, inspirational, and intellectually stimulating approaches and paying high attention to the individual differences among people. Moral leadership style Demonstrates how effective that individual is as a person and how well they are understood by others. Subordinates who respect their leaders emulate the leader's style and actions. The Transactional Leader: *Adopts the belief that when people have agreed to do a job they cede all authority to their manager as part of the deal; and that the prime purpose of a subordinate is to do what the manager assigns. *Bureaucratic leadership style *Communicate and enforce rules *Progressive leadership style *Set objectives and then go about reaching them in an organized, orderly, and conscious way Becoming a Leader - Correct Answer-Leaders should always endeavor to train their staffs to become good leaders. An effective leader needs to manage time effectively and feel comfortable sharing power and authority with staff through delegation. Effective leadership skills are not necessarily second nature. Rather, as a supervisor, you must learn them and put them into practice. Wanting to be a leader and believing that you can lead are only the starting points on the path to effective leadership. [Show Less]
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