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Straighterline.com BIO 202 A&P II Quiz 1 Cardiovascular System Blood (Graded A+) 2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 1: Cardiovascular System: Blood Started on Thursday, October 21, 2021, 12:32 AM State Finished Completed on Thurs... [Show More] day, October 21, 2021, 12:51 AM Time taken 18 mins 38 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Feedback You’re off to a good start. A course grade of 70% is required to request a transcript. Y reattempt for a higher grade you can retake this assessment. Study hard for each exam, Remember that 10 hours of tutoring are provided to you through your StraighterLine m Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Fibrinolysis is responsible for Select one: a. activation of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. b. activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. c. clot retraction. d. clot dissolution. e. clot consolidation.Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What gas is also carried by a beta-globin that may help regulate blood pressure? Select one: a. carbon monoxide b. carbon dioxide c. nitrogen d. nitric oxide Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is a stage of hemostasis? Select one: a. coagulation b. erythropoiesis c. platelet formation d. vascular dilation e. agglutination Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following would lead to increased erythropoiesis? Select one: a. increased environmental O2 levels b. increased erythropoietin levels c. increased blood pH d. increased blood pressure e. increased CO2 levels Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) occurs when Select one: a. an Rh-positive woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus. b. an Rh-positive woman is carrying an Rh-negative fetus. c. an Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-negative fetus. d. an Rh-negative woman is carrying an Rh-positive fetus. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text In hemolytic disease of the newborn, Select one: a. antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus. b. hemolysis of white blood cells may occur. c. fibrin is hydrolyzed. d. the mother frequently dies during childbirth. e. antibodies from the fetus cross the placenta and affect the mother. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is mismatched? Select one: a. blood typing - determines ABO and Rh blood groups of a blood sample b. blood crossmatch - donor and recipient blood cells are mixed together c. complete blood count - includes RBC and WBC counts d. differential count - determines the percent of each kind of leukocyte in the blood e. hematocrit - percentage of total blood volume composed of RBCs Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The function of plasmin is to Select one:a. hydrolyze fibrin. b. activate factor XII. c. promote platelet plug formation. d. control osmotic pressure of the blood. e. promote the formation of plasma. Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text When a blood vessel is damaged, which of the following events occurs last? Select one: a. Collagen is exposed. b. Platelets adhere to collagen. c. Platelets are activated. d. Platelets begin to stick to each other and form a plug. e. von Willebrand factor is produced. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following cell types is incorrectly matched with its description? Select one: a. neutrophils - most numerous WBCs b. basophils - release histaminec. lymphocytes - become macrophages d. monocytes - largest of the WBCs e. eosinophils - attack worm parasites Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which plasma protein is correctly matched to its function? Select one: a. fibrinogen - transport of fatty acids b. albumin - helps to fight infection c. globulin - transport and immunity d. globulin - blood clotting Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The ability of white blood cells to leave the circulation and enter tissues is called Select one: a. chemotaxis. b. diapedesis. c. margination. d. intrusion. e. exocytosis.Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Red blood cells have antigenic markers on their surfaces called: Select one: a. agglutinins b. antibodies c. haptens d. agglutinogens Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What type of gene expression occurs when a person has type AB blood? Select one: a. homozygous dominant b. homozygous recessive c. incomplete dominance d. codominance Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The total blood volume is ____ plasma. Select one: a. 50% b. 90% c. 75% d. 55% Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Mike has blood type A. He needs blood, however blood type A is not available. The next best choice would be blood type _______. Select one: a. AB b. B c. O Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question textA person with type O blood should receive a blood transfusion from a donor with Select one: a. type A blood. b. type B blood. c. type O blood. d. type AB blood. e. any type of blood. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Red blood cells will develop from Select one: a. proerythroblasts. b. monoblasts. c. myeloblasts. d. megakaryoblasts. e. lymphoblasts. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Choose the arrangement that lists the chemicals in the order in which they would be used for coagulation. (1) thrombin(2) fibrinogen (3) prothrombinase (4) activated factor XII Select one: a. 3, 2, 4, 1 b. 4, 3, 2, 1 c. 4, 3, 1, 2 d. 3, 4, 1, 2 e. 3, 1, 4, 2 Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text A person with type B blood Select one: a. has antigen A. b. has anti-A antibodies . c. will have a transfusion reaction if given type B blood. d. has anti-B antibodies. e. can receive type A blood. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 2 Cardiovascular System The Heart (Graded A+)2022
BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 2: Cardiovascular System: The Heart Started on Thursday, October 21, 2021, 12:55 AM State Finished Completed on Thursday, Oc... [Show More] tober 21, 2021, 1:18 AM Time taken 22 mins 51 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following events occurs first? Select one: a. threshold b. depolarization c. early repolarization d. final repolarization e. pacemaker potential Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following is a function of the heart skeleton? Select one: a. Provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles. b. Supplies support and reinforcement for the valves. c. Provides a rigid site for cardiac muscle attachment. d. All of the choices are functions of the heart skeleton. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Excess potassium ions in cardiac tissue cause Select one: a. an increased heart rate. b. a rapid repolarization of cardiac cells. c. a decrease in the frequency of action potentials in the conduction system. d. an increase in stroke volume. e. an increase in the frequency of action potentials. Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text The delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the body is accomplished through ________ circulation. Select one: a. hepatic b. pulmonary c. peripheral d. systemic Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Lowered extracellular potassium levels will lower the heart rate because Select one: a. the resting membrane potential is hyperpolarized. b. ectopic action potentials occur. c. action potential amplitude declines. d. more sodium channels open. e. it blocks calcium channels. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is mismatched? Select one:a. opening of sodium channels - depolarization b. closing of calcium channels - plateau phase c. opening of potassium channels - rapid repolarization d. closure of sodium channels - early repolarization e. opening of calcium channels - plateau phase Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The heart Select one: a. is a four-chambered muscular pump. b. is posterior to the trachea. c. is lined with an epithelial layer called epicardium. d. lies mostly to the right of the midline of the sternum. e. has a superior apex and an inferior base. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Cardiac muscle cells Select one: a. have smooth ER but no T tubules. b. form the heart valves.c. are maintained by an extensive capillary network. d. develop a significant oxygen debt during systole. e. do not contain actin and myosin like skeletal muscle cells. Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following phrases would apply to cardiac muscle cells? Select one: a. are organized in parallel columns or bundles b. contain actin but no myosin c. develop a significant oxygen debt during systole d. are multinucleated like skeletal muscle cells e. possess special cell-to-cell contacts called intercalated discs Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Small changes in _____________ will have a large impact on the heart's pumping effectiveness, while large changes in ___________ do not impact the effectiveness much. Select one: a. afterload; preload b. preload; afterload c. contractility; preloadd. afterload; contractility e. contractility; afterload Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What abnormal heart rhythm could be caused by an elevated body temperature, excessive sympathetic stimulation, or toxic conditions? Select one: a. bradycardia b. atrial fibrillation c. second-degree AV node block d. tachycardia Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Calcium channel blockers are frequently used to Select one: a. increase the heart rate. b. treat tachycardia or other arrhythmias. c. speed up conduction of impulses through the AV node. d. slow the closing of potassium ion channels. e. treat bradycardia and low blood pressure. Question 13Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following might increase the risk for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. stopping smoking b. exercise c. maintaining normal cholesterol levels d. chronic stress e. lots of fiber in the diet Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Aortic stenosis results from Select one: a. a hole in the interatrial septum. b. a weakening of heart muscle. c. a narrowed opening through the aortic valve. d. low oxygen levels. e. leakage from the AV valves. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Coronary artery disease can diminish myocardial blood flow resulting in the death of myocardial cells. This condition is known as a myocardial Select one: a. attack. b. angina. c. necrosis. d. cirrhosis. e. infarction. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In the cardiac cycle, Select one: a. the right atrium and the right ventricle contract simultaneously. b. the left atrium contracts before the right atrium. c. all four chambers of the heart contract at the same time. d. all four chambers of the heart are in diastole at the same time. Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text During hemorrhagic shock in which blood pressure is decreased, which of the regulatory mechanisms is most important is increasing cardiac output to help maintain blood pressure? Select one: a. increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart b. increase venous return c. increase in parasympathetic stimulation of the heart d. increase vagal stimulation of the heart e. increase in the amplitude of the heart sounds Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In the cardiac cycle, Select one: a. the right atrium and the right ventricle contract simultaneously. b. the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract. c. the left atrium contracts before the right atrium. d. all four chambers of the heart contract at the same time. e. all four chambers of the heart are in systole at the same time. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text An incompetent pulmonary semilunar valve could result in less blood reaching the Select one: a. lungs. b. heart muscle. c. right ventricle. d. aorta. e. right atrium. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Variations in respiratory rate is a symptom of Select one: a. sinus arrhythmia. b. ventricular tachycardia. c. SA node block. d. paroxysmal atrial tachycardia [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 3 Cardiovascular System Blood Vessels & Circulation(Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 3: Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation Started on Thursday, October 21, 2021, 1:22 AM State Finis... [Show More] hed Completed on Thursday, October 21, 2021, 1:45 AM Time taken 23 mins 8 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Venous drainage from the posterior thoracic wall enters the superior vena cava via the ______ vein. Select one: a. subclavian b. internal thoracic c. accessory hemiazygos d. hemiazygos e. azygos Question 2Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Select the description below that describes pulmonary circulation. Select one: a. System of blood vessels that carries blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the right atrium of the heart. b. System of blood vessels that a carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. c. Finely dissected blood vessels that allow for the exchange of nutrients in the tissues. d. System of blood vessels that carries blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the left atrium of the heart. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the splenic vein and the Select one: a. superior mesenteric vein. b. inferior mesenteric vein. c. hepatic vein. d. renal vein. e. gastric vein. Question 4 Correct2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The three major arteries of the upper limb that form a continuum are the Select one: a. brachial, radial, and ulnar arteries. b. brachial, axillary, and radial arteries. c. subclavian, axillary, and radial arteries. d. subclavian, axillary, and brachial arteries. e. cephalic, basilic, and brachial arteries Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text All of the following are functions of the circulatory system, except Select one: a. carries blood. b. regulates blood pressure. c. transports nutrients. d. directs blood flow to tissues. e. excretes wastes. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Blood flow into the deep and superficial palmar arches originates from the ______ and ____ arteries. Select one: a. humeral circumflex; deep brachial b. superficial palmar arch; digital c. brachial; subclavian d. axillary; subclavian e. radial; ulnar Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text According to Poiseuille's law, a small decrease in the diameter of a vessel will Select one: a. dramatically decrease blood flow. b. slightly decrease blood flow. c. not affect blood flow. d. slightly increase blood flow. e. dramatically increase blood flow. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following would occur as a result of increased renin release by the kidneys? Select one: a. an increase in vasodilator secretion b. an increase in urine output c. an increase in blood volume d. a decrease in aldosterone e. a decrease in blood pressure Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Arteries can constrict or dilate as needed because of the smooth muscle found in the Select one: a. tunica intima. b. tunica media. c. tunica adventitia. d. tunica externa. e. tunica interna. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following functions is associated with vessels that carry blood directly from arterioles to veins without passing through capillaries? Select one: a. thermoregulation b. nutrient supply to tissues c. removal of metabolic waste products from tissues d. oxygen supply to tissues e. pH regulation Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which kind of vessel provides a bypass for a capillary bed? Select one: a. sinusoid b. portal vein c. thoroughfare channel d. vasa vasorum e. metarteriole Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text What are vasa vasorum? Select one: a. Blood vessels that connect primary and secondary capillary networks. b. Structures within veins that keep blood flowing in one direction. c. Connective tissue that surrounds large vessels. d. Nerve plexuses surrounding the blood vessel. e. Blood vessels that nourish the tunica adventitia and tunica media. Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following enhances the exchange between capillary walls and the interstitial spaces? Select one: a. the thinness of the capillary wall b. minimal branching in the capillary bed c. increased blood velocity through the capillaries d. the high pressure in the interstitial spaces e. the stratification of the capillary wall Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text In capillary exchange, which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Most fluid that leaves the arterial end of a capillary reenters the venous end of a capillary. b. Interstitial fluid normally has a higher osmotic pressure than plasma. c. Constriction of the precapillary sphincter will increase blood pressure in the capillary. d. Interstitial protein concentration is normally higher than plasma protein concentration. e. Most fluid that leaves the arterial end of a capillary enters the lymphatic system. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What is the order of the blood vessels that a red blood cell would pass through as the blood leaves the heart, travels to a tissue, and then returns to the heart? Select one: a. arteriole, artery, capillary, vein, venule b. capillary, arteriole, artery, vein, venule c. artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, vein d. vein, capillary, artery, arteriole, venule e. artery, venule, capillary, arteriole, vein Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a pericapillary cell found in capillaries? Select one: a. macrophages b. neurons c. undifferentiated smooth muscle cells d. fibroblasts Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Arteriosclerosis results in decreased compliance, which in turn causes the pulse pressure to Select one: a. increase. b. decrease. c. increase, then decrease. d. decrease, then increase. e. remain the same. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text Art is 75. He has advanced arteriosclerosis. He is suffering from a number of manifestations, which are consistent with his arteriosclerosis. Over the past several years he has developed hypertension and he is beginning to show signs of renal failure. Which of the following are consistent with his condition? Select one: a. increased resistance to blood flow b. increased renin secretion from the kidneys c. increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex d. increased angiotensinogen formation e. All of these choices is correct. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In response to circulatory shock, Select one: a. the body decreases ADH secretion. b. the renin-angiotensin mechanism is activated. c. atrial natriuretic factor is released. d. the vasomotor center is inhibited. e. the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors are inactivated. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text Case study: Dale Fremore was back home after spending the day at a picnic where he ate some "spoiled" potato salad. He developed severe abdominal pain and cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea. After about ten to twelve episodes of water diarrhea, Mr. Fremore became so pale and weak he could hardly walk. His wife took him to the hospital where he was diagnosed with severe dehydration (decreased plasma volume). Mr. Fremore was suffering from shock. The body has several mechanisms that can come into play to try to maintain blood pressure and blood flow when a person goes into shock. Urine output usually decreases when a person is in shock. This is the result of Select one: a. decreased ADH secretion. b. increased renin secretion. c. increased secretion of atrial natriuretic factor. d. decreased vasoconstriction due to the stress relaxation response. e. decreased aldosterone secretion [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 4 Lymphatic System (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 4: Lymphatic System Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 3:31 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, October 22, ... [Show More] 2021, 3:57 PM Time taken 26 mins Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called Select one: a. cortex. b. capsule. c. reticulum. d. trabeculum. e. basement membrane. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following statements accurately describes the thymus gland? Select one: a. The thymus gland lacks a capsule. b. The thymus gland contains many reticular fibers. c. The thymus gland decreases in size after age 60. d. Lymphocytes are found only in the medulla of the thymus gland. e. The thymus increases in size with aging. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text All of the following are components of lymph, except Select one: a. water. b. ions. c. nutrients. d. hormones. e. red blood cells. Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Lacteals are Select one: a. a type of lymphocyte. b. a nonspecific defense. c. lymphatic vessels in the lining of the small intestine. d. the sinuses inside a lymph node. e. germinal centers. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The only structures that filter lymph is/are the Select one: a. tonsils. b. spleen. c. lymph nodes. d. thymus. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text Describe the wall of lymphatic capillaries. Select one: a. Thin-walled, with tightly joined squamous cells b. Thin-walled, with tightly joined cuboidal cells c. Thick-walled, with overlapping squamous cells d. Thick-walled, with tightly joined squamous cells e. Thin-walled, with overlapping squamous cells Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The palatine tonsils Select one: a. interfere with breathing when enlarged. b. are located at the junction of the oral cavity and pharynx. c. are located superior to the palate. d. are really lymph nodes in disguise. e. are located in the nasopharynx. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Lymph movement is assisted by Select one:a. contraction of skeletal muscle. b. contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel. c. pressure changes in the thorax during respiration. d. compression of lymphatic vessels. e. All of these choices are correct. Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The thymus is where ____ mature and become functional immune cells. Select one: a. pre-T cells b. pre-B cells c. macrophages d. null cells e. C cells. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The spleen Select one: a. filters damaged red blood cells from the blood. b. changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes.c. is necessary for life. It can't be removed without causing death. d. produces several different hormones with unknown function. e. has additional digestive functions. Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Peyer patches are lymphatic nodules found in the Select one: a. lymph nodes. b. spleen and tonsils. c. appendix and tonsils. d. small intestine and appendix. Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Mucosal associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) are: Select one: a. aggregates of macrophages located in the intestines. b. clusters of splenocytes located in the lamina propria of mucous membranes. c. clumps of mucous lining the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract. d. aggregates of lymphatic tissue scattered throughout the lamina propria of mucous membranes. Question 13Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by Select one: a. adding lymph to GI tract secretions. b. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma. c. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver. d. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted. e. actively absorbing fluid from the blood. Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Germinal centers are the sites of Select one: a. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes. b. fluid production. c. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues. d. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes. e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Tonsils Select one: a. increase in size in adults. b. are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities. c. provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities. d. contain red pulp and white pulp. e. are not functional in children. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by _____ in the sinuses of lymph nodes. Select one: a. trabecular cells b. germinal cells c. macrophages. d. lymphocytes e. plasma cells Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? Select one: a. Defending from infection caused by microorganisms and other foreign substances. b. Aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells. c. Maintaining fluid balance by returning excess interstitial fluid to the blood. d. Absorbing and transporting lipids from the digestive tract. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Lymphatic tissue contains an interlaced network of reticular fibers that functions to Select one: a. produce lymphocytes. b. produce capsules around lymph nodes. c. attack microorganisms. d. line the walls of lymphatic vessels. e. trap microorganisms. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text The lymphatic system is involved in Select one: a. lipid absorption from the digestive tract. b. transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver. c. maintenance of pH in the tissues. d. production of erythrocytes. e. protein metabolism. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that Select one: a. the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues. b. the lymphatic vessels have their own "pump" to assist flow. c. lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid. d. lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries. e. lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 5 Immunity (Graded A+)2022
BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 5: Immunity Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 4:02 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, October 22, 2021, 4:21 PM Time... [Show More] taken 19 mins 8 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Primary lymphatic organs include the Select one: a. tonsils and spleen. b. thymus and lymph nodes. c. red bone marrow and thymus. d. red bone marrow and lymph nodes. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Transfusing a person with plasma proteins from a person or an animal that has been actively immunized against a specific antigen provides Select one: a. active immunity. b. passive immunity. c. no immunity. d. autoimmunity. e. natural immunity. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of complement action? Select one: a. produces cytokines b. opsonization c. attracts other immune cells to the site of infection d. forms a MAC that leads to cell lysis Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text A traditional method of providing temporary immunity for a person who is suspected of being infected (usually be an animal bite) with rabies is classified as Select one: a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity. d. passive artificial immunity. e. passive active immunity. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Interferon Select one: a. directly attacks viruses. b. protects cells that have been invaded by viruses. c. increases vascular permeability. d. is not produced by most cells. e. is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text T helper cells possess a glycoprotein called CD4. This molecule binds to Select one: a. MHC class I molecules. b. MHC class II molecules. c. MHC-CD8 antigens. d. MHC-CD28 antigens. e. Interleukin-1 receptor. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The intense inflammatory response seen in poison ivy is due to activity of the Select one: a. cytotoxic T cells. b. plasma cells. c. delayed hypersensitivity cells. d. macrophages. e. mast cells. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Why is a cell-mediated immune response more effective against intracellular microorganisms (such as viruses) than an antibody-mediated response? Select one: a. Cell-mediated (vs. antibody-mediated) response results in activation of a many more immune cells, so it is more effective at destroying antigens b. Intracellular microorganisms are too large for antibodies to be effective against c. Intracellular microorganisms are too small for antibodies to be effective against d. Cell-mediated response results in destruction of cell containing the intracellular microorganism; antibodies can't enter cells Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Treatments of disease that include the alteration of immune functions are called: Select one: a. hypersensitivity. b. passive immunity. c. active immunity. d. adaptive immunity. e. immunotherapy. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text An individual develops a cold from a co-worker. This is an example of ______ immunity. Select one: a. active artificial b. passive natural c. passive artificial d. active natural Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is correctly matched? Select one: a. IgA - found in saliva and tears b. IgD - can cross the placenta c. IgG - first to challenge the antigen d. IgM - Binds to mast cell e. IgE - transfusion reactions Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text An MHC class II/antigen complex on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell (APC) binds to a T-cell receptor. What results from this interaction? Select one: a. Other immune cells are inhibited b. The antigen is phagocytized by the T cell c. The T cell responds by directly destroying the APC d. Other immune cells are stimulated to respond to the antigen Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the lymphatic system and immunity? Select one: a. Fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced. b. Fewer antibodies are produced. c. Onset of autoimmune diseases is unchanged. d. T cell numbers remain constant but they are less functional. Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is false? Select one: a. The HIV virus binds to the CD4 molecule of host cells.b. There is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT. c. Most manifestations of AIDS are explained by the loss of helper T cell functions. d. Once infected by the virus, a person will test positive for HIV antibodies. e. In order for HIV to replicate, viral RNA is used to make viral DNA, which is inserted into the host cell's DNA. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The HIV virus can be transmitted Select one: a. only from males to other males. b. during unprotected sexual intercourse. c. by coughing or sneezing. d. by contact with people at work. e. by hugging an infected child. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following will increase your risk of contracting the HIV virus? Select one: a. use of a condom during intercourse b. heat treatment of clotting factors prior to transfusionc. use of contaminated needles d. reduction in the number of sexual partners e. abstinence Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In immunodeficiency diseases, Select one: a. the immune system fails to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens. b. inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur. c. IgE mediates a localized reaction. d. serum sickness results. e. immune surveillance occurs. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Several research groups are working on vaccines that will be effective against the AIDS virus. When a successful vaccine is produced, it is likely to be injected to produce Select one: a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity.d. passive artificial immunity. e. active passive immunity. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text An abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called Select one: a. immunization. b. an innate immune response. c. hypersensitivity. d. excess immunity. e. tolerance. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The HIV virus infects Select one: a. B cells. b. cytotoxic T cells. c. suppressor T cells. d. helper T cells. e. monocytes. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 6 Respiratory System (Graded A+)2022
BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 5: Immunity Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 4:02 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, October 22, 2021, 4:21 PM Time... [Show More] taken 19 mins 8 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Primary lymphatic organs include the Select one: a. tonsils and spleen. b. thymus and lymph nodes. c. red bone marrow and thymus. d. red bone marrow and lymph nodes. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Transfusing a person with plasma proteins from a person or an animal that has been actively immunized against a specific antigen provides Select one: a. active immunity. b. passive immunity. c. no immunity. d. autoimmunity. e. natural immunity. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of complement action? Select one: a. produces cytokines b. opsonization c. attracts other immune cells to the site of infection d. forms a MAC that leads to cell lysis Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text A traditional method of providing temporary immunity for a person who is suspected of being infected (usually be an animal bite) with rabies is classified as Select one: a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity. d. passive artificial immunity. e. passive active immunity. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Interferon Select one: a. directly attacks viruses. b. protects cells that have been invaded by viruses. c. increases vascular permeability. d. is not produced by most cells. e. is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text T helper cells possess a glycoprotein called CD4. This molecule binds to Select one: a. MHC class I molecules. b. MHC class II molecules. c. MHC-CD8 antigens. d. MHC-CD28 antigens. e. Interleukin-1 receptor. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The intense inflammatory response seen in poison ivy is due to activity of the Select one: a. cytotoxic T cells. b. plasma cells. c. delayed hypersensitivity cells. d. macrophages. e. mast cells. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Why is a cell-mediated immune response more effective against intracellular microorganisms (such as viruses) than an antibody-mediated response? Select one: a. Cell-mediated (vs. antibody-mediated) response results in activation of a many more immune cells, so it is more effective at destroying antigens b. Intracellular microorganisms are too large for antibodies to be effective against c. Intracellular microorganisms are too small for antibodies to be effective against d. Cell-mediated response results in destruction of cell containing the intracellular microorganism; antibodies can't enter cells Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Treatments of disease that include the alteration of immune functions are called: Select one: a. hypersensitivity. b. passive immunity. c. active immunity. d. adaptive immunity. e. immunotherapy. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text An individual develops a cold from a co-worker. This is an example of ______ immunity. Select one: a. active artificial b. passive natural c. passive artificial d. active natural Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is correctly matched? Select one: a. IgA - found in saliva and tears b. IgD - can cross the placenta c. IgG - first to challenge the antigen d. IgM - Binds to mast cell e. IgE - transfusion reactions Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text An MHC class II/antigen complex on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell (APC) binds to a T-cell receptor. What results from this interaction? Select one: a. Other immune cells are inhibited b. The antigen is phagocytized by the T cell c. The T cell responds by directly destroying the APC d. Other immune cells are stimulated to respond to the antigen Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the lymphatic system and immunity? Select one: a. Fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced. b. Fewer antibodies are produced. c. Onset of autoimmune diseases is unchanged. d. T cell numbers remain constant but they are less functional. Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is false? Select one: a. The HIV virus binds to the CD4 molecule of host cells.b. There is currently only one cure for AIDS - AZT. c. Most manifestations of AIDS are explained by the loss of helper T cell functions. d. Once infected by the virus, a person will test positive for HIV antibodies. e. In order for HIV to replicate, viral RNA is used to make viral DNA, which is inserted into the host cell's DNA. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The HIV virus can be transmitted Select one: a. only from males to other males. b. during unprotected sexual intercourse. c. by coughing or sneezing. d. by contact with people at work. e. by hugging an infected child. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following will increase your risk of contracting the HIV virus? Select one: a. use of a condom during intercourse b. heat treatment of clotting factors prior to transfusionc. use of contaminated needles d. reduction in the number of sexual partners e. abstinence Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In immunodeficiency diseases, Select one: a. the immune system fails to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens. b. inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur. c. IgE mediates a localized reaction. d. serum sickness results. e. immune surveillance occurs. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Several research groups are working on vaccines that will be effective against the AIDS virus. When a successful vaccine is produced, it is likely to be injected to produce Select one: a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity.d. passive artificial immunity. e. active passive immunity. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text An abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called Select one: a. immunization. b. an innate immune response. c. hypersensitivity. d. excess immunity. e. tolerance. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The HIV virus infects Select one: a. B cells. b. cytotoxic T cells. c. suppressor T cells. d. helper T cells. e. monocytes. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 7 Digestive System (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 7: Digestive System Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 4:55 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, October 22, ... [Show More] 2021, 5:24 PM Time taken 29 mins 1 sec Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following regions of the stomach is correctly matched with its description? Select one: a. body - portion closest to the esophagus b. pylorus - the most inferior portion of the stomach c. fundus - opening from the stomach into the duodenum d. cardiac region - the largest portion of the stomach e. pyloric opening - opening from the esophagus Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The gallbladder Select one: a. produces bile. b. is attached to the pancreas. c. stores bile. d. produces secretin. e. breaks down red blood cells. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following cell types of the stomach is correctly matched with its function? Select one: a. mucous cells - produce intrinsic factor b. parietal cells - produce hydrochloric acid c. chief cells - produce mucus d. endocrine cells - produce enzymes e. chief cells - produce hormones Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following is a function of the hepatocytes? Select one: a. produce digestive enzymes b. synthesize hormones c. produce hydrochloric acid d. synthesize bile e. regulate pH Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What is the function of the gallbladder? Select one: a. produce bile b. store bicarbonate c. add pigment to bile d. store and concentrate bile Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text Arrange the following in proper sequence: (1) digestion (2) elimination (3) ingestion (4) absorption Select one: a. 3, 4, 2, 1 b. 1, 4, 3, 2 c. 4, 1, 2, 3 d. 3, 4, 1, 2 e. 3, 1, 4, 2 Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Assume we could alter the conditions in the duodenum. If we inserted a large volume of highly acidic chyme which contained a large amount of fat, which of the following responses are consistent with that? (1) decreased gastric acid secretion (2) increased bile production (3) increased pancreatic bicarbonate production and pancreatic enzyme secretion (4) increased secretin and cholecystokinin Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 3, 4 e. 1, 2, 4 Question 8 Correct2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text When chyme enters the duodenum, ____ is released and stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonates. Select one: a. gastrin b. secretin c. insulin d. cholecystokinin e. glucagon Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following does NOT illustrate digestion? Select one: a. polysaccharides → disaccharides b. fat → fatty acids and glycerol c. CO2 and H2O→carbohydrates d. protein → amino acids e. disaccharides → monosaccharides Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The formation of HCl in the stomach involves the Select one: a. active transport of hydrogen ions from parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach. b. exchange of sodium ions for hydrogen ions in the transport process. c. active transport of chloride ions from parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach. d. exchange of sodium and bicarbonate ions. e. the combination of carbon dioxide and water. Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest: (1) dipeptide (2) protein (3) amino acid (4) polypeptide Select one: a. 3, 1, 4, 2 b. 4, 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 4, 1, 3 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. 2, 4, 3, 1 Question 12 Correct2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The myenteric plexus is found in the _____ of the digestive tract wall. Select one: a. mucosa b. serosa c. submucosa d. muscularis e. adventitia Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is associated with the tongue? Select one: a. uvula b. constrictor muscles c. papillae and taste buds d. periodontal ligament e. fauces Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text What are the two major neurotransmitters of the ENS in the digestive tract? Select one: a. epinephrine and serotonin b. epinephrine and norepinephrine c. acetylcholine and epinephrine d. norepinephrine and acetylcholine Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following components of saliva is mismatched with its function? Select one: a. mucin - lubricant b. lysozyme - antibacterial properties c. bicarbonate - neutralizes acid d. IgA - prevents infection e. salivary amylase - begins protein digestion Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text The epiglottis covers the opening into the larynx during Select one: a. the voluntary phase of swallowing. b. the pharyngeal phase of swallowing. c. the esophageal phase of swallowing. d. the gastric phase of swallowing. e. the oral phase of swallowing. Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Gastritis, peptic ulcers and gastric cancer can all be caused by Select one: a. Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium. b. increased secretion of gastric bicarbonate. c. pH of the stomach contents continuously greater than 4. d. increased mucus production by the neck cells. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Inflammation of the gums is called Select one:a. dental carries. b. pyorrhea. c. halitosis. d. gingivitis. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text How are ions such as sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate transported from the intestinal lumen? Select one: a. passive transport b. osmosis c. diffusion d. active transport Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Insulin increases the rate of _____ transport into cells. Select one: a. sucrose b. fructose c. glucosed. galactose e. lactose [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Cumulative Midterm Exam (Graded A+)2022
BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 7: Digestive System Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 5:31 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, October 22, 2021, 6:13 ... [Show More] PM Time taken 42 mins 7 secs Grade 175.50 out of 180.00 (98%) Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text When a person develops a sore throat, white blood cells are drawn to the area of infection by a process called Select one: a. chemotaxis. b. diapedesis. c. margination. d. ameboid movement. e. attraction. Question 2 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following phrases is least likely to be used in describing erythrocytes? Select one: a. biconcave cells b. cells can change shape c. cytoplasm contains hemoglobin d. nucleus is centrally located e. main role is transporting blood gases Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text When large quantities of blood are lost, erythrocytes must be replaced to restore Select one: a. the body's ability to fight infection. b. oxygen-carrying capacity. c. thrombin levels. d. normal blood pH. e. iron levels. Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following cell types is an immature red blood cell? Select one: a. erythrocyte b. reticulocyte c. thrombocyte d. monocyte e. leukocyte Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text On which chromosome is there a mutation that leads to sickle cell anemia? Select one: a. chromosome 3 b. chromosome 11 c. chromosome 14 d. chromosome 21 Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text The total blood volume is ____ plasma. Select one: a. 50% b. 90% c. 75% d. 55% Question 7 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Within normal limits, an increase in preload leads to Select one: a. an increase in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction. b. a decrease in cardiac output and force of left ventricular contraction. c. an increase in cardiac output and a decrease in force of left ventricular contraction. d. a decrease in cardiac output and an increase in the force of left ventricular contraction. e. a decrease in stroke volume and heart rate. Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text E.Z. Goen is admitted to the cardiac unit with a diagnosis of endocarditis. When E.Z. asks the nurse where the infection is located, the nurse replies that the infection is in Select one:a. the outer layer of the heart wall. b. the inner lining of the heart. c. a membranous sac that encloses the heart wall. d. the muscular layer of the heart. e. the lining of the mediastinum. Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text If the heart receives more sympathetic stimulation than parasympathetic stimulation, the heart will Select one: a. increase its rate and force of contraction. b. contract with greater force but at a slower rate. c. decrease both its rate and force of contraction. d. contract with less force but at a faster rate. e. decrease rate, but increase force of contraction. Question 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text During hemorrhagic shock in which blood pressure is decreased, which of the regulatory mechanisms is most important is increasing cardiac output to help maintain blood pressure? Select one: a. increased sympathetic stimulation of the heartb. increase venous return c. increase in parasympathetic stimulation of the heart d. increase vagal stimulation of the heart e. increase in the amplitude of the heart sounds Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text What abnormal heart rhythm could be caused by an elevated body temperature, excessive sympathetic stimulation, or toxic conditions? Select one: a. bradycardia b. atrial fibrillation c. second-degree AV node block d. tachycardia Question 12 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by reduced Select one: a. stimulation of the myocardium. b. blood supply to cardiac muscle. c. fluid in the pericardial sac. d. contractility of the heart.e. action potentials from SA node. Question 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following happens when a person stands in one place for a long period of time? Select one: a. Gravity causes an increased accumulation of blood in the veins in the feet and legs. b. Blood pressure rises in the venules of the feet. c. Without muscular movement the pressure at the venous end of the capillaries increases. d. Edema may occur in the lower extremities. e. All of these choices are correct. Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The visceral branches of the internal iliac arteries supply blood to the Select one: a. external genitalia. b. urinary bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs. c. lower leg. d. anterior abdominal wall. e. lumbar and gluteal muscles. Question 15Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which kind of vessel provides a bypass for a capillary bed? Select one: a. sinusoid b. portal vein c. thoroughfare channel d. vasa vasorum e. metarteriole Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text In a capillary bed, relaxation of the precapillary sphincter Select one: a. causes more blood flow through thoroughfare channels. b. causes less blood to flow through capillaries. c. occurs when the tissue in the area does not need more oxygen. d. is voluntary. e. occurs when the tissue in the area needs more oxygen. Question 17 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Case study: Dale Fremore was back home after spending the day at a picnic where he ate some "spoiled" potato salad. He developed severe abdominal pain and cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea. After about ten to twelve episodes of water diarrhea, Mr. Fremore became so pale and weak he could hardly walk. His wife took him to the hospital where he was diagnosed with severe dehydration (decreased plasma volume). Mr. Fremore was suffering from shock. The body has several mechanisms that can come into play to try to maintain blood pressure and blood flow when a person goes into shock. Urine output usually decreases when a person is in shock. This is the result of Select one: a. decreased ADH secretion. b. increased renin secretion. c. increased secretion of atrial natriuretic factor. d. decreased vasoconstriction due to the stress relaxation response. e. decreased aldosterone secretion Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text In which of the following would you detect a weak pulse? Select one: a. hypertensionb. hemorrhagic shock c. fluid excess d. increased stroke volume e. a healthy young person Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The white pulp of the spleen Select one: a. contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immune response. b. filters lymph as it flows through the spleen. c. destroys defective red blood cells. d. stimulates immune responses, filter lymph, and destroys defective red blood cells. Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries? Select one: a. Lymphatic capillaries do not have a basement membrane. b. Simple squamous epithelial cells of lymphatics overlap with loose attachments. c. Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries. d. Lymphatic capillary epithelium act as one-way valves preventing movement of fluid back into interstitial spaces.e. All of the choices are ways lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries. Question 21 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The lymphatic system is involved in Select one: a. lipid absorption from the digestive tract. b. transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver. c. maintenance of pH in the tissues. d. production of erythrocytes. e. protein metabolism. Question 22 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by _____ in the sinuses of lymph nodes. Select one: a. trabecular cells b. germinal cells c. macrophages. d. lymphocytes e. plasma cellsQuestion 23 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Active natural immunity occurs when Select one: a. antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her fetus. b. antibodies are injected into a host. c. an individual develops a disease. d. a person is vaccinated. e. antibodies are passed in breast milk. Question 24 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Circulatory changes that occur in inflammation include Select one: a. increased viscosity of the blood. b. decreased vascular permeability. c. increased vascular permeability. d. decreased blood flow to the area. e. vasoconstriction. Question 25 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Several research groups are working on vaccines that will be effective against the AIDS virus. When a successful vaccine is produced, it is likely to be injected to produce Select one: a. active natural immunity. b. active artificial immunity. c. passive natural immunity. d. passive artificial immunity. e. active passive immunity. Question 26 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a function of the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium of the nasal cavity? Select one: a. traps dirt and removes it from the air b. moisturizes the air c. exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide d. warms the air Question 27 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following statements concerning the lungs and the pleura is true? Select one: a. Each lung is suspended in a separate pleural cavity. b. Parietal pleura covers the surface of each lung. c. The space between the visceral and parietal pleurae is called the mediastinum. d. The pleural fluid assists in gas exchange. e. The pleural membranes adhere, but cannot slide past each other. Question 28 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Direct stimulation of neurons within the dorsal respiratory group would cause an increase in the frequency of action potential in the Select one: a. glossopharyngeal nerve that innervates the pharyngeal muscles. b. phrenic nerve that innervates the diaphragm. c. vagus nerve that innervates the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. d. intercostal nerves to internal intercostals muscles. e. intercostal nerves to external intercostals muscles. Question 29 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text The volume of air inspired or expired with each breath is the Select one: a. residual volume. b. inspiratory reserve volume. c. tidal volume. d. expiratory reserve volume. Question 30 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The Bohr effect refers to the Select one: a. mechanism involved in diffusion of nitrogen into the blood. b. physical laws governing the solubility of gases in fluids. c. effect of pH on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. d. chemical equilibrium between carbonic acid and bicarbonate in the blood. e. effect of temperature on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. Question 31 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text Arrange the following in order from highest to lowest PO2. (1) PO2 of pulmonary veins (2) PO2 of pulmonary artery (3) PO2 of alveolar air Select one: a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 1, 3 c. 2, 3, 1 d. 3, 1, 2 CORRECT ANSWER e. 3, 2, 1 Question 32 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text A patient has severe pneumonia, which has thickened the respiratory membrane. Despite oxygen therapy, he still has rapid respiration and feels as if he is not getting enough air. This is because Select one: a. the oxygen increases the stimulation of the carotid and aortic bodies. b. the oxygen stimulates the respiratory center to increase the respiratory rate. c. his blood pH increased and stimulated an increase in his respiratory rate. d. even though he is receiving enough oxygen, carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions accumulate in his blood and cause the respiratory rate to continue to increase. e. oxygen cannot diffuse across the thickened membrane. Question 33 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Constriction of smooth muscle in the bronchioles Select one: a. occurs during periods of exercise. b. restricts the flow of air into the lungs. c. decreases ciliary action. d. increases airflow out of the lungs. e. does not affect airflow. Question 34 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive tract? Select one: a. esophagus b. salivary glands c. pancreas d. gallbladder Question 35 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text The pancreatic islets Select one: a. are found in the wall of the stomach. b. excrete mucus. c. produce digestive enzymes. d. are exocrine glands. e. are endocrine glands. Question 36 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which digestive activity is NOT correctly matched to its location? Select one: a. killing microorganisms with lysozyme - stomach b. digestion of carbohydrates - mouth c. absorption of nutrients - small intestine d. production of mucus - esophagus Question 37 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein (LDL), a high density lipoprotein (HDL) contains Select one:a. less lipid. b. less protein. c. more cholesterol. d. more carbohydrate. e. more amino acids. Question 38 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text What are the two major neurotransmitters of the ENS in the digestive tract? Select one: a. epinephrine and serotonin b. epinephrine and norepinephrine c. acetylcholine and epinephrine d. norepinephrine and acetylcholine Question 39 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following might happen if a person begins laughing while swallowing a liquid? Select one: a. laryngeal constriction forcing liquid through the pharynx b. relaxation of the soft palate allowing liquid to enter the nasal cavity c. the tongue might be swallowedd. nothing - swallowing will be normal e. peristalsis will not begin Question 40 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following are effects of aging on the digestive system? Select one: a. blood supply decreases b. more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers c. enamel on teeth becomes thinner d. blood supply decreases and more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers. e. blood supply decreases, more likely to develop ulcerations and cancers and enamel on teeth becomes thinner. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 8 Nutrition, Metabolism and Temperature Regulation (Graded A+)2022
BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 8: Nutrition, Metabolism and Temperature Regulation Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 6:26 PM State Finished Completed on... [Show More] Friday, October 22, 2021, 6:48 PM Time taken 22 mins 6 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements regarding cellulose is true? Select one: a. Cellulose can be digested by human digestive enzymes. b. Cellulose provides fiber or "roughage." c. Cellulose is another name for glucose. d. Cellulose is one of the units of a sucrose molecule. e. Cellulose is a source of energy. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Nutrition includes the study of Select one: a. the nutrients in foods. b. the body's utilization of nutrients. c. how nutrients play a role in your body's health. d. digestion, absorption, and transportation of nutrients. e. All of these choices are correct. Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following minerals is important in acid-base balance? Select one: a. calcium b. chlorine c. iron d. manganese e. sodium Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Functions of proteins include Select one: a. providing structural strength in connective tissue. b. serving as a part of the cholesterol molecule. c. serving as the primary energy source of cells. d. transport of nitrogen gas in the blood. e. padding and insulation. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which class of nutrients do we require the least of? Select one: a. Vitamins b. Water c. Carbohydrates d. Lipids e. Proteins Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text If the fatty acid portion of a fat molecule has ten double covalent bonds, the fat is said to be Select one: a. hydrogenated. b. polyunsaturated. c. monounsaturated. d. saturated. e. disaturated. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The most common monosaccharides in the diet are Select one: a. glucose and fructose. b. galactose and fructose. c. glucose and glycerol. d. glycogen and glucose. e. lactose and maltose. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Complex carbohydrates include Select one: a. glucose and fructose. b. maltose and sucrose. c. starch, glycogen, and cellulose. d. cellulose and glucose. e. glucose and lactose. Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following vitamins is mismatched with its function? Select one: a. vitamin D - bone growth b. vitamin A - rhodopsin synthesis c. folate - synthesis of clotting factors d. vitamin C - collagen synthesis e. vitamin B12 - red blood cell production Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Phospholipids Select one: a. are found in cell membranes. b. are used as an energy source by cells. c. can be modified to form cholesterol. d. are involved in the process of inflammation. e. are found inside organelles. Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The BMR (basal metabolic rate) can increase Select one: a. during fasting. b. during pregnancy. c. as a result of decreased thyroid hormone production. d. while resting instead of studying for a test. e. during dieting. Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Fatty acids are catabolized in a process called Select one: a. glycolysis. b. lipogenesis. c. beta oxidation. d. gluconeogenesis. e. ketogenesis. Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The formation of glycogen from glucose is called _____. Select one: a. glycolysis b. glycogenesis c. glycogenolysis d. gluconeogenesis e. glucogenesis Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The correct sequence of events that occurs when fatty acids are used to generate ATP is Select one: a. beta oxidation, electron transport chain, deamination. b. electron transport chain, beta oxidation, glycolysis. c. beta oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain. d. glycolysis, beta oxidation, citric acid cycle. e. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, beta oxidation. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The mitochondrion is the site of Select one: a. glycolysis. b. the citric acid cycle. c. anaerobic respiration. d. lactic acid formation. e. the citric acid cycle and the electron-transport chain. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The electron transport chain Select one: a. results in the formation of ATP. b. converts acetate to ketone bodies. c. converts glucose to fatty acids. d. converts fatty acids to glucose. e. removes a phosphate from ATP. Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Hydrogen ions are pumped across the plasma membrane. b. Electrons pass from one electron carrier to another in the electron transport chain. c. Water serves as the final electron acceptor. d. Chemiosmosis forms carbon dioxide. e. The chemiosmosis model refers to movement of water. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following is the correct sequence? Select one: a. acetyl-CoA formation, glycolysis, electron-transport chain, citric acid cycle b. acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis c. citric acid cycle, glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain d. glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain e. glycolysis, citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA formation, electron transport chain Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Slim N. Trim has been on a low-fat, no carbohydrate diet for two months. Which of the following would you expect to find in large quantities in the urine? Select one: a. glucose b. lactic acid c. pyruvic acid d. ketone bodies e. proteins Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text If energy intake is greater than energy output, an individual will tend to Select one: a. gain weight. b. lose weight. c. neither gain nor lose weight. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 9 Urinary System (Graded A+)2022
BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 9: Urinary System Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 6:52 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, October 22, 2021, 7:15 PM... [Show More] Time taken 23 mins 23 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text All of the following are located in the renal cortex, except Select one: a. collecting ducts. b. renal corpuscles. c. proximal convoluted tubules. d. distal convoluted tubules. e. afferent arteriole. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Arrange the following in the sequence in which filtrate moves through them. (1) loop of Henle (2) Bowman's capsule (3) distal convoluted tubule (4) proximal convoluted tubule Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 4, 2, 1, 3 c. 2, 4, 3, 1 d. 2, 4, 1, 3 e. 3, 4, 1, 2 Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Filtration slits is the name given to the Select one: a. points where the afferent arterioles enter the renal corpuscle. b. openings between the endothelial cells of the glomerular capillaries. c. gaps between the podocyte processes in the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule. d. basement membrane of the glomerular endothelium. e. active transport channels. Question 4 Correct2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text An obstruction in the afferent arteriole would reduce the flow of blood into the Select one: a. glomerulus. b. renal artery. c. macula densa. d. efferent arteriole. e. arcuate artery. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following structures is a capillary? Select one: a. glomerulus b. loop of Henle c. collecting duct d. Bowman's capsule e. proximal convoluted tubule Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The structural and functional units of the kidney are called Select one: a. nephrons. b. renal papillae. c. renal pyramids. d. renal columns. e. renal tubes. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The portion of the kidney that is composed of cone-shaped renal pyramids is called the Select one: a. cortex. b. medulla. c. pelvis. d. calyx. e. columns. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Blood vessels, nerves, and the ureter enter and leave the kidney at the Select one: a. hilum. b. renal fascia. c. renal pelvis. d. renal capsule. e. renal pyramid. Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text To calculate plasma clearance of any substance, it is necessary to know the Select one: a. quantity of urine produced per minute. b. concentration of the cleared substance in the urine. c. concentration of the cleared substance in the blood. d. blood volume. e. quantity of urine produced per minute, the concentration of the cleared substance in the urine, and the concentration of the cleared substance in the blood. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Blood loss that occurs during surgery will stimulate cells in the Select one: a. efferent arteriole. b. wall of the right atrium. c. proprioceptors. d. juxtaglomerular apparatus. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Stretch receptors in the atria are responsible for the secretion of Select one: a. ADH. b. renin. c. aldosterone. d. atrial natriuretic hormone. e. angiotensin. Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text As ADH production declines, Select one: a. glomerular filtration increases. b. potassium reabsorption increases. c. reabsorption of water increases. d. the urine volume increases. e. the blood volume increases. Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text If the tubular maximum for a particular amino acid is 200 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 100 mg/100 ml, the amino acid Select one: a. will be actively secreted into the filtrate. b. will be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells. c. will appear in the urine. d. will not appear in the urine. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text In the myogenic mechanism of autoregulation, what is the response to an increase in blood pressure in the afferent arteriole? Select one: a. constriction of the glomerulus b. dilation of the afferent arteriole c. dilation of the efferent arteriole d. constriction of the afferent arteriole Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Removal of the posterior pituitary will immediately cause Select one: a. a decrease in urine volume. b. an increase in urine volume. c. no change in urine volume. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question textFiltrate reabsorption, which occurs regardless of the concentration and volume of urine produced, is referred to as Select one: a. active. b. obligatory. c. facultative. d. countercurrent. e. nonessential. Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the kidneys? Select one: a. decrease in kidney size b. loss of nephrons c. decreased response to hormonal control of urine volume d. a marked decrease in the ability to maintain homeostasis Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Effects of aging on the kidneys include all of the following, except Select one:a. an increased ability to eliminate uric acid and creatine from the blood. b. a gradual decrease in the size of the kidneys. c. a gradual decrease in blood flow through the kidneys. d. a loss of general function. e. a decline in absorption and secretion. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text With aging, a loss of inhibitory action potentials to the sacral region of the spinal cord results in Select one: a. increased bladder capacity. b. voluntary micturition. c. continuous dribbling of urine. d. uncontrollable micturition. e. lack of control of internal sphincter. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In order to regulate the pH of extracellular fluid, the kidneys are able to adjust the excretion of: Select one: a. hydrogen ions.b. calcium. c. sodium. d. magnesium. e. potassium. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 10 Water, Electrolyte, and Acid–Base Balance (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 10: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid–Base Balance Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 7:19 PM State Finished Compl... [Show More] eted on Friday, October 22, 2021, 7:54 PM Time taken 34 mins 51 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Ingesting large amounts of sodium bicarbonate can lead to Select one: a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following events occurs last? Select one: a. release of renin by the kidney b. release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex c. sodium reabsorption by the kidney tubules d. angiotensinogen → angiotensin I e. angiotensin I → angiotensin II Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following people would be most severely affected by prolonged vomiting? Select one: a. 3-year-old male b. 15-year-old male c. 35-year-old male d. 35-year-old female e. 50-year-old male Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text An increase in blood CO2 levels is followed by a(n) ____ in H+ ions and a(n) ____ in blood pH. Select one: a. decrease, decrease b. decrease, increase c. increase, increase d. increase, decrease e. increase, no change Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Bob Trotts has an enteropathogenic E. coli infection resulting in severe diarrhea for 2 days. This could produce which of the following: (1) acidosis (2) alkalosis (3) increased respiration (4) decreased respiration (5) increased ADH secretion (6) increased renin secretion (7) increased urine concentration Select one: a. 1, 3, 5, 6, 7 b. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 c. 1, 3, 6d. 2, 4, 5, 7 e. 1, 4, 5, 7 Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The sensation of thirst results from Select one: a. an increase in the plasma volume. b. hypertension (increased blood pressure). c. stimulation of osmoreceptor cells in the hypothalamus. d. a decrease in the osmolality of the extracellular fluid. e. inhibition of baroreceptors Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Increased osmolality of the ECF Select one: a. increases thirst. b. inhibits ADH. c. increases renin secretion. d. increases aldosterone secretion. e. decreases thirst. Question 8Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following substances releases hydrogen ions into a solution? Select one: a. acids b. bases c. salts d. glucose e. water Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The major route of excretion for sodium ions (under normal conditions) is the Select one: a. skin. b. kidney. c. GI tract. d. adrenal cortex. e. sweat. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Slight deviations from the normal concentration of ___________ ions can shut down metabolic pathways as well as alter the structure and function of other macromolecules. Select one: a. hydrogen b. potassium c. sodium d. phosphate e. glucose Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What cell structure regulates the composition of the intracellular fluid? Select one: a. Plasma membrane b. Cell wall c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Ribosomes e. Nucleus Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text In hypocalcemia, Select one: a. depolarization is prevented. b. PTH production is reduced. c. blood calcium levels are increased. d. neuromuscular excitability increases. e. neuromuscular excitability decreases. Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Case study: You have just admitted Mary Roberts, a 70-year-old woman, to the hospital for GI bleeding. Her blood pressure is 130/80, pulse 80/min and irregular, respirations 18/min, and temperature 99.2. Mrs. Roberts denies pain at this time although she appears anxious and very pale. Her medical history includes lung cancer that was diagnosed two weeks ago, peptic ulcer disease with reflux esophagitis, and "fluid retention". Admission lab work shows a plasma Na+ of 152 mEq/L and K+ of 2.8 mEq/L. Which of the following regulatory mechanisms would be stimulated as a result of the increased osmolality that results from a Na+ level of 152 mEq/L? Select one: a. increased urine output b. an increased release of ADH c. an increase in renin productiond. an increase in the secretion of aldosterone e. a decreased release of ADH Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Elevated blood pressure under resting conditions results in increased urinary output because Select one: a. baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to increase ADH secretion. b. elevated blood pressure stimulates renin secretion. c. the amount of angiotensin II formed is increased. d. aldosterone levels increase. e. baroreceptors signal the hypothalamus to decrease ADH secretion. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text As a result of hyperventilation, Select one: a. the body pH decreases. b. the plasma PCO2 level decreases. c. the kidney will increase the rate of hydrogen ion excretion. d. more bicarbonate ions are added to the plasma. e. the plasma PCO2 level increases.Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Wetting the oral mucosa and stretching the digestive tract will cause ____________ in thirst sensations. Select one: a. a temporary interruption b. a tremendous increase c. an increase in blood osmolarity and an increase d. an increase in blood osmolarity and a decrease Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The main regulator of serum phosphate levels is a transport process in the Select one: a. liver. b. kidneys. c. pancreas. d. small intestine. e. large intestine. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Synovial fluid is a part of which of the following fluid compartments? Select one: a. plasma b. interstitial c. intracellular d. extracellular e. cytoplasm Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The distribution of sodium and potassium ions between intracellular and extracellular compartments is Select one: a. potassium mainly intracellular; sodium mainly in extracellular. b. sodium mainly intracellular; potassium mainly in extracellular. c. little of either intracellular but large amounts of both extracellular. d. equal amounts of both ions, in both intracellular and extracellular fluids. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Angiotensin II increases blood volume by stimulating Select one: a. thirst. b. vasodilatation. c. water movement into the cells. d. renal excretion of sodium. e. ADH production. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 11 Male Reproductive Systems (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 11: Male Reproductive Systems Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 7:58 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, Oc... [Show More] tober 22, 2021, 8:19 PM Time taken 21 mins 53 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following structures is located within the perineum? Select one: a. dartos b. seminal vesicles c. femoral triangle d. urogenital triangle e. navel Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Arrange the following structures in the order sperm would pass through them from the seminiferous tubules to the urethra. (1) ductus deferens (vas deferens) (2) efferent ductules (3) epididymis (4) ejaculatory duct (5) rete testis Select one: a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 b. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 c. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 d. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 e. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The accessory glands located near the membranous urethra are the Select one: a. seminal vesicles. b. inguinal glands. c. bulbourethral glands. d. seminal receptacles. e. penal glands.Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Circumcision is the surgical removal of the Select one: a. prepuce. b. crus penis. c. glans penis. d. corpora cavernosa. e. bulb of penis. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is mismatched? Select one: a. prepuce - skin that covers the glans penis b. corpora cavernosa - forms the foreskin c. glans penis - contains external urethral opening d. corpus spongiosum - expands to form the glans penis e. membranous urethra - between prostatic and spongy urethra Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Male infants can be born with an undescended testis. This means that the testis Select one: a. lacks hormonal cells. b. covers the top of the scrotum. c. has lost its blood supply. d. remains in the abdominopelvic cavity. e. has not properly formed. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The ductus deferens Select one: a. stores sperm until ejaculation. b. travels through the bladder. c. ascends the abdominal cavity along the posterior side of the kidney. d. passes through the inguinal canal and enters the pelvic cavity. e. passes just beneath the skin to the penis. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is false? Select one: a. The seminal vesicles open into the membranous urethra. b. The prostate gland surrounds the prostatic urethra and ejaculatory ducts. c. The bulbourethral glands enter the spongy urethra at the base of the penis. d. The prostate gland contains smooth muscle partitions covered with columnar epithelium. e. The seminal vesicles are sac-shaped glands located next to the ampullae of the ductus deferentia. Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The spongy urethra is surrounded by the Select one: a. corpus cavernosum. b. prostate gland. c. corpus spongiosum. d. bulbourethral glands. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following effects on the body can NOT be attributed to testosterone? Select one: a. enlargement of male genitalia b. growth of pubic, axillary, and facial hair c. hypertrophy of the larynx d. increased calcium excretion e. rapid bone growth Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The process of meiosis provides for the reorganization of the the entire complement of human genes, the human genome. Meiosis occurs in the production of gametes in Select one: a. males. b. females. c. both males and females. Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text A blood test for the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is useful in the diagnosis of Select one: a. prostatitis. b. prostatic atrophy. c. prostatic cancer. d. prostatic infection. e. urinary tract infection. Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following hormones stimulates the synthesis of testosterone by the fetal testes? Select one: a. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) b. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) d. luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LH-RH) e. estrogen Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What is the active hormone in target tissues of testosterone such as the penis?Select one: a. testosterone b. FSH c. ICSH d. dihydrotestosterone Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is mismatched? Select one: a. ductus deferens - vas deferens b. epididymis - site of sperm maturation c. spermatic cord - passes through inguinal canal d. stereocilia - forms sperm tails e. midpiece - mitochondria Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following cell types is formed at the end of the first meiotic division? Select one: a. spermatid b. spermatogonia c. primary spermatocyted. secondary spermatocyte e. spermatozoa Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Sperm are produced in the _____ and complete maturation in the _____. Select one: a. epididymis; testes b. ductus deferens; epididymis c. seminiferous tubules; prostate gland d. seminiferous tubules; epididymis e. seminiferous tubules; vas deferens Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The location of the testes and epididymides in the scrotum Select one: a. allows more room for other organs in the abdominal cavity. b. keeps these organs close to the penis. c. provides a temperature that is suitable for normal sperm development. d. keeps them isolated from the accessory glands of the system. e. helps to protect them.Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text A pituitary tumor interferes with FSH secretion. How would this affect a male? Select one: a. He would develop a feminine body contour. b. He would not produce sperm. c. He would have an erection. d. There would be no effect as FSH is found only in females. e. He would produce too many sperm. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Impotence occurs when Select one: a. the erectile tissues of the penis fill with blood. b. semen accumulates in the urethra. c. an erection cannot be achieved or maintained. d. semen moves out of the urethra. e. sperm cell production decreases. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 12 Female Reproductive Systems (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 12: Female Reproductive Systems Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 8:24 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, ... [Show More] October 22, 2021, 8:45 PM Time taken 21 mins 26 secs Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The ovary is surrounded by a capsule of fibrous connective tissue called the Select one: a. mesovarium. b. tunica albuginea. c. peritoneum. d. medulla. e. tunica alba. Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Trace the pathway of an egg as it passes through the uterine tube. (1) ampulla (2) fimbriae (3) infundibulum (4) isthmus Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 4, 1, 3 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 2, 3, 1, 4 e. 3, 1, 2, 4 Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following portions of the vulva is most superior? Select one: a. clitoris b. mons pubis c. vestibule d. labia majora e. labia minora Question 4 Correct2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The ovaries and uterus are held in position within the pelvis by bands of tissue called Select one: a. follicles. b. muscles. c. endometrium. d. ligaments. e. tendons. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The cervix is a portion of the Select one: a. vagina. b. external genitalia. c. oviduct. d. uterine tube. e. uterus. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Both the vagina and the urethra open into a space called the Select one: a. urogenital sinus. b. pudendal cleft. c. vestibule. d. prepuce. e. mons pubis. Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Spermatozoa may remain viable in the female reproductive tract for as long as Select one: a. 24 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 72 hours. d. 96 hours. e. 144 hours. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Fertilization usually occurs in the _____ while fetal development occurs in the _____. Select one: a. uterus, vagina b. uterine tube, uterus c. uterine tube, fimbriae d. vagina, uterus e. ovary, uterus Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text During the female sex act, Select one: a. the clitoris becomes engorged with blood. b. vaginal mucoid secretions are reduced. c. vaginal, uterine, and perineal muscles relax. d. an orgasm always occurs to insure fertilization. e. an orgasm always occurs. Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? Select one: a. broad ligaments - help support the uterus b. cervix - lined with rugae c. basal layer - layer of endometrium closest to uterine cavity d. perimetrium - muscular coat of uterus e. endometrium - connective tissue layer Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The onset of puberty in females typically occurs between the ages of ______and occurs ____ that in males. Select one: a. 14 and 18; earlier than b. 13 and 16; later than c. 11 and 16; earlier than d. 12 and 16; at the same time as Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The corpus luteum Select one: a. degenerates into the corpus albicans if pregnancy does not occur. b. is absolutely necessary during the first three months of pregnancy. c. produces mostly progesterone, but also some estrogen. d. degenerates into the corpus albicans if pregnancy does not occur and produces mostly progesterone, but also some estrogen. e. degenerates into the corpus alibicans if pregnancy does not occur, is absolutely necessary during the first three months of pregnancy, and produces mostly progesterone, but also some estrogen. Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, you would normally expect Select one: a. that the endometrium is just beginning development. b. to find a follicle that is ready to ovulate. c. the highest levels of progesterone that occur during the menstrual cycle. d. the spiral glands to first appear. e. the lowest levels of progesterone. Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The gradual increase in estrogen secretion during the follicular phase is the result of Select one: a. declining FSH levels. b. granulosa cells converting androgens to estrogen. c. positive feedback on the anterior pituitary. d. an LH surge. e. luteal development. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Normally, menstruation occurs when Select one: a. blood levels of estrogen increase and progesterone levels decrease rapidly. b. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase rapidly. c. blood levels of FSH decrease rapidly. d. the corpus luteum secretes estrogen. e. blood levels of both female hormones decrease rapidly. Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Which of the following is produced in the ovary and then leaves the ovary? Select one: a. testosterone b. corpus luteum c. secondary oocyte d. FSH e. menstrual blood Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text One hormone responsible for initiating the development of follicles is Select one: a. HCG. b. progesterone. c. FSH. d. estrogen. e. LH. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text The contraceptive method that not only prevents fertilization but also provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases is Select one: a. the condom. b. oral contraceptives. c. spermicidal agents. d. coitus interruptus. e. the diaphragm. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an age-related change of the female reproductive system? Select one: a. dryness of the vagina b. decreased estrogen and progesterone production c. cessation of the menses d. decreased incidence of breast cancer Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text A Pap test is used to detect Select one: a. pregnancy. b. the time of ovulation. c. cervical cancer. d. a prolapsed uterus. e. ovarian cancer. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com BIO 202 Quiz 13 Human Development, Growth and Aging (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO202_MH_V3 Topic 13: Human Development, Growth and Aging Started on Friday, October 22, 2021, 8:49 PM State Finished Completed on ... [Show More] Friday, October 22, 2021, 9:14 PM Time taken 25 mins 1 sec Grade 40.00 out of 40.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is involved in stimulating milk letdown? Select one: a. increased estrogen levels b. increased progesterone levels c. mechanical stimulation of the breasts that cause release of oxytocin d. secretion of a small amount of milk e. None of these choices is correct Question 2 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text What is the acrosomal reaction? Select one: a. The formation of the acrosome in the epididymis b. The activation of enzymes for action on the surface of the egg c. The release of ADP from the mitochondria on the midpiece d. The release of prostatic fluid to produce the semen Question 3 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Identify the hormone secreted during pregnancy that cause the ducts of the mammary glands to grow and branch when in high levels. Select one: a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Prolactin d. Growth hormone Question 4 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag questionQuestion text The hormone responsible for milk production is Select one: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. oxytocin. d. prolactin. e. FSH. Question 5 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The hormone(s) responsible for preparing the breasts for lactation during pregnancy is (are). Select one: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. oxytocin. d. prolactin. e. both estrogen and progesterone. Question 6 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text A patent ductus arteriosus means that the _____ did not close.Select one: a. intraatrial septum b. intraventricular septum c. connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta d. connection between the inferior vena cava and the abdominal aorta e. umbilical arteries and veins Question 7 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The major difference between an embryo and a fetus is that Select one: a. a fetus can survive outside the mother's womb but an embryo cannot. b. a fetus is smaller than an embryo. c. organ systems are developing in an embryo while all organs are present in a fetus. d. a fetus is a male child while an embryo is a female child. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 8 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following will cause contractions of uterine smooth muscle? Select one: a. increasing levels of progesterone b. decreasing levels of estrogenc. decreasing levels of oxytocin d. decreasing uterine stretch e. increasing levels of oxytocin Question 9 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text What structure forms the lower jaw? Select one: a. mesonephros b. mandibular processes c. neural tube d. secondary palate e. somites Question 10 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text The common junction of the digestive, urinary, and genital systems is the Select one: a. cloaca. b. coelom. c. allantois. d. hindgut.e. anus. Question 11 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following organ systems is derived from all three germ layers? Select one: a. nervous b. cardiovascular c. endocrine d. integumentary e. skeletal Question 12 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Puberty in females occurs _____ than in males. Select one: a. earlier b. later c. at the same time Question 13 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Increased lipid deposits in the tunica intima of large arteries is called Select one: a. atherosclerosis. b. arteriosclerosis. c. a thrombus. d. an embolus. e. hardening of the arteries. Question 14 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Many of the emotional characteristics of a person are formed during Select one: a. infancy. b. early childhood. c. adolescence. d. adulthood. e. neonatal period. Question 15 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text An infant who has just started cooing and gurgling in response to smiles and attention from its parents is about _____ months old. Select one: a. two b. four c. six d. eight e. ten Question 16 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Pulling to a standing position is a typical milestone for which age? Select one: a. 6 weeks b. 6 months c. 12 weeks d. 12 months e. 18 weeks Question 17 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text Most congenital birth defects are caused by Select one: a. inherited traits. b. lack of oxygen to the fetus. c. viral infections during pregnancy. d. unknown causes. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 18 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text Failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the head results in Select one: a. anencephaly. b. ventricular enlargement. c. cleft palate. d. soft spots on the skull. e. hydrocephaly. Question 19 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00Flag question Question text If the secondary palate does not fuse the result is a Select one: a. cleft palate. b. cleft throat. c. facial cleft. d. cleft lip. e. cleft tongue. Question 20 Correct 2.00 points out of 2.00 Flag question Question text In some neonates the foramen ovale does not close to form the fossa ovalis. This would be called a(n) _____. Select one: a. mutation b. congenital disorder c. teratogen d. genetic anomaly [Show Less]
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