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CHPA EXAM (12 Sets) QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS,100% CORRECT
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CHP Exam 112 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHP Exam 112 Questions with Verified Answers C.H.P. PRIDE - CORRECT ANSWER Courage Honesty Professionalism Principles Respect Integrity Dedicatio... [Show More] n Esprit de Corps H.P.M. 5.1, Chapter 1 - CORRECT ANSWER Correspondence Manual H.P.G. 41.2 - CORRECT ANSWER Project Management Guide C.H.P. vision statement - CORRECT ANSWER The CHP is a recognized leader in law enforcement and emergency incident management. H.P.M. 70.13, Chapter 9 - CORRECT ANSWER Personal Career Development C.A.D. - CORRECT ANSWER Computer Aided Dispatch Steps in Problem Solving - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify the problem 2. Identify the causes 3. Brainstorm solutions 4. Select the best solution 5. Implement a solution plan 6. Follow-up, evaluate, monitor progress How long does it take to get a budget approved? - CORRECT ANSWER 18 months A Budget Request Document can also be a... - CORRECT ANSWER Budget Concept Request Augmentation or revision to a Budget Concept Request is a... - CORRECT ANSWER Budget Change Proposal The January budget is changed when? - CORRECT ANSWER May "revise" H.P.M. 70.13, Chapter 9 - CORRECT ANSWER Personal Career Development Program H.P.G. 41.2 - CORRECT ANSWER Project Management Guide Mean is... - CORRECT ANSWER Average value, calculated by adding all and dividing by the number of items Median is... - CORRECT ANSWER Middle value of a list of numbers Mode is ... - CORRECT ANSWER Most common value G.O. 40.16 - CORRECT ANSWER Departmental Grants Program H.P.M. 10.12, Chapter 12 - CORRECT ANSWER Affirmative Action / EEO Planning Manual H.P.M. 10.6, Chapter 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Occupational Safety Manual H.P.G. 40.72, Chapter 3 - CORRECT ANSWER MIS Users Guide C.H.P. 471 - CORRECT ANSWER Monthly Copier Report A.V.L. - CORRECT ANSWER Automatic Vehicle Locator D.O.L.F. - CORRECT ANSWER Demonstration of Licensed Functionality H.P.M. 11.2, Chapter 14 - CORRECT ANSWER Publication for the Monthly Copier Report, C.H.P. 471 H.P.M. 70.13 - CORRECT ANSWER Departmental Training Manual H.P.M. 10.6, Chapter 2 & 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Occupational Safety Manual H.P.M. 10.12, Chapter 12 - CORRECT ANSWER Affirmative Action / EEO Planning Manual H.P.M. 11.1 - CORRECT ANSWER Administrative Procedures Manual H.P.M. 11.2, Chapter 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Materials Management Manual re CalCard & X Numbers CHP Mission Statement - CORRECT ANSWER The mission of the CHP is to provide the highest level of Safety, Service, & Security to the people of California. Mission Statement, 5 Goals - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Prevent loss of life, injuries & property Damage 2. Maximize service to the public and assistance to allied agencies 3. Manage traffic and emergency incidents 4. Protect public & State assets 5. Improve Departmental efficiency Organizational Values - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Respect for others 2. Fairness 3. Ethical Practices 4. Equitable treatment for all 7 Vision Statements to accomplish our Mission - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Traffic Safety & Management 2. Emergency Response 3. Service delivery 4. State Security 5. Public Relations 6. Professional Values 7. Leadership Development CORE Functions - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Department under BTH 2. Traffic Safety 3. Law Enforcement Backup 4. Vehicle Theft 5. CV Enforcement 6. Protective services; State officials, State Employees, State Facilities What are the five PRIMARY C.H.P. Goals? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Prevent loss of life, injuries, and property damage 2. Maximize service to the public and assist allied agencies 3. Manage traffic and emergency incidents 4. Protect Public and State Assets 5. Improve the departments efficiency How is the CHP organized? - CORRECT ANSWER Executive: Commissioner then Deputy Commissioner A.C. Field & A.C. Staff The Mission of the C.H.P., "Safety, Service & Security" is accomplished through 5 goals... - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Prevent the loss of life 2. Service to the public and allied agencies 3. Manage traffic & emergency incidents 4. Protect public & State assets 5. Improve department efficiency The C.H.P. pledge to the public...(4) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Respect 2. Fairness 3. Ethical practices 4. Equitable treatment for all P.O.B.R. - CORRECT ANSWER Police Officers Bill of Rights How is the Mileage Death Rate (M.D.R.) computed? - CORRECT ANSWER # of fatal collisions per 100 million vehicle miles of travel P.C.F. - CORRECT ANSWER Primary Collision Factor P.D.O. - CORRECT ANSWER Property Damage Only (collisions) MAIT - CORRECT ANSWER Multidisciplinary Accident Incident Teams POST - CORRECT ANSWER Peace Officer Standards & Training Cal NENA. - CORRECT ANSWER California Chapter of the National Emergency Number Association P.S.O. - CORRECT ANSWER Public Safety Officer I.C. - CORRECT ANSWER Incident Command T.L.O. - CORRECT ANSWER Terrorism Liaison Officer G.O. 0.8 - CORRECT ANSWER Professional Values H.P.G. 22.4 - CORRECT ANSWER Commanders Desk Reference COZEEP - CORRECT ANSWER COnstruction Zone Enhanced Enforcement Program MAZEEP - CORRECT ANSWER MAintenance Zone Enhanced Enforcement Program H.P.G. 41.2 - CORRECT ANSWER Project Management Handbook Project Life Cycle - CORRECT ANSWER Define Plan Implement Evaluate The Goal of Project Management - CORRECT ANSWER On Target On Time On (within) Budget How to stay within a project's budget is... - CORRECT ANSWER --gather data --analyze data --monitor cost --report performance Administrative Closure is... - CORRECT ANSWER Verify and document project results in order to formalize acceptance by the Project Director, then archive for future use Operational Plan is... - CORRECT ANSWER A document that provides guidelines for conducting a project. Variance is... - CORRECT ANSWER A measurement analysis which compares actual project results to PLANNED or expected results SMART Chart is... - CORRECT ANSWER Specific Measurable Agree Reachable Timely Problem Solving Process steps are... - CORRECT ANSWER Define Cause Solve C.H.P. was "born" on... - CORRECT ANSWER August 14, 1929 How many Field Divisions? What are they - CORRECT ANSWER Eight: 1. Border 2. Central 3. Inland 4. Golden Gate 5. Northern 6. Southern 8. Valley H.P.M. 70.13, Chapter 9 - CORRECT ANSWER Personal Career Development Program H.P.M. 70.13 - CORRECT ANSWER Departmental Training Manual The C.H.P. Motto is... - CORRECT ANSWER "Safety, Service & Security" Range is... - CORRECT ANSWER From the largest to the smallest Aural Brevity Code example... - CORRECT ANSWER 10-4 is an _____ ______ ______ O.P.I. 011 is ... - CORRECT ANSWER Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) H.S.P. is... - CORRECT ANSWER Highway Safety Plan What is the definition of a budget as used by the CHP? - CORRECT ANSWER Baseline budget minus one-time expenditures Define CHPs expenditures and income... - CORRECT ANSWER Expenditures are COSTS Income=Expected FUNDING What is the Federal Fiscal Year? - CORRECT ANSWER October to September In governmental budgeting, distinguish the primary focus from that of the private sector. - CORRECT ANSWER Private sector is about profit, governmental budgets are the amount necessary to carry out goals and mission. Three types of C.H.P. income - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Reimbursements (i.e. goods & services) 2. Revenue, (i.e. sale of publications) 3. Abatements, (i.e. a fund or credit) Describe the responsibility of the Department of Finance regarding the C.H.Ps budget's incorporation into the Governor's budget. - CORRECT ANSWER CHP sends the DOF a budget 12-18 months before that FY. Where does the C.V.S. grant funding come from? - CORRECT ANSWER Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) funds which section's grants? What are the two types of budgets used by State agencies? - CORRECT ANSWER Line item, (expenditure & reimbursement) & Program (to improve program capabilities) are what? H.P.M. 11.1, Chapter 1, Annex A covers what process? - CORRECT ANSWER What publication covers the Budget Process? Where does the State Budget money come from? - CORRECT ANSWER Federal, State & local taxes fund what? What is the objective in governmental budgeting? - CORRECT ANSWER To provide an orderly plan of operation. What is our Primary Control Agency? - CORRECT ANSWER Business, Transportation & Housing is our ________ __________ _________. What is the departments policy regarding the budget? - CORRECT ANSWER To present a budget adequate to assure compliance with statutory duties and responsibilities. BCP - CORRECT ANSWER Budget Change Proposal What is the C.H.P funding source? - CORRECT ANSWER The Motor Vehicle Account of the State Transportation Fund, (vehicle registrations), provides what? Where does most of the C.H.P grant money come from? - CORRECT ANSWER National Highway Transportation Safety Administration, (NHTSA) provides what to C.H.P.? C.H.P. 50B - CORRECT ANSWER Upward Mobility Plan C.H.P. 163 - CORRECT ANSWER Reasonable Accommodation Request Form Percentage of change - CORRECT ANSWER (New/Old)-1x100= what? Change formula - CORRECT ANSWER New/Old -1 Badge Point words - CORRECT ANSWER Character Integrity Judgement Loyalty Courtesy Honor Knowledge H.P.M. 11.1, Chapter 1 - CORRECT ANSWER Budgets & Allocations Publication Budget Development - CORRECT ANSWER The process by which the Department BUILDS the budget for the fiscal year that follows the upcoming fiscal year. Budget Allocation - CORRECT ANSWER The process by which the Department DISTRIBUTES spending authority approved for the upcoming fiscal year to Divisions and OPIs. Appropriation - CORRECT ANSWER An __________ is the spending authority within a specific fund for a specific agency or program to make expenditures/incur obligations for a specified purpose and period of time. Appropriations are limited to ______ Year - CORRECT ANSWER One year is the time that _________________ are limited to unless otherwise specified. Who has Budget Development Oversight? - CORRECT ANSWER Fiscal management Section (FMS) Departmental budgets must be formulated from _____ to _____ months before the fiscal year for which they are intended. - CORRECT ANSWER ___________ ___________ must be formulated from 12 to 18 months before the fiscal year for which they are intended. The form, C.H.P. 172, is used for a ________ ________ ________? - CORRECT ANSWER The form _____ _____ is used for a Budget Concept Request? B.D.U. - CORRECT ANSWER Budget Development Unit All divisions and O.P.I. must submit a C.H.P. 172 to B.D.U. no later than _______ of each year. - CORRECT ANSWER All divisions and O.P.I.s must submit a _____ to B.D.U. no later than April 1st of each year. L.A.O. - CORRECT ANSWER Legislative Analyst's Office Allotment - CORRECT ANSWER An _______________ is an amount of funding which is projected to be spent by the Department on a particular expenditure category such as printing, travel, or equipment. Redirection - CORRECT ANSWER Allotments for personal services, operating expense and equipment are flexible in that savings from one allotment may be used to offset deficits in another. This is called ________________. The total of all _______________ can never exceed the total appropriation. - CORRECT ANSWER The total of all allotments can never exceed the total _______________. F.A.P. - CORRECT ANSWER Fiscal Accountability Projects _________ are a way to isolate programs within the Department's budget in order to monitor and/or report expenditures to Executive Management or an outside entity. - CORRECT ANSWER F.A.P. is a way to isolate programs within the _________ _________ in order to monitor and/or report expenditures to Executive Management or an outside entity. Spending plans display a ____________s allocated budget. - CORRECT ANSWER ___________ _________ display a Divisiion's allocated budget. ARMS stands for... - CORRECT ANSWER Allocated Resources Management System HQ SOP 3.6 - CORRECT ANSWER Staff Studies HQ SOP_____ CHP 60 - CORRECT ANSWER Staff Summary Statement Issue Papers - CORRECT ANSWER ________ ________ are a means to organize analytical work... [Show Less]
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CHPA Terms Quiz 105 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPA Terms Quiz 105 Questions with Verified Answers Established in 1896 to reduce burden of fire - CORRECT ANSWER National Fire Protection Association (... [Show More] NFPA) An operational plan or activity that is common to healthcare security operations - CORRECT ANSWER Industry Standard Practice (ISP) A procedure or operational activity that tends to validate its merit with demonstrated repetition - CORRECT ANSWER Best Practice Often associated with a practice that is utilized in a majority of protection programs - CORRECT ANSWER Best Practice These are voluntary or legally mandated guidelines and best practices that improve quality. - CORRECT ANSWER Standards Provide predictable actions and reactions - CORRECT ANSWER Standards Can emanate from outside sources such as TJC, OSHA, NFPA, etc. - CORRECT ANSWER Industry Standard Practice (ISP) These are essential in advancing the discipline of healthcare security - CORRECT ANSWER Standards Refers to the protection level in place, under the conditions of a specifc security risk at a given point of time - CORRECT ANSWER National Standard of Care It is reasonable and prudent in view of all circumstances - CORRECT ANSWER National Standard of Care There are both National and Organizational specifc models of this... - CORRECT ANSWER National Standard of Care, Organizational-specifc Standard of Care Used as the basis to define preparedness and mitigation activities that will mobilize and manage essential resources - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard Vulnerability Analysis (HVA) Incident driven events such as fire, theft, natural disasters - CORRECT ANSWER RISK Once risks are identified, what is determined next? - CORRECT ANSWER Probability of occurrence Terms often used interchangeably - CORRECT ANSWER risk, threat, vulnerability This should be considered after risk and probability are defined: - CORRECT ANSWER Consequences-- or degree of damage The unlawful intentional inflicting, or attempting, or threatening to inflict injury on another - CORRECT ANSWER Assault Safety and Security combined into same standard - CORRECT ANSWER 2009 TJC Standards Security and Safety Standard - CORRECT ANSWER EC.02.01.01 Hospital Employees - CORRECT ANSWER 4.2 million Hirearchy of Control - CORRECT ANSWER Adminstrative Controls Engineering Controls PPE ACGIH - CORRECT ANSWER American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) ICRA - CORRECT ANSWER Accomplished before construction or renovation projects During construction, key principles for categorizing patients - CORRECT ANSWER -Inherent susceptability to infection -Invasiveness Infection risk assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA) Diseases easily spread through aerosolization - CORRECT ANSWER -Tuberculosis -Influenza, diptheria, pertussis, common cold Three phases of a needs assessment - CORRECT ANSWER - Preliminary Data Gathering - Facility Tour. Meet with Key People - Written Report What are the values of ethical leadership? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Sense of Integrity 2) Inspire Trust and Confidence in Others 3) Lead By Example 4) Respect for Others The most significant factor in motivation - CORRECT ANSWER Recognition A good place to start with a risk assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Outer Perimeter System of Perimeters - CORRECT ANSWER Safeguards become more stringent as you move in The degree of threat is assessed from three viewpoints - CORRECT ANSWER The degree of threat = real, perceived and potential Analyzing risk in terms of real or perceived threats is more easily addressed Environmental Criminology - CORRECT ANSWER Environmental criminology is the study of how different criteria aids or deters criminal activity by target hardening Crime Occurs - CORRECT ANSWER Four things come together: a law, an offender, a victim or target, and a place. Environmental Criminologists are... - CORRECT ANSWER Interested in land usage, traffic patterns and street design, and the daily activities and movements of victims and offenders Foreseeability - CORRECT ANSWER It does not have to occur on facility property Totality of the Circumstances - CORRECT ANSWER Must be considered when assessing risk Security Management Plan and Strategic Plan - CORRECT ANSWER Two security plans Provides goals, direction, involvement - CORRECT ANSWER Strategic Plan Security Management Plan - CORRECT ANSWER Operations of the Security Department Program Authority - CORRECT ANSWER Day to day operations must be assigned to a specifc position in the organization Basic functions of a healthcare security program - CORRECT ANSWER -customer service -maintaining orderly environment -preventive patrol -incident reporting and investigations -requests for service -security communications -parking and traffic control -accident reporting and investigation -security education and training -applicant BI -interna/external emergencies -enforcement of rules and regulations --access control -LE liaison-- Govt. Liaison -internal/external audits -locks and keys -misc. support tasks A stated objective or stated principle - CORRECT ANSWER Policy Procedure - CORRECT ANSWER A manner of proceeding, a series of steps taken to comply with a policy A code of conduct or a plan for medical treatment - CORRECT ANSWER Protocol Basic Report - CORRECT ANSWER Security Incident Report Security Incident - CORRECT ANSWER Any security-related situation not consistent with the routine of normal operating conditions or procedures Master Name Index - CORRECT ANSWER List of anyone who has had significant interaction with the security department Ability to handle internal and external emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER The speed at which access to the facility can be restricted Protection begins with - CORRECT ANSWER The design and management of the facility itself. The open design of many hospitals today allows access to the facility without restriction or knowledge Three kinds of internal audits - CORRECT ANSWER *Unannounced inspections of procedures *Spot checking goods entering and leaving the facility *Undercover surveillance of services Functional Organization Chart - CORRECT ANSWER *The functional organization chart defines the relationship of all parts of the organization *It establishes a chain of command *It specifies the formal authorities and leaves out many of the informal relationships *It does not show the limits of authority that exists at any point of the structure Centralization - CORRECT ANSWER One budget with the right to operate one program. Each facility receives services as a one-campus approach, even when sites are miles apart Performance Documentation - CORRECT ANSWER Documentation must be impartial and timely Employees may perceive documentation in a negative way Performance documentation is a written account of an employees actions at a specific time Three primary skills for a successful officer - CORRECT ANSWER *Excellent communication *Aptitude to learn *Customer service attitude Crime Prevention is considered a pattern of : - CORRECT ANSWER attitudes behaviors Crime triangle - CORRECT ANSWER Desire Ability Opportunity Two basic categories of chemicals - CORRECT ANSWER Organic Inorganic Organic - CORRECT ANSWER Large compounds based on carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorous and sulfur. Inorganic - CORRECT ANSWER Simple compounds (mercury (Hg), iron (Fe), lead (Pb), etc.) Ergonomic issues - CORRECT ANSWER Cumulative Trauma Disorder (CTD) Repetitive Stress injuries (RSI) Musculoskeletal Disorders (MSD) Two main fire safety areas that health and safety professionals are responsible for: - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Administration of building and systems management functions 2. Administration of the fire prevention plan An effective medical surveillance program provides - CORRECT ANSWER Prevention Detection Treatment Verification of efficacy of the hazard control program The cornerstone of Emergency Management - CORRECT ANSWER Mitigation EM lessons learned - CORRECT ANSWER Maintain an all-hazards approach to emergency management The federal response infrastructure based on the federal response plan works Continue to practice concepts that facilitated the U.S. emergency management system becoming the best in the world Governments involved in declaring a disaster - CORRECT ANSWER Local State Federal Autism - CORRECT ANSWER Seven times more likely to come in contact with security At Risk Patients - CORRECT ANSWER Are being placed on a mental health or alcohol hold Acute drug intoxication Head injury with altered metal status Confused to time, place or person At risk of elopement determined by prior history Disruptive, violent or threatening Indication of weapons or the dangerous items "SWOT" - CORRECT ANSWER for Strengths, Weaknesses Opportunities and Threats Analysis. Benchmarking - CORRECT ANSWER The process of examining best practices of others to improve performance at your facility Patient Risk Groups - CORRECT ANSWER VIP Infectious Pt. Combative Pt. Behavioral Health Pt. Autistic Forensic Pt. Wandering Pt.- Dementia Infant and Pediatric Combative patients will be found in: - CORRECT ANSWER Emergency Departments ICU General Nursing Unit Medical/Dental Clinics Three fundamental techniques to test the efficacy of a safety program are: - CORRECT ANSWER Review documentation of events Interview staff at all levels for their knowledge, awareness and perception Conduct site checks to verify areas of weakness in containment of hazards. Look for areas of improvement through inspections The Joint Commission (TJC) safety documentation standards - CORRECT ANSWER EC.9.10, Monitoring environmental conditions EC.9.20, Analyzing environmental issues EC.9.30, Improving the environment Emergency Management - CORRECT ANSWER "the discipline dealing with risk and avoidance." The Flood Control Act of 1934 - CORRECT ANSWER Increased the authority of the US Army Corps of Engineers to design & build flood control projects Was an example of the philosophy nature could be controlled by man This philosophy was ultimately shortsighted and costly EM in the 1950's - CORRECT ANSWER The Cold War Era resulted in community preparedness for nuclear fall out and war Emergency management was comprised of local and state civic defense directors (US) Physical Security Standards - CORRECT ANSWER Designed to protect people Mitigate unauthorized access to: equipment facilities materials Documents Protect against: espionage, sabotage, damage, theft, loss CPTED - CORRECT ANSWER The mitigation and prevention of crime through internal and external design of the environment CERT Training - CORRECT ANSWER Disaster preparedness Disaster fire suppression Disaster medical operations Light search and rescue Disaster psychology and team organization Course review and disaster simulation. Five Major Functions of ICS - CORRECT ANSWER Command Operations Planning Logistics Finance Incident Commander's Job - CORRECT ANSWER Assigns responsibilities as appropriate Has an ongoing dialog with staff & officials Evaluate the continuing needs of the responders Main Function of ICS - CORRECT ANSWER To establish a set of planning and management systems that help the agencies responding to work together in a coordinated and systematic approach. Four types of FEMA exercises - CORRECT ANSWER Full scale Partial scale Functional Tabletop Injuries linked to ergonomic issues include: - CORRECT ANSWER Cumulative Trauma Disorder (CTD) Repetitive Stress injuries (RSI) Musculoskeletal Disorders (MSD) Suggested retention periods: - CORRECT ANSWER Incident reports: five years Monthly or annual activity reports: five years Annual security evaluations: five years Parking violations: one year Security conditions: six months Security officer daily activity reports: three months Environmental Health and Safety's role in PPE is to: - CORRECT ANSWER Coordinate the PPE program Assist other departments in PPE maintenance Ensure other departments comply with PPE regulations and standards Hold department managers accountable for employee use of PPE. Motivate employees to use PPE Per the standard, it is the responsibility of health care facilities to: - CORRECT ANSWER *Perform written hazard assessments of work areas or jobs where hazards are present *Provide appropriate PPE for areas identified *Train employees to don and doff PPE correctly *Train employees about the limitations, correct usage and proper maintenance of PPE *Review, update and evaluate the PPE program's efficacy *Retrain employees *Have written certifications for employees completing their training, including the dates of training and employee name Healthcare tasks resulting from ergonomic stressors include: - CORRECT ANSWER Transporting equipment Reaching into deep sinks or containers Lifting trash, laundry or other bags Moving heavy carts Utilizing hand tools in maintenance areas Housekeeping tasks Five fundamental types of training - CORRECT ANSWER 1) New officer training 2) IAHSS progressive certification 3) Specialized program training 4) Elective training 5) Security leadership development activities Training to a time period may not be a good indicator of an officer's ability to perform... - CORRECT ANSWER Demonstrated competency is a better indicator How long is IAHSS certification valid for? - CORRECT ANSWER Certification is valid for three years Certification programs include: - CORRECT ANSWER Basic Officer Training Advanced Officer Training Supervisory Officer Training What does IAHSS certifcation center on? - CORRECT ANSWER The program centers on the understanding of the healthcare environment Retention for Incident Reports... - CORRECT ANSWER Incident reports: five years Retention for parking violations.. - CORRECT ANSWER Parking violations: one year The patient is: - CORRECT ANSWER Part of the healthcare business and not an outsider Not a cold statistic but a human being with feelings and emotions Deserves the most courteous and attentive treatment possible The life blood of every hospital Assessing risk of elopement: - CORRECT ANSWER Patient have court-appointed guardian? Patient considered to be a danger to self or others? Has the patient been legally committed? Does the patient lack capacity to make decisions? Does the patient have a history of escape? Does the patient have physical or mental impairment? Retention of security condition report.. - CORRECT ANSWER Security conditions: six months Retention of annual security evaluations... - CORRECT ANSWER Annual security evaluations: five years Retention of DARs... - CORRECT ANSWER Security officer daily activity reports: three months Protecting the VIP patient may include... - CORRECT ANSWER Control information about patient Remove patient's name from general patient population database Disconnect all telephone service to patient's room Patient should be housed in a room that provides maximum surveillance by care staff Restrict or deny visitors Provide companion or sitter Provide security officer Combative patients are often found in... - CORRECT ANSWER Emergency Intensive Care Mental Health General Nursing Medical Clinics The purpose of staff ID badges... - CORRECT ANSWER *Function as a basic element of the access control system *Electronic time-keeping function *Compliance with TJC standards *The IAHSS developed basic security guidelines relative to staff identification Crime Prevention is considered a pattern of : - CORRECT ANSWER *attitudes *behaviors [Show Less]
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CHPA 5 Exam 103 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPA 5 Exam 103 Questions with Verified Answers Gloves - CORRECT ANSWER In healthcare, the most common type of PPE Factors when choosing gloves, incl... [Show More] ude: - CORRECT ANSWER *Some healthcare workers have latex allergies *Powdered gloves create a source of airborne allergens *Non-powdered gloves, gloves with a low latex level or non-latex gloves should be used Designed to incapacitate a person from a safe distance while reducing serious injuries or death - CORRECT ANSWER Tasers A disadvantage of chemical agents. - CORRECT ANSWER Effectiveness of a rapid response is limited to the need to have direct exposure to the eyes Limitations of chemical agents: - CORRECT ANSWER No chemical agent will be effective in some cases: People under the influence of alcohol/drugs, emotionally disturbed or combative people may have a sensory reduction in pain This document brings together the policies, standards and general procedures... - CORRECT ANSWER The security operations manual Identify five types of training: - CORRECT ANSWER *New officer training *IAHSS progressive certification *Specialized program training *Elective training *Security leadership development activities The security operations manual typically includes: - CORRECT ANSWER *Purpose of the healthcare organization *Purpose of the security program *Security records and reports *General security information Use of Force Policy - CORRECT ANSWER A use of force policy should be developed in every healthcare facility and should include the identification of both clinical and non-clinical situations ** IAHSS has a guideline on use of force** Why should you avoid providing officers with needless equipment? - CORRECT ANSWER Providing officers with needless items increases the training time and program cost. What is the purpose of the Security Operations Manual? - CORRECT ANSWER ** The security operations manual brings together the policies, standards and general procedures ** It is intended to provide information to officers to effectively perform their job Constraints when using handcuffs - CORRECT ANSWER **CMS is very specific about the use of handcuffs in the patient restraint process **Handcuffs should not be used in the restraint of patients unless an arrest is going to be made Percentage of armed officers in healthcare... - CORRECT ANSWER Today, 12% of United States healthcare security officers are armed (GE Survey, 2008) What happens if you fail to provide uniforms to security officers? - CORRECT ANSWER By not providing officers with a uniform, a mixed message is created about the importance of security at the facility. What factors should be considered when deciding to arm security officers? - CORRECT ANSWER Factors for deciding to arm security officers: Personal safety Vulnerability Liability Deterrent value Environmental profile Quality of personnel Three primary skills for a successful officer: - CORRECT ANSWER Excellent communication Aptitude to learn Customer service attitude What is the main criteria when selecting a uniform style? - CORRECT ANSWER The main criteria of what style of uniform worn is driven from the type of healthcare organization, customer service and administrative preference What are the secrets to officer retention? - CORRECT ANSWER *Retention begins by creating a culture of continuous learning and opportunities for career advancement *The challenge of protecting healthcare environments is a great retention motivator What is the relationship between turnover, motivation and promotional potential? - CORRECT ANSWER There is a direct relationship between turnover and job satisfaction with the availability of promotional opportunities What is the trend in arming security officers? - CORRECT ANSWER In recent years the use of personnel in healthcare carrying firearms has declined. *Supervisors may be better trained and more capable of handling the weapons *This approach may reduce the exposure of the weapon - CORRECT ANSWER Two reasons for limiting arms to supervisors. Two key factors to remember when managing a firearms program. - CORRECT ANSWER 1) A clear and concise firearm policy is mandatory and must be understood by all officers 2) For all officers carrying a firearm, an affidavit should be completed describing policy, training and liability Disadvantage of powdered gloves... - CORRECT ANSWER Powdered gloves create a source of airborne allergens How do Tasers work? - CORRECT ANSWER Do not rely on pain compliance, they affect the sensory and motor function of the central nervous system Describe the elements of a good OJT program: - CORRECT ANSWER *Many on the job training programs fail due to a lack of a formulated structure *A checklist should be used to document training *The signed checklist becomes part of the officers' training record *Pre-service training should be validated with competency testing How is IAHSS recertification handled? - CORRECT ANSWER *Certification is valid for three years *Recertification can occur at their current level or progress to the next What does IAHSS training focus on? - CORRECT ANSWER The program centers on the understanding of the healthcare environment and its relationship to security Why is leadership development important? - CORRECT ANSWER *Success of every healthcare protection program is achieved by the people in the security leadership roles *People in leadership roles must personally build and enhance their security knowledge and ability to lead Why use Critical Task Focused Training? - CORRECT ANSWER *Training to a time period may not be a good indicator of an officer's ability to perform *Demonstrated competency is a better indicator Four basic tasks of patrol officers include, - CORRECT ANSWER Response to critical incidents, inspection services, routine preventive patrol and response to provide courtesy or routine service Describe the advantages of bike patrols: - CORRECT ANSWER *Focuses on being a visible deterrent to crime *Approachable source of assistance and information *Patrol large areas more frequently in shorter periods of time *Allows officers to be more interactive with the community served *Greater maneuverability in small areas *Added element of surprise to counter crime *Officers should be certified and submit to specific performance evaluation *Should wear a uniform that can stand up to mobility requirements and include a helmet Points to remember when organizing the patrol officer's key ring: - CORRECT ANSWER *Carry certain keys to effectively carry out their responsibilities *Not necessary to carry keys to every locked door *Each locked area of the facility must be evaluated and a plan developed regarding access requirements *Eliminate need to carry a key is to make the key available at a location controlled by another department These are two basic methods of deployment: - CORRECT ANSWER Sector (zone) patrol and unrestricted patrol. How well the security department carries out its assigned responsibilities will depend in large part: - CORRECT ANSWER on planning, controlling, evaluation, and modifying personnel in the field Describe a modified fixed post. - CORRECT ANSWER ** Is left unoccupied at times to conduct patrol rounds or to answer calls for service ** Random rotation to two or more fixed post locations ** Divide their time between the three areas in a non-patterned schedule Security operations are primarily concerned with... - CORRECT ANSWER security force deployment A key element of an effective protection program is: - CORRECT ANSWER the proper deployment of personnel In addition to supervisory checks, what secondary tools are available for patrol verification? - CORRECT ANSWER *Mechanical watch clock is one method but checking the clock can become the officers' primary objective *Electronic tour reporting systems can read bar codes or magnetic strips *Adaptation of electronic access control system This the "backbone" of any successful deterrent program. - CORRECT ANSWER effective prevention patrol Why are "first rounds" so important for the patrol officer? - CORRECT ANSWER *First patrol is extremely important, provides a basis for comparing all subsequent patrol activity *Patrol checks on second and subsequent rounds are geared to observe any changes compared to the first patrol Rotating patrols and changing assignments is recommended because: - CORRECT ANSWER *Every officer patrols with a unique point of view, take advantage by frequently rotating personnel and changing the assigned patrols *This provides the best possible patrol coverage and avoid security officer boredom Describe some of the potential problems, or challenges one might face with patrol officers. - CORRECT ANSWER *excessive socialization and talking too much *discussing confidential security information with non-department personnel *keeping officers separate when more than one is on duty *reading non-work related material while on post Discuss issues regarding shift rotation: - CORRECT ANSWER *Security officers must be knowledgeable about the security duties and the general activities of every shift to provide optimum protection services *Officers who are rotated to new shift assignments often discover security deficiencies or initiate improvements not perceived by their predecessors *Rotation plan exposes officers to more in-depth supervision because supervisors have different points of view and different method of leadership *Supervisors are stimulated by having new security officers What is the biggest argument against rotating shifts? - CORRECT ANSWER Not get to know who belongs and who does not belong in the facility How often should officers be rotated? - CORRECT ANSWER No established timeframe, a cycle of six months to one year works wel.l Background service check can include: - CORRECT ANSWER employment verifications, criminal histories, education, credentialing, references, credit reports, motor vehicle reports and date of birth statements What role does the ID badge play in the protection program? - CORRECT ANSWER *Function as a basic element of the access control system *Electronic time-keeping function *Compliance with TJC standards How many ID badges will you need? - CORRECT ANSWER The number of badges required annually is generally at least two-and-a half times the number of actual authorized positions What factors influence visitor policies? - CORRECT ANSWER Many factors affect visitor control, including the philosophy of the administration Elopement is defined as: - CORRECT ANSWER "A patient that is aware that he/she is not permitted to leave, but does so with intent." Security officers should always attempt to obtain.... - CORRECT ANSWER ...verbal consent before conducting a search What are two most important factors relative to security involvement in the missing patient incident? - CORRECT ANSWER timeliness and thoroughness of the search Where will you encounter combative patients? - CORRECT ANSWER Emergency Intensive Care Mental Health General Nursing Medical Clinics This program is used to manage cognitively impaired patients. - CORRECT ANSWER The Blue Shirt Program An effective program for managing wandering patients would include: - CORRECT ANSWER proper facility design and physical security safeguards, good control policies and procedures and ongoing staff training on the management of the wandering patient Provide an example of information you can release without a warrant or subpoena... - CORRECT ANSWER The patient's name, address, telephone number and birth date can be released without a search warrant or subpoena The most common problem in any employee badge identification system is: - CORRECT ANSWER obtaining compliance of displaying the badge... The name on the badge should be readable... - CORRECT ANSWER ..from at least 2 or 3 feet Discuss package inspections... - CORRECT ANSWER *The primary concern is for egress, however ingress is also an issue relative to contraband entering the facility *Effective control requires the compliance and cooperation of all staff as well as the control of various facility entrances and exits Describe elements of an employee locker program: - CORRECT ANSWER *Two supervisory staff members, one from security and one from a relevant department should conduct the inspections per policy *Personal locks should not be permitted if facility provides locks *If staff must provide their own, they should furnish duplicate key to management Why is an EAP important? - CORRECT ANSWER *A direct relationship exists between security and EAP *An in-depth EAP effort is a way to prevent crime and misconduct among staff Key components of employee involvement in the security program include: - CORRECT ANSWER educating...stimulating...motivating What program copies "Neighborhood Watch?" - CORRECT ANSWER *The "Neighborhood Watch" concept *This concept includes observing, reporting and dealing with suspicious activities "Hospital Watch" programs can be as creative and practical as staff ingenuity What is the primary safeguard against loss of staff property? - CORRECT ANSWER *Staff lockers. *Usually evolves from a lack of proper storage facilities, carelessness, misuse, or failure to use the facilities provided Crime Prevention is considered a pattern of : - CORRECT ANSWER attitudes behaviors This can be can be a gateway for facilitating and educating new employees: - CORRECT ANSWER New employee orientation Describe the crime triangle: - CORRECT ANSWER Desire Ability Opportunity Investigative activity includes: - CORRECT ANSWER *gathering and evaluating facts *evidence *organizational rule violations *applicant backgrounds *harassment and discrimination allegations *liability claims Investigative results can lead to: - CORRECT ANSWER recommendations for crime prevention, policy and procedural changes What are the greatest opportunities to reduce crime in the hospital? - CORRECT ANSWER Through employee awareness TJC standards require measurements to identify: - CORRECT ANSWER ...security performance and improvements Why do we have physical security safeguards? - CORRECT ANSWER -Designed to protect people Mitigate unauthorized access to: equipment facilities materials Documents -Protect against: espionage, sabotage, damage, theft, loss A basic principle of security is: - CORRECT ANSWER it's not a standalone process should integrate with physical security safeguards, security personnel, blended with psychological aspects, i.e. signage (restricted area, emergency exit, etc.) What are the two levels of investigation? - CORRECT ANSWER Preliminary or initial investigation-conducted by field security responding to scene Follow-up-may involve supervisor review, intent is to gain additional information, may be handled by same officer or specialized staff Healthcare security is often referred to: - CORRECT ANSWER as a system of perimeters. Each succeeding perimeter is closer to the most critical areas of operation Departments that may require investigative support... - CORRECT ANSWER Risk Management Security HR Legal / Compliance Describe the training process for security sensitive areas. - CORRECT ANSWER *Initial training for new employees about their roles and critical response *Periodically conduct drills to test critical response plan with corrective documentation *Annual retraining for all employees What is meant by "security layering?" - CORRECT ANSWER Using several different security safeguards to achieve the desired level of protection, i.e. video surveillance, fencing, signage, emergency communication devices, lighting and security patrol Section EC 1.2 of TJC compliance manual requires that hospitals have: - CORRECT ANSWER "have a plan to control ingress and egress from each defined security sensitive area" Workplace violence includes: - CORRECT ANSWER Assaults Stabbings Suicides Shootings Rape Attempted suicides Threats or obscene phone calls Intimidation Harassment of any nature Being followed, sworn at, or shouted at Psychological traumas A firm policy should be established that outlines: - CORRECT ANSWER the authorized disposition of unneeded property through the materials management department POWER principle is: - CORRECT ANSWER Prepare for your patient Own your work environment Work within your training Expect the unexpected Remember your resources Reasons why Materials Management is an area of special concern include: - CORRECT ANSWER Purchasing and Receiving Storage Equipment accountability and marking Distribution Disposing of property Why might food service be an area of special interest? - CORRECT ANSWER *The process of purchasing, storing, and preparing food products in such large volumes presents a wide array of opportunities for theft and misuse *The implementation of a strict access control plan is absolutely necessary Design of parking accommodations should include: - CORRECT ANSWER Handicap parking (required by law) Emergency services (transporters) Ambulatory patients with impaired mobility Outpatients Clinics Deliveries Visitors Staff Students SSA have two categories. What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Vulnerability to persons, i.e., infants, mental health, ED care, ICU care, and remote parking facilities 2) Vulnerability to properties, i.e., pharmacy, medical records, and research facilities Off-Campus locations should be managed... - CORRECT ANSWER *as part of the main facility security program in all respects, with the exception of critical incident response *Communications, all incident reports and physical security should be handled as if the off-campus facility were one unit with the main facility Security tends to reference violence as any act of: - CORRECT ANSWER physical violence threats of physical violence harassment intimidation other threatening or behavior occurring at the work site Discuss family-member abductions: - CORRECT ANSWER While nonfamily infant abductions are thought to be the greatest risks, a more common concern is the abduction of an infant or child by a family member... Video surveillance has two basic security uses: - CORRECT ANSWER 1. access control 2. general surveillance Nurses and healthcare workers suffer violent assaults at a rate ____ times higher than most other industries. - CORRECT ANSWER 12 Most common surveillance in healthcare is: - CORRECT ANSWER general video surveillance This publication covers the latest guidance on child abductions... - CORRECT ANSWER Most current National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC) guidelines titled...For Healthcare Professionals Guidelines on the Prevention of and Response to Infant Abductions ED security training should be accomplished using a: - CORRECT ANSWER multidisciplinary approach Afternoon shift employees Late night shift employees - CORRECT ANSWER Two types of parkers What types of parking demands must you plan for? - CORRECT ANSWER Handicap parking (required by law) Emergency services (transporters) Ambulatory patients with impaired mobility Outpatients Clinics Deliveries Visitors Staff Students How is security implemented at off-campus locations? - CORRECT ANSWER Planning and implementing the security program would be a collaboration of efforts by the senior manager and the designated administrator What is the standard or goal for off-campus security programs? - CORRECT ANSWER The goal should be that each facility is subject to standard security operating procedures and standardized physical security, equipment, monitoring, and maintenance, with allowances for special needs and circumstance unique to the facility. For cashiers and business office staff, what is the greatest risk? - CORRECT ANSWER The greatest risk in performing these functions is the employees themselves Security elements that should be standardized at off-campus locations include: - CORRECT ANSWER Access control Video surveillance/alarms Security officer coverage Vehicle security patrols Security signage Night lighting Security and Safety Incident Report Under the Privacy Act of 1974, HCF were prohibited from disclosing information contained in a medical record, except under these conditions: - CORRECT ANSWER *Organization had patient's consent to release information *Organization was served with a subpoena or court order *Public health supersedes the patient's rights, such in cases involving infectious disease *Organization is required by law to report the information to the public agency When assessing the security needs of the ED, elements to consider include: - CORRECT ANSWER Annual volume Trauma level designations Types of patients Specialized services History Area crime rate Layout and design of the ED What is the purpose of a security department's record system? - CORRECT ANSWER *a memory system *permit the exchange of information *direct operational procedures *fulfill various administrative needs *assist in the verification of security activities and planning process [Show Less]
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Focused Training 1 CHPA Exam 51 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Focused Training 1 CHPA Exam 51 Questions with Verified Answers Universal Wastes - CORRECT ANSWER More common and pose a lower risk to people and the en... [Show More] vironment than do other hazardous wastes. Classifications of Health Care Wastes - CORRECT ANSWER Chemical Pharmaceutical Infectious (medical) Genotoxic Pathologic Sharps Radioactive General The Forms of Hazardous Waste: - CORRECT ANSWER Solid, Liquid, Gaseous Two types of chemicals - CORRECT ANSWER Organic and Inorganic The Foundation of All Emergency Management Activities. - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard Identification Tools for mitigation - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard ID and mapping Design and construction applications Land-use planning Financial incentives Insurance Structural controls Levee - CORRECT ANSWER The most common form of structural control Hurricanes are measured - CORRECT ANSWER Saffir-Simpson Scale Tornadoes measured - CORRECT ANSWER Fujita-Pearson Tornado Scale This function offers one of the best opportunities for mitigation - CORRECT ANSWER The RECOVERY function Analysis of what risks are in a particular area - CORRECT ANSWER The most essential part of any mitigation strategy Functional - CORRECT ANSWER Exercise allows for the evaluation of various procedures that are similar (i.e. triage, communications) The cornerstone of Emergency Management - CORRECT ANSWER Mitigation Full Scale - CORRECT ANSWER Exercise meant to "stress" the system Earthquakes are measured - CORRECT ANSWER Richter and Modified Mercalli Scales On-going effort to lessen impact of disasters on people and property - CORRECT ANSWER Mitigation Deals with the functional aspects of emergency management. - CORRECT ANSWER Preparedness (i.e. response and recovery) Attempts to lessen disaster effects through pre-disaster actions. - CORRECT ANSWER Mitigation Source Reduction Recycling Waste Segregation Secure and Safe Storage Waste Conversion Pollution Prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Policies and procedures that HCF can use to reduce waste Hospital Watch - CORRECT ANSWER Adopted from Neighborhood Watch More varied and more unique than law enforcement investigations - CORRECT ANSWER Healthcare security investigations Determining if a crime has occurred - CORRECT ANSWER A significant part of the security investigator's work Loss of accountability, false reporting - CORRECT ANSWER Reasons for many property losses Each Week - CORRECT ANSWER Estimated a patient wanders away from a healthcare facility and dies. Department of Health and Human Services - CORRECT ANSWER Provides disaster assistance to older Americans through the Administration on Aging (AoA) Techniques and purposes are much broader - CORRECT ANSWER For business investigations compared to law enforcement investigations Saffir-Simpson Scale - CORRECT ANSWER Used to describe hurricanes Prohibits creation of a national ID - CORRECT ANSWER Homeland Security Act November 25, 2002 - CORRECT ANSWER Homeland Security Act or 2002 Investigation Style - CORRECT ANSWER Shaped by organizational philosophy More varied and often more unique - CORRECT ANSWER Security investigations vs. law enforcement investigations Determing whether a crime has occurred - CORRECT ANSWER Significant amount of time for the security investigator Operational and sensitive, higher-level - CORRECT ANSWER Two types of security investigations Should take place before need arises - CORRECT ANSWER Selecting outside investigative resource Measuring Tornadoes - CORRECT ANSWER Fujita-Pearson Can serve as a first line of surveillance for emerging safety and health problems - CORRECT ANSWER Security Staff Led from the top, but built from the bottom up - CORRECT ANSWER A successful Environmental Health and Safety Program The first step in the on-going three step process of recognition, evaluation and control - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard Surveillance 15.0 percent and 17.9 percent - CORRECT ANSWER The BLS 2003 figures for non-fatal injuries. Healthcare contributed 15% of all nonfatal injuries and 17.9% of all nonfatal occupational illnesses. Form 300 - CORRECT ANSWER OSHA's Form 300 Log- Log of work-related injuries and illnesses. The most important part of leadership's commitment to communications - CORRECT ANSWER inclusion of communications in all planning and operations Staff Support and Technology - CORRECT ANSWER Two key elements of FEMA's Crisis Communications infrastructure Partnership with the media provides - CORRECT ANSWER access to disaster site, access to emergency managers and staff, critical information to the public, accuracy in reporting Business Community - CORRECT ANSWER Often ignored in disaster communications General Public - CORRECT ANSWER The largest disaster communications audience. Contains many subgroups The backbone of a deterrent program - CORRECT ANSWER Preventive Patrol Linen Control, Gift Shops, Materials Management - CORRECT ANSWER Areas of Special Concern Components of a Security Sensitive Area - CORRECT ANSWER Access Control Plan Staff Orientation and Education Critical Incident Response Plan Areas of Special Concern - CORRECT ANSWER Function that requires "the specific attention of security." Reasons for off-campus facilities and services - CORRECT ANSWER - More accessible and convenient to patient - Build market share - New, growing treatment programs - Need for space Employee Entry, Life Safey (egress) Doors, Patient (and visitor) Doors - CORRECT ANSWER Three types of doors on the perimeter [Show Less]
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CHPA Industry Terms Exam 107 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPA Industry Terms Exam 107 Questions with Verified Answers Additional Living Expense (ALE) Coverage - CORRECT ANSWER A type of insurance included with... [Show More] in homeowners' policies. ALE coverage reimburses the insured for the cost of maintaining a comparable standard of living following a covered loss that exceeds the insured's normal expenses prior to the loss. For example, additional living expense insurance would cover an insured's motel bill while fire damage to the home is being repaired, the home is replaced, or until the insured moves to a permanent residence. ALE coverage is subject to a limit equal to 30 percent of the dwelling limit under forms HO-2, HO-3, and HO-5. For form HO-8, ALE is 10 percent of the dwelling limit. Under the tenant's policy (HO-4), ALE is 30 percent of the personal property limit, while under the condominium unit owners policy (HO-6), the limit of ALE is 50 percent of the personal property limit. Also, see Fair Rental Value. Affiliate/Alliance Partner - CORRECT ANSWER An Affiliate/Alliance Partner is another corporate housing company that corporate housing companies engage with to rent apartments from to fulfill needs, and vice versa. These partnerships are ongoing and often are continued through a service level agreement (SLA). Normally all of an Affiliate/Alliance Partner's inventory is fully furnished and includes utilities. Apartment Set-Up - CORRECT ANSWER The process includes all of the steps required to transform a vacant unit to a corporate apartment including securing the unit with a lease, setting up utilities, delivery of furniture and housewares. Available Unit - CORRECT ANSWER A unit that is leased from a landlord is considered available if it is on lease during the dates being reported. Average Daily Rate (ADR) - CORRECT ANSWER The average daily rate is calculated by dividing the total month's rental revenue by the total number of occupied unit nights for the month. Baby Boomers - CORRECT ANSWER The term used to define individuals born between the years 1946-1964. Backfill - CORRECT ANSWER An apartment that is currently on a long-term lease, as a core unit, that is occupied and will be filled by a new client/guest upon move out of existing client/guest. This will continue during the entire length of the lease. Benefit Period - CORRECT ANSWER The specified duration of time in which the client agrees to cover charges of goods and/or services provided by a supplier. Bi-Monthly Service Rotation - CORRECT ANSWER A service that occurs on a routine basis every other month. Bi-Weekly Service Rotation - CORRECT ANSWER A service that occurs on a routine basis every other week. Branding - CORRECT ANSWER The process of creating and maintaining a consistent image of a product or service Client- The contact that is securing/negotiating the lease on behalf of the occupant. Channel Manager - CORRECT ANSWER Channel Management is the process of managing online distribution channels in order to sell hotel/furnished apartment inventory to various agents across the globe. Channel management allows you to partner with large agents, such as OTAs, as well as smaller retail agents in different markets. Client Master Agreement - CORRECT ANSWER An agreement with a client that encompasses one or multiple units combined with a reservation confirmation. Close-Out Procedures - CORRECT ANSWER The process includes all of the steps required to transform a corporate apartment to a vacant unit including giving the required notice to vacate, removal of all furniture and housewares, as well as disconnecting all of the utilities. Core (Corporate) Units - CORRECT ANSWER Units that you have signed a lease directly with the property or in a building that you lease/own. Corporate Housing - CORRECT ANSWER Corporate housing is defined as a furnished apartment, condominium or house, made available for rent or let on a temporary basis, primarily for 30 days or more. Corporate Housing typically includes the following features: Furniture, full kitchen, private bath, linens, housewares, electronics and utilities. Corporate Housing Industry - CORRECT ANSWER The Corporate Housing Industry is a segment of the lodging industry that provides products, services and support of furnished, temporary housing. Corporate Housing Provider - CORRECT ANSWER A corporate housing provider is a business that receives direct compensation for providing corporate housing, as defined, and holds a lease with a property or tenant. Corporate Mission Statement - CORRECT ANSWER A mission statement is a statement of the purpose of a company or organization. The mission statement should guide the actions of the organization, spell out its overall goal, provide a path, and guide decision-making. It provides "the framework or context within which the company's strategies are formulated." Credit Card Authorization Form - CORRECT ANSWER A written authorization giving the corporate housing company permission to charge a credit card, from the person responsible for payment, including rent, deposits, damages, or utilities. The authorization may be recurring or one time. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) - CORRECT ANSWER Customer relationship management (CRM) is a widely-implemented strategy for managing a company's interactions with customers, clients and sales prospects. Deposit - CORRECT ANSWER A deposit that is paid to the property to be applied towards damages beyond normal wear and tear. Corporate housing companies may also require a refundable deposit to be used in the event of damages from their clients. Direct Expenses - CORRECT ANSWER Expenses which include apartment rent paid to landlords, furniture rental, operating stock expense, housekeeping labor, housekeeping supplies, and utility expense (including electric, gas, water and sewage, local telephone, cable television). In addition, unit repairs and maintenance, and other fees (referral fees and commissions, parking expenses, key expense, auxiliary warehouse rent expense, consumable expense, welcome bag expense, etc) are included in this figure. Extended-Stay Hotel - CORRECT ANSWER A hotel with a fully equipped kitchenette in each guest room, and which accepts reservations and does not require a lease. Extended-Stay - CORRECT ANSWER A stay of five consecutive nights or longer. Fair Housing - CORRECT ANSWER A federal law, passed in1968 and subsequent amendments, that protects the seven protected classes against discrimination in regards to access to housing. The seven protected classes are race, national origin, color, religion, familial status, handicap and sex. Final Cleans - CORRECT ANSWER The housekeeping procedure is performed once the corporate housing company removes all of the furnishings and is preparing to return the unit back to the property management company. Furniture Rental - CORRECT ANSWER The process of utilizing a company partner that will rent furniture to Corporate Housing Providers to utilize as part of their set up of a furnished apartment. Rental time frames can vary. General Manager - CORRECT ANSWER The primary purpose is to direct and manage the region's operational performance by identifying risk, trends, and growth opportunities to ensure profitability and exceptional customer service. The position motivates and gives guidance to all team members. Generation X - CORRECT ANSWER The term used to define individuals born between the years 1965 and 1981. Generation Z - CORRECT ANSWER The term used to define individuals born after 2000. Global Distribution System (GDS) - CORRECT ANSWER Worldwide computerized reservation network used as a single point of access for reserving airline seats, hotel rooms, rental cars, and other travel-related items by travel agents, online reservation sites, and large corporations. Also called an automated reservation system (ARS) or a computerized reservation system (CRS). Gross Profit - CORRECT ANSWER Gross profit is calculated by subtracting all direct expenses from the total revenue billed for the month. Total revenue includes all sources of revenue, including long-distance telephone calls and any other extra charge posted to a guest or client account. Gross Profit % - CORRECT ANSWER The gross profit percentage (%) is calculated by subtracting direct expenses from the total revenue, then dividing the number by the total revenue. (Total Revenue - Direct Expenses) / Total Revenue Guest Services - CORRECT ANSWER The primary purpose is to support the reservation throughout the entire process to ensure the highest level of guest satisfaction. This role is responsible for the coordination of the setup and the teardown of all furnishings in each corporate apartment and provides administrative support to the region. Holdover Tenant - CORRECT ANSWER A holdover tenancy is a situation when a tenant of real estate continues to occupy the premises without the landlord's consent after the original lease or rental agreement between the landlord and the tenant has expired. A tenant in this situation is also referred to as a tenant at sufferance. The tenant is responsible for payment of the monthly rental at the existing rate and terms, which the landlord may accept without admitting the legality of the occupancy. If a holdover tenant does not leave after a notice to quit (move out), he/she is subject to a lawsuit for unlawful detainer. A holdover differs from a tenant at will in that the latter has the permission of the landlord to stay beyond the expiration date of the agreement, while the holdover tenant does not. Housewares - CORRECT ANSWER Housewares are all the necessities for the kitchen, dining room, bedrooms, bathrooms and living room of a furnished apartment. These include items such as cookware, dishes, kitchen appliances, vacuum cleaners, ironing boards, pillows, sheets, towels, shower curtains, trash cans, and many other home-convenience necessities. IFB - CORRECT ANSWER Invitation for Bid Internal Tracking System (ITS) - CORRECT ANSWER In-house computer system that allows for complete management and tracking of all apartment inventory. The ITS houses accounting, service tickets, notice to vacate and rental tracking. Intranet - CORRECT ANSWER An internal website that is only accessible by employees of the host company. KPI - CORRECT ANSWER Key Performance Indicators, a type of performance measurement. Landlord Law - CORRECT ANSWER Statutes and common law that provide rules for leaseholds and tenancies. Landlord Obligations - CORRECT ANSWER The responsibilities of the landlord as set forth in the lease and at law. Lease - CORRECT ANSWER A written agreement in which the owner of the property (either real estate or some object like an automobile) allows the use of the property for a specified period of time (term) for specific periodic payments (rent), and other terms and conditions. Leases of real property describe the premises (often by address); penalties for late payments, termination upon default of payment or breach of any significant conditions; increases in rent based on the cost of living or some other standard; inclusion or exclusion of property taxes and insurance in rent; limitations on use (for a residence for the family only, no pets); charges for staying on beyond the term (holding over); any right to renew the lease for another period; and/or a requirement for payment of attorneys' fees and costs in case of the need to enforce the lease (including eviction). A lease is distinguished from a mere renting of the premises on a month-to-month basis and cannot exceed a year unless agreed to in writing. Lease Agreement - CORRECT ANSWER The lease document that is signed between the corporate housing provider and the property, as well as between the corporate housing provider and the client. Lease Matrix - CORRECT ANSWER A report that illustrates lease expiration dates. Also known as a lease expiration report. Long Distance Block - CORRECT ANSWER A process that prohibits access to long-distance services on the telephone. Lump Sum Relocation Coverage - CORRECT ANSWER A relocation package that provides an employee with a specific dollar amount to cover the relocation needs of the employee and their family that they are free to use at their discretion. Master Community Lease - CORRECT ANSWER An agreement with a community that encompasses one or multiple units. Millennials - CORRECT ANSWER The term used to define individuals born between 1981-2000. Mirroring a Lease/Lease Matching - CORRECT ANSWER The policy in which the individual who is receiving the product must sign or is obligated in writing to the same length of lease that the service provider is required to commit in order to obtain or solidify the transaction. Number of Units - CORRECT ANSWER The number of units is the average number of available apartments in inventory, by market, for the month. Included in this number are: • Units with a lease start date before the end of the period. • Units with a lease drop date during the month and after the end of the period. • Lease start date and lease drop date are the key dates, not the setup, lease-end and tear down dates. • If a lease end date is shown but not the drop date, the unit is considered to be available, even though the lease end date may have already passed. The average number of units is calculated by summing the total number of units in inventory each day of the month and dividing by the number of days in the month. [ (# units Day 1) + (# units Day 2) + (# units Day n) ] / n Where n = number of days in the month. Net Income - CORRECT ANSWER The Net Income is calculated by subtracting Total Expenses (including all overhead, taxes, debt and insurance) from Total Revenue. Total Revenue - Total Expenses Net Income % - CORRECT ANSWER The Net Income percentage is calculated by dividing the Net Income by Total Revenue (Total Revenue - Total Expenses) / Total Revenue Net Income Variance - CORRECT ANSWER The Net Income Variance is calculated by subtracting the budgeted net income from the actual net income, then dividing that amount by the budgeted net income. (Actual Net Income - Budgeted Net Income) / Budgeted Net Income Notice to Vacate - CORRECT ANSWER A written notice to inform of intent to vacate the unit. It could be completed by the client to give notice to the corporate housing company or completed by the corporate housing company to give notice to the apartment community. Occupant - The individual or family that is occupying the unit. Occupancy % - CORRECT ANSWER The occupancy percentage is calculated by dividing the number of occupied unit nights for the month by the total number of available unit nights for the month. Units on out-of-order status are included in the available apartment count. A unit may not have more than 100% occupancy during a month. Occupant Agreement - CORRECT ANSWER A contracted rental agreement between the client (the lessee) and Corporate Housing Provider (the lessor). Occupied Unit - CORRECT ANSWER A unit that is rented to a guest or client is considered occupied if there is a signed lease for it during the dates being reported. This includes all reservations at full rate, discounted rate or having a complimentary rate code. The number of guests or reservations assigned to the unit during the month is not considered. Online Travel Agency (OTA) - CORRECT ANSWER OTAs are online companies whose websites allow consumers to book various travel related services directly via the Internet. They are third-party agents reselling trips, hotels, cars, flights, vacation packages etc. provided/organized by others. Outsourcing - CORRECT ANSWER To obtain goods and/or services from a supplier outside of your current company's primary function. Partner - CORRECT ANSWER When a corporate housing company has an agreed partnership with another corporate housing company/supplier to provide services or supplies such as apartments, furniture, housewares, or cleaning services. PCI Security Standards Council - CORRECT ANSWER The PCI Security Standards Council is an open global forum, launched in 2006, that is responsible for the development, management, education and awareness of the PCI Security Standards, including the Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), Payment Application Data Security Standard (PA-DSS), and PIN Transaction Security (PTS) requirements. Per Diem - CORRECT ANSWER The allowance for lodging (excluding taxes), meals and incidental expenses. Portal - CORRECT ANSWER A website that is used as a central source of information; it can be custom designed based on the users' needs and referenced by multiple parties. Also referred to as a platform. PTE (Permission to Enter) - CORRECT ANSWER Written permission from the occupant or lessee authorizing others to enter an apartment. Also called a key release. Pet Deposit - CORRECT ANSWER A deposit that is paid to the property to be applied towards damages as a result of the pet. Pet deposits may be non-refundable or refundable. Pet Rent - CORRECT ANSWER Additional rent due to the property on a monthly basis as long as a pet is in the apartment. Property Profile - CORRECT ANSWER Description of the property and amenities. Quality Assurance (QA) - CORRECT ANSWER The process of inspecting a unit prior to guest move-in to ensure that unit is ready. Quality Control - CORRECT ANSWER The primary role of this position is to inspect apartments prior to guests' move in and after guests' move out and is the essential point for customer service in the region. Additionally, this role supports the coordination of the setup and the teardown of all furnishings in each corporate apartment and provides administrative support to the region as needed. Referral Fee - CORRECT ANSWER A sum received by the referring party for a lead that results in a booked reservation or the completion of a transaction. Rental Increase - CORRECT ANSWER An increase in rent owed by the tenant. Rental Revenue - CORRECT ANSWER The revenue charged to the guest for unit rent. The rental revenue is the rate charged each guest times the number of nights the guest stayed in the unit during the month and is shown in local currency (USD, CAD, GBP, etc.) Revenue - CORRECT ANSWER Under accrual accounting, it is the rent earned during the period indicated in the heading of the income statement, regardless of when the money is received from the tenant. Reservation - CORRECT ANSWER The end result of reserving or booking housing accommodations for a relocating individual(s) Reservation Confirmation - CORRECT ANSWER The document used in conjunction with a client master agreement that lists the specifics regarding a particular occupant's stay (including arrival/departure dates, apartment address, etc.) Residential Landlord Tenant Act - CORRECT ANSWER Some states have adopted statutes governing residential tenancies. These statutes are often grouped together and known as the state's residential landlord tenant act. Not all states have these. RFI (Request for Information) - CORRECT ANSWER A formal document requesting general information on a company and/or its services. RFP (Request for Proposal) - CORRECT ANSWER A formal document used to procure services or goods, which may or may not include pricing. An RFP can include scope of work, service level agreements, length of the agreement, company backgrounds, audited financial statements and references. RFQ (Request for Quotation) - CORRECT ANSWER A formal document used to procure services or goods, which includes pricing. RevPar - CORRECT ANSWER Revenue per available unit. A combination of paid occupancy percentage and average daily rate. Unit revenues divided by available rooms (or units) or, alternatively, paid occupancy percentage times average daily rate. Gross Rental Revenue / Number of Rooms/Units Available OR Occupancy % x ADR Sales Positions - Inside - CORRECT ANSWER Acts as point of contact for current and potential clients seeking corporate housing need(s) within the region. The primary purpose of this role is to provide sales support to clients by preparing pricing and availability, facilitating new lease paperwork, and ensuring the highest level of customer satisfaction. Schedule Board - CORRECT ANSWER A visual representation of a provider's inventory and reservations. Security Deposit Refund - CORRECT ANSWER Landlords may make deductions from a tenant's security deposit, provided they do it correctly and for an allowable reason. Many states require landlords to provide a written itemized accounting of deductions for unpaid rent and for repairs for damages and necessary cleaning that exceed normal wear and tear, together with payment for any deposit balance. The deadlines vary from state to state, but landlords usually have a set amount of time in which to return deposits, usually 14 to 30 days after the tenant moves out -- either voluntarily or by eviction. Service Level Agreement - CORRECT ANSWER An agreement between two corporate housing providers used to ensure the performance of service providers in a third-party or wholesale relationship. Service Tickets - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance or upgrade/downgrade requests from a client/guest that is entered and tracked via Internal Tracking System and tracked throughout their active lease term. Skip-Tracing - CORRECT ANSWER The process of finding a customer who has either moved to avoid paying debts or is trying to avoid payments by making it difficult for the collector to find him/her. SODA (Statement of Deposit Account) - CORRECT ANSWER A written accounting of the status of a deposit once a unit is vacated. Any charges as a result of damages or unpaid rent are itemized. Stipend Traveler - CORRECT ANSWER A stipend traveler is a traveling professional that is given an allotted amount of money, typically by the company they are being employed through, to spend on housing costs every month. Temporary Duty Assignment (TDA) - CORRECT ANSWER Also known as "temporary additional duty" (TAD), "temporary duty travel" (TDT) or "temporary duty" (TDY), refers to a United States Government employee travel assignment at a location other than the employee's permanent duty station. Temporary Duty Year (Temporary Duty Year) - CORRECT ANSWER Government employee on assignment at more or more locations, away from the permanent duty station (PDS), under orders providing for further assignment, or pending further assignment, to return to the old PDS or to proceed to a new PDS. Third-Party Client - CORRECT ANSWER A business (example: a relocation consulting company) that facilitates all or part of corporate transferees relocation. They are the go-between the client corporation (the transferee's employer) and the corporate housing company. Thread Count - CORRECT ANSWER Thread count is simply the number of threads per square inch of fabric. Total Revenue - CORRECT ANSWER Calculated by adding all charges billed for each unit during the month. This includes all rental revenue, telephone revenue, revenue from extra services, etc. This also includes any fees paid by guests, including early departure, pet cleaning, etc. However, deposits are not to be included in this number. Touch-Up Clean - CORRECT ANSWER The act of making sure an apartment is ready for arrival. The apartment could have possibly been sitting vacant for longer than expected so you send someone over to touch up the apartment to ensure it is made ready. Transient - CORRECT ANSWER A short-term guest, typically staying one to four nights. Turn Clean - CORRECT ANSWER The housekeeping procedure that is performed between occupants. Unit - CORRECT ANSWER A unit is representative of the inventory managed by corporate housing companies. Units can be defined as an apartment, condo, single-family home, or any other residential style housing provided to a client. Unit Inventory Management - CORRECT ANSWER The process of managing unit inventory to minimize vacancy loss. Utility Allowance - CORRECT ANSWER The maximum amount budgeted for utilities in a corporate unit. A utility expense larger than the utility allowance may result in additional expense for the client or occupant. Utility Cap - CORRECT ANSWER The amount of money a corporate housing provider is going to cover per month of the clients' utilities. If that amount has been exceeded, the rest of the bill will be added to the clients' invoices to be paid by them. Vacancy Loss - CORRECT ANSWER The period in which the corporate apartment is set up and no rental income is recognized. Vendors - CORRECT ANSWER Companies that provide goods and services to corporate housing providers. Wholesaling - CORRECT ANSWER The process of a corporate housing company renting a corporate apartment from another corporate housing company. Work Orders - CORRECT ANSWER A request to the property to complete maintenance in the unit or common area of the community. May also be called a maintenance request. Yield Management - CORRECT ANSWER Selling apartments in a way that maximizes total revenues. Before selling a corporate apartment in advance, the corporate provider considers the probability of being able to sell the room to other market segments (or customers) that are willing to pay a higher rate. [Show Less]
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ECON CHPA 1,2,3 Exam 48 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
ECON CHPA 1,2,3 Exam 48 Questions with Verified Answers An American consumer who buys a Ferrari that was produced in Italy is an example of a US... - CO... [Show More] RRECT ANSWER import Who conducts fiscal policy? - CORRECT ANSWER The executive branch The nation's legislative body Congress What is the process in which workers select specialized tasks to make a product? - CORRECT ANSWER Division of labor Who conducts monetary policy? - CORRECT ANSWER The country's central bank Typically an agricultural economy where things are done the same as they have always been done - CORRECT ANSWER Traditional Economy An economic structure where economic decisions are passed down from government planners where factors of production are owned by the government - CORRECT ANSWER Command economy An economy where economic decisions are conducted through spontaneous order, factors of production are owned by individuals and businesses supply goods and services based on demand - CORRECT ANSWER Market economy the social science that seeks to understand the choices people make in using scarce resources to meet their unlimited wants - CORRECT ANSWER economics A product that is produced in the US and sold abroad is a US - CORRECT ANSWER export The study of economics is primarily concerned with: - CORRECT ANSWER Making the best use of scarce resources The role of an assumption in an economic theory is to: - CORRECT ANSWER simplify the theory The total dollar amount of all final goods and services produce within a country's borders in one year - CORRECT ANSWER gross domestic product In the circular flow model, households: - CORRECT ANSWER Buy products and sell resources (labor, capital & natural resources) When economists refer to underground economies, they are talking about: - CORRECT ANSWER Black markets, Employees being paid under the table, Illegal trade Microeconomics is concerned with: - CORRECT ANSWER The individual units that make up the whole of the economy A tradeoff between two goods (or services) that could be produced The maximum combinations of two goods (or services) that can be produced given the economy's available knowledge and factors of production The efficient use of resources, points beyond the PPF are unattainable and points inside the PPF are inefficient - CORRECT ANSWER The Production Possibility Frontier shows Marginal analysis is used to - CORRECT ANSWER Examine the decisions of incremental change What is the term that economists use to describe the satisfaction or happiness gained from consuming a product? - CORRECT ANSWER utility The law of diminishing marginal utility - CORRECT ANSWER Shows the general pattern of higher levels of happiness for the first few units consumed compared to the last few units consumed How can society increase productivity - CORRECT ANSWER more land, more labor, more capital. innovation budget constraint - CORRECT ANSWER shows the maximum quantity of two products that a person can purchase based on the price of the products and the person's budget. In a closed economy (no international trade), how does a society choose where on the PPF to produce? - CORRECT ANSWER Society will choose the combination of the two goods that maximize society's utility The invisible hand - CORRECT ANSWER Shows how producers and consumers interact in the spontaneous market to create the immense and dynamic economy that we see today This is a situation where, given fixed factors of production, it is not possible to produce more of one good without decreasing production of another good. - CORRECT ANSWER Productive efficiency opportunity cost is - CORRECT ANSWER The next best alternative What was forgone because you pursued something else that was desired A true cost that economists incorporate into cost models All around us and is part of daily decision making Sunk costs - CORRECT ANSWER Should not be considered when making a new decision Economists assume that donating money to a stranger is not rational and self-interested. - CORRECT ANSWER false Economists use the term Marginal to describe - CORRECT ANSWER A little more or a little less of something An increase or decrease in one unit Incremental changes What are economists referring to if additional increments of recourses are added to production but the marginal benefit from those additional resources decreases? - CORRECT ANSWER The law of diminishing returns "The unemployment rate in April 2014 was 6.3% which was better than the unemployment rate was in March, but it still should have been lower" is an example of: - CORRECT ANSWER normative economis normative economics - CORRECT ANSWER It is the study or presentation of "what ought to be" rather than what actually is. classical economics - CORRECT ANSWER is widely regarded as the first modern school of economic thought positive economics - CORRECT ANSWER Most economists today focus on positive economic analysis, which uses what is and what has been occurring in an economy as the basis for any statements about the future. "The unemployment rate in April 2014 was 6.3%" is an example of - CORRECT ANSWER positive economics line shifts when - CORRECT ANSWER supply and demand changes points shift when - CORRECT ANSWER price itself changes If there is an increase in Demand, what will happen to equilibrium Price and equilibrium Quantity? - CORRECT ANSWER Equilibrium Price will increase & equilibrium Quantity will increase the amount of time that you study and how well you perform on the exam is a - CORRECT ANSWER direct relationship To correct for a surplus, - CORRECT ANSWER The equilibrium price will fall Quantity demanded will increase and quantity supplied will decrease Built up inventories will decrease Supply increases by the exact same proportion that demand increases by - what will happen to equilibrium Price and equilibrium Quantity? - CORRECT ANSWER Equilibrium Price will stay constant & equilibrium Quantity will increase The relationship between price and quantity demanded is - CORRECT ANSWER Inverse If there is a decrease in Supply, what will happen to equilibrium Price and equilibrium Quantity? - CORRECT ANSWER Equilibrium Price will increase & equilibrium Quantity will decrease Price floor - CORRECT ANSWER Is a legally established minimum price that a product is allowed to be sold To be considered as part of the demand curve for a product, you must - CORRECT ANSWER be willing and able to purchase that item The purpose of the ceteris paribus assumption used in economic analysis is to - CORRECT ANSWER Restrict the analysis to the effect of a single (or few) economic variables What are the benefits called when suppliers are willing and able to accept a price lower than equilibrium price but actually receive equilibrium price? - CORRECT ANSWER Producer Surplus MOney is not a - CORRECT ANSWER factor of production A shortage takes place - CORRECT ANSWER at a price below eq price [Show Less]
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Finance CHPA 17,18,19 Exam 50 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Finance CHPA 17,18,19 Exam 50 Questions with Verified Answers 1. Which of the following is not a reason for investing in mutual funds? A) Small amoun... [Show More] t of funds needed B) Portfolio manager expertise C) Specific investment goals D) Overly diversified - CORRECT ANSWER D) Overly diversified 2. Advantages of investing in mutual funds include all of the following except A) diversification of your investment. B) professional management. C) meeting specific investment goals. D) there is virtually no risk of loss. - CORRECT ANSWER D) there is virtually no risk of loss. 3. The ________ is the market value of the securities that a mutual fund has purchased minus any liabilities. A) book value B) net asset value C) gross asset value D) net worth value - CORRECT ANSWER B) net asset value 4. The net asset value (NAV) is reported in financial newspapers and on financial Web sites A) for the total fund family. B) on a per-share basis. C) as a percentage of the fund's price. D) on a weekly basis due to the complexity of computation. - CORRECT ANSWER B) on a per-share basis. 5. In calculating the net asset value (NAV), which of the following is true? A) Dividends are subtracted and expenses added B) Interest is subtracted and expenses are added C) Dividends are added and expenses are subtracted D) Interest and other expenses are not included - CORRECT ANSWER C) Dividends are added and expenses are subtracted 6. Which of the following is not a true statement about mutual funds? A) All require a minimum investment. B) All have the same investment goals. C) The calculation of net asset value is the same. D) All have a management expense ratio. - CORRECT ANSWER B) All have the same investment goals. 7. To calculate the NAV, the market value of the portfolio less liabilities is divided by the ________ to arrive at a per-share basis. A) original number of shares B) shares currently issued by the fund C) maximum shares to be issued D) average number of shares in comparable funds - CORRECT ANSWER B) shares currently issued by the fund 8. Mutual funds that sell shares directly to investors and repurchase shares investors want to sell are called ________ funds. A) open-market B) open-end C) closed-end D) fair value - CORRECT ANSWER B) open-end 9. An open-end mutual fund may do all of the following except A) sell shares directly to investors. B) charge a fee to buy but not sell shares. C) repurchase shares from investors who want to sell their shares. D) have its shares traded on the New York Stock Exchange. - CORRECT ANSWER D) have its shares traded on the New York Stock Exchange. 10. A family of mutual funds is A) a group of funds all of which have the same objective. B) a number of funds with different objectives operated by one investment company. C) an arrangement whereby a number of competing investment companies pool their resources. D) quite rare in the mutual fund industry. - CORRECT ANSWER B) a number of funds with different objectives operated by one investment company. 11. Existing shares of closed-end mutual fund companies are purchased A) from the investment company directly. B) from the investment company through a broker. C) from other investors in the stock market. D) from a bank. - CORRECT ANSWER C) from other investors in the stock market. 12. Which of the following characteristics is not true of closed-end funds? A) They can be load or no-load funds. B) They do not repurchase shares from investors. C) They are bought and sold on stock exchanges. D) They may sell above or below NAV. - CORRECT ANSWER A) They can be load or no-load funds 13. Stock brokers typically do not recommend no-load funds because A) the return is lower than on load funds and brokers want to sell only the best funds to their clients. B) federal law prohibits brokers from selling no-load funds. C) no-load funds do not pay a fee to the broker for selling them. D) there is no secondary market for them. - CORRECT ANSWER C) no-load funds do not pay a fee to the broker for selling them. 14. Regarding load and no-load mutual funds, A) load funds usually outperform no-load funds. B) no-load funds perform at least as well as load funds even when the fees are ignored. C) the two types of funds perform about the same considering the fees. D) load funds may be bought directly, whereas no-load funds must be purchased through a broker. - CORRECT ANSWER B) no-load funds perform at least as well as load funds even when the fees are ignored. 15. Which of the following expenses is usually the highest for a mutual fund? A) Management fees B) Administrative fees C) 12b-1 fees D) Referral fees - CORRECT ANSWER A) Management fees 16. The amount by which a closed-end fund's share price in the secondary market is above the fund's NAV is called the A) market value. B) premium. C) discount. D) par value. - CORRECT ANSWER B) premium. 17. Asset allocation is the process of dividing money across financial assets that include all of the following except A) stocks. B) bonds. C) mutual funds. D) All of the above can be used for asset allocation. - CORRECT ANSWER D) All of the above can be used for asset allocation. 18. The objective of asset allocation is to A) make investment decisions easier. B) ensure the returns of the individual investments within a portfolio. C) achieve a desired return on investment and eliminate the adverse risk of investing. D) achieve a desired return on investment and maintain a tolerable risk level. - CORRECT ANSWER D) achieve a desired return on investment and maintain a tolerable risk level. 19. You can reduce investment risk by investing in A) a corporate bond. B) a portfolio of investments. C) corporate stocks. D) real estate. - CORRECT ANSWER B) a portfolio of investments. 20. The primary benefit of diversification is that it A) is convenient. B) is cheap. C) reduces the exposure of your investments to adverse effects of any individual investment. D) increases stock volatility. - CORRECT ANSWER C) reduces the exposure of your investments to adverse effects of any individual investment. 21. Which of the following is a true statement about diversification? A) It will increase your overall risk. B) It will increase your volatility. C) It will decrease the number of investments in your portfolio. D) It will increase your chances of obtaining your financial goals. - CORRECT ANSWER D) It will increase your chances of obtaining your financial goals. 22. Which of the following would not be a good method of asset allocation? A) Restrict your portfolio to stocks B) Include bonds C) Include real estate D) Include mutual funds - CORRECT ANSWER A) Restrict your portfolio to stocks 23. A portfolio can reduce risk when its A) investments do not move in tandem. B) investments move in tandem. C) returns of individual investments are similar. D) investments are from similar industries. - CORRECT ANSWER A) investments do not move in tandem. 24. Proper asset allocation can A) increase your wealth. B) decrease your assets. C) increase your dividend income and decrease your interest income. D) increase your expenses. - CORRECT ANSWER A) increase your wealth. 25. When you compile a portfolio of stocks, you should avoid including stocks that exhibit A) a high negative correlation. B) a high positive correlation. C) no correlation. D) an inverse correlation. - CORRECT ANSWER B) a high positive correlation. 26. To reduce your risk, you should select stocks whose returns exhibit a ________ positive correlation rather than a ________ positive correlation. A) high; high B) low; high C) high; low D) low; low - CORRECT ANSWER B) low; high 27. A portfolio's risk is measured by its degree of volatility because the ________ volatile the returns, the ________ uncertain the future return on the portfolio. A) more; more B) more; less C) less; more D) None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER A) more; more 28. The more ________ the returns of individual investments in a portfolio, the more ________ the portfolio's returns are over time. A) similar; volatile B) different; volatile C) steady; unsteady D) aggressive; predictable - CORRECT ANSWER A) similar; volatile 29. During the financial crisis in 2008-2009, investors who were diversified across industries A) experienced no losses. B) experienced large gains. C) experienced significant losses because most industries were suffering from weak economic conditions. D) experienced losses in financial services companies but not in other industries. - CORRECT ANSWER C) experienced significant losses because most industries were suffering from weak economic conditions. 30. In compiling a portfolio, which of the following should you not consider? A) Investments that exhibit a high positive correlation B) Investments whose values are not influenced by similar conditions C) Negatively correlated investments D) Investments whose reaction to economic conditions will not be similar - CORRECT ANSWER A) Investments that exhibit a high positive correlation 31. Diversifying among stocks based in countries outside the United States A) makes your portfolio less vulnerable to conditions in the United States. B) is too expensive to use as a means of diversification. C) makes your portfolio's returns less volatile because foreign stocks are less volatile than U.S. stocks. D) is too risky for individual investors to consider. - CORRECT ANSWER A) makes your portfolio less vulnerable to conditions in the United States. 32. Proper risk-return management for a firm means that A) the firm should take as few risks as possible. B) the firm must determine an appropriate trade-off between risk and return. C) the firm should earn the highest return possible. D) the firm should value future profits more highly than current profits. - CORRECT ANSWER B) the firm must determine an appropriate trade-off between risk and return. 33. Your Social Security retirement benefits are determined primarily by the amount A) of current contributions by other employees. B) of savings you have. C) you contributed to Social Security over the years. D) of the prime interest rate. - CORRECT ANSWER C) you contributed to Social Security over the years. 34. If a person who qualified for Social Security dies, which of the following are provided to the survivors? A) A one time payment to the spouse. B) Monthly income payments if the spouse is over age 60. C) Monthly income payments to children under age 18. D) All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER D) All of the above. 35. Social Security is all of the following except A) a good starting point when planning for your retirement funding. B) financed through working individuals and employers. C) a government program that provides benefits to the elderly and the disabled. D) a program that provides benefits that replace about 60% of a worker's annual income. - CORRECT ANSWER D) a program that provides benefits that replace about 60% of a worker's annual income. 36. To qualify for Social Security benefits, your income has to be at least ________ per quarter (in 2015) for the equivalent of 10 years. A) $730 B) $874 C) $1,220 D) $1,123 - CORRECT ANSWER C) $1,220 37. You can elect to receive Social Security retirement benefits A) at the full retirement age, which is being raised from 65 to 69. B) at age 62 and take a reduced amount. C) and limit your ability to keep on working and earning income. D) and not be taxed on them, no matter how much other income you have. - CORRECT ANSWER B) at age 62 and take a reduced amount. 38. In retirement planning, which of the following is false? A) Social Security benefits are enough for retirement for most people. B) IRAs can be a good way to provide for retirement. C) You can continue to work and receive Social Security benefits at the same time. D) There is some concern about whether full Social Security benefits will be available in the future. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Social Security benefits are enough for retirement for most people. 39. Social Security replaces approximately ________% of a worker's average annual income from his or her working years. A) 100 B) 40 C) 75 D) 85 - CORRECT ANSWER B) 40 40. If a person who qualified for Social Security benefits dies, all of the following are benefits provided to the survivors except A) a one-time payment to the spouse. B) monthly income payments to the spouse with eligible children or if the spouse is at least age 60. C) monthly income payments to children. D) tuition reimbursement for a child attending college. - CORRECT ANSWER D) tuition reimbursement for a child attending college. 41. Assuming Social Security income is not absolutely necessary at age 62, the decision whether to begin receiving reduced payments at age 62 versus waiting for full retirement age is A) a financial analysis decision based on present value and life expectancy. B) a moot point since the government tells you when you are eligible. C) a decision based on expected inflation rates. D) a moot point since you should take the money as soon as possible. - CORRECT ANSWER A) a financial analysis decision based on present value and life expectancy. 42. As you plan for retirement, you should consider Social Security benefits as a supplement to A) your 401(k) savings. B) your company pension if one exists. C) your investment portfolio. D) All of the above are correct. - CORRECT ANSWER D) All of the above are correct. 43. Social Security benefits are ________, as are Social Security ________ on your income. A) uncapped; withholding taxes B) capped; withholding taxes C) unlimited; fees D) capped; fees - CORRECT ANSWER B) capped; withholding taxes 44. When you contribute to an employer sponsored retirement account, it is usually with ________ dollars. A) after-tax B) pre-tax C) optional D) discretionary - CORRECT ANSWER B) pre-tax 45. Retirement fund withdrawals are usually taxed as ________ income. A) short-term capital gains B) long-term capital gains C) ordinary D) tax-free - CORRECT ANSWER C) ordinary 46. You get a job with the Allred Corporation. Its retirement plan will pay you $250 a month for each year you work for the company; payments begin on your 65th birthday. You must work for the company for 10 years in order to qualify for the pension. This plan is a A) defined-benefit plan. B) defined-contribution plan. C) traditional IRA. D) Keogh plan. - CORRECT ANSWER A) defined-benefit plan. 47. In the last 20 years, many employers have shifted from A) defined-contribution to defined-benefit plans. B) defined-benefit to defined-contribution plans. C) 401(k) plans to 403(b) plans. D) SEP plans to SIMPLE plans. - CORRECT ANSWER B) defined-benefit to defined-contribution plans. 48. If your retirement plan has no vesting requirement then it is not a A) defined-benefit plan. B) Roth IRA. C) traditional IRA. D) Keogh plan. - CORRECT ANSWER A) defined-benefit plan. 49. With which of the following plans will you be able to most accurately predict your retirement income? A) 401(k) B) 403(b) C) Traditional IRA D) Defined-benefit plan - CORRECT ANSWER D) Defined-benefit plan 50. Which of the following is not a characteristic of employer-sponsored retirement plans? A) Help you save B) Generally of two types C) Part of a good benefits package D) A good place from which to borrow - CORRECT ANSWER D) A good place from which to borrow [Show Less]
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CHPS Exam Prep 164 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPS Exam Prep 164 Questions with Verified Answers In order to ensure a successful implementation of electronic health records, the organization must id... [Show More] entify and define strategic roles. These planning roles may be defined in three categories:leadership, internal stakeholders, and external stakeholders. The governing body (board) is an example of which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Leadership only Which of the following statements most accurately describes the optimal relationship between strategic planning and strategic IM planning in a healthcare entity? - CORRECT ANSWER The two process are clearly related. It is important for the CIO to be involved in both processes to ensure that IS priorities are congruent with the overall strategic plans of the entity. Medical record number - CORRECT ANSWER One way to examine readmission's with a given time frame at your faculty is to retrieve patient data for that time frame and look for duplicates of which attribute common in clinical data sets? A drug interaction alert would be a typical function of a _______. - CORRECT ANSWER Decision support system Which code set would be utilized to create a report showing a hospital's case mix index? - CORRECT ANSWER DRG (Diagnosis Related Group) A set of standards that provides universal names and codes for a laboratory and clinical results is ___________. - CORRECT ANSWER LONIC Your chief financial officer has contacted you because your facility's case-mix index increased last year. He wish to hear your theory on why this is so. Among the options below, which would best explain an increase in the case-mix index? - CORRECT ANSWER The quality of clinical documentation improved Activities of daily living (ADL) are components of - CORRECT ANSWER MDS and OASIS Assume you are the manager of a 10-physician group primary care practice. The physicians are interested in contracting with an application service provider to develop and manage patient records electronically. Which of the following statements is an indication that an ASP may be a good idea for this practice? - CORRECT ANSWER The practice does not have an upfront capital or IT staff needed to purchase and implement a system from a health information systems vendor. Maps from terminologies to classifications (and possibly from classifications to terminologies) are expected to _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Facilitate "enter once, use many" functionally Which of the following basic services provided by an HIE entity ensures that information can be retrieved as needed? - CORRECT ANSWER Secure data transport Which of the following statements most accurately describes the optimal relationship between strategic planning and strategic IM planning in a healthcare entity? - CORRECT ANSWER The two process are clearly related. It is important for the CIO to be involved in both processes to ensure that IS priorities are congruent with the overall strategic plans of the entity. Which type of indicators measure the actual results of care for patients and populations, including patient and family satisfaction? - CORRECT ANSWER Outcome Which of the following activities is likely to occur in the analysis phase of the systems development life cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Examine the current system and identify opportunities for improvement Which RVU component is best suited for measuring physician productivity? - CORRECT ANSWER wRVU The physician fee schedule is based on what component(s)? - CORRECT ANSWER All of these Comparing the ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM diabetes mellitus codes and documenting variations creates a______________. - CORRECT ANSWER Data map Medical security diagnosis-related groups (MS-DRGs) represent a prospective payment system implemented by the CMS to reimburse hospitals a predetermined amount for services provided to - CORRECT ANSWER inpatients A research instrument that is used to gather data and information from respondents in a uniform manner through the administration of a predefined and structured set of questions and possible responses is called a(n) ________. - CORRECT ANSWER Survey An example of a database that depends on standardized data definitions is _____________. - CORRECT ANSWER A statewide cancer data system Which of the following is an external user of data? - CORRECT ANSWER Public health department Which of the following indexes and databases includes patient-identifiable information? - CORRECT ANSWER Master population/patient index HIM departments may be the hub of identifying, mitigating, and correcting MPI errors, but that information often is not shared with other departments within the healthcare organization. After identifying procedural problems that contribute to the creation of the MPI errors, which department should the MPI manager work with to correct these procedural problems? - CORRECT ANSWER Registration of patient access The inpatient data set incorporated into federal law and required for Medicare reporting is the ____________. - CORRECT ANSWER Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set Standardized sets of valid, reliable, and evidence-based measures implemented by the Joint Commissions are called _____________. - CORRECT ANSWER Core (performance) measures The computer-based process of extracting, quantifying, and filtering discrete data that reside in a relational database is called ________. - CORRECT ANSWER Data mining In terms of grouping and reimbursement, how are the MS-LTC-DRGs and acute care MS-DRGs similar? - CORRECT ANSWER Organizing into MDCs (Major Diagnostic Category) Which of the following is not a valid use of a relative weight assigned to each MS-DRG? - CORRECT ANSWER Measure of cost of living The leader of the coding performance improvement team wants all of her team members to clearly understand the coding process. Which of the following would be the best tool for accomplishing this objective? - CORRECT ANSWER Flowchart Which of the following elements is found in a charge description master? - CORRECT ANSWER Procedure or service charge An audit tracking database would contain information from the health care claim payment advice that is in what format? - CORRECT ANSWER 835 Data showing a physician's professional fee charges would be found on which billing format? - CORRECT ANSWER CMS-1500 The practice of "normalization" of a database prevents duplication of data elements and ensures the data conforms to a standard. There are three forms of normalization. The third normal form requires which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Elimination fields that do not depend on the key Which of the following is the process of refining a data model to reduce redundant storage of information and best describe the data and its relationships? - CORRECT ANSWER Normalization You need to interface data automatically from one clinical system to another. Which framework is most commonly used for this purpose in the healthcare system? - CORRECT ANSWER HL7 An executive has asked you to provide a single report that requires you to draw from data in multiple tables within a SQL-compliant database. Which of the following is the SQL operator that will you allow you to do this? - CORRECT ANSWER JOIN In healthcare, one of the primary uses for data warehouses is _________. - CORRECT ANSWER Outcomes management The most basic, or core, element in an information system is the _______. - CORRECT ANSWER data The first level of HCPCS consists of _____. - CORRECT ANSWER CPT ICD-10-CM is an example of a _______. - CORRECT ANSWER clinical classification In SNOWMED-CT, this term is used to describe how concepts are linked to one another: - CORRECT ANSWER relationship The process by which concepts and terms in one system are associated with concepts and terms in another system is called ________. - CORRECT ANSWER mapping Which of the following acronyms represents the language used to extract data from a database? - CORRECT ANSWER SQL If a database contains two tables: physicians, patients. If a physician may be linked to many patients and patients may only be related to one physician, what is the cardinality of the relationship between the two tables? - CORRECT ANSWER One-to-many Which of the following is an example of unstructured data? - CORRECT ANSWER pathology report Dictated and transcribed reports and notes written by the physicians and other practitioners are examples of _________ - CORRECT ANSWER Unstructured data The term that describes the ability of one information system to exchange data with another information system is _______. - CORRECT ANSWER interoperability Which is the data model that is most widely used to illustrate a relational database structure? - CORRECT ANSWER Entity-relationship diagram The technology that converts human language into data that can be translated then manipulated by computer systems is - CORRECT ANSWER Natural language processing The management of all aspects of health data and information through the application of computers and computer technologies is called - CORRECT ANSWER healthcare informatics The emergency data standards that are meant to create a health history for an individual are _______. - CORRECT ANSWER DEEDS (Data elements for Emergency Department Systems) The technology commonly utilized for automated claims processing (sending bills directly to third-party payers) is: - CORRECT ANSWER electronic data interchange When an Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) is implemented as a relational database, an attribute will become a - CORRECT ANSWER field Which of the following individuals would most likely to be responsible for the technical aspects of the DBMS? - CORRECT ANSWER Database administrator Which of the following coding systems is not used to characterize procedures performed on a patient? - CORRECT ANSWER ICD-10-CM SNOMED CT is a _________-based terminology. - CORRECT ANSWER concept What are LONIC codes used for? - CORRECT ANSWER identifying test results In today's healthcare entity, physicians use the _______ to access multiple sources of patient information within the entity's network. - CORRECT ANSWER clinician portal Which of the following code set(s) is utilized in the RBRVS prospective payment system? - CORRECT ANSWER HCPCS/CPT Which of these is a weakness of Microsoft Access? - CORRECT ANSWER Limited user support and control Which data system serves as the source system for LOINC coded services? - CORRECT ANSWER LIS (Laboratory Info System) SQL may be used to - CORRECT ANSWER all of these What database design practice prevents the duplication of data elements? - CORRECT ANSWER normalization Which of the following keywords precedes the listing of variables to be returned from an SQL query? - CORRECT ANSWER SELECT Among the software programs listed below, the one best suited to detailed statistical analysis of data is which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER SPSS Statistical Package for the Social Sciences Nonparametric tests such as a Kruskal-Wallis are advantageous compared to their parametric counterparts for which of the following reasons? - CORRECT ANSWER they require fewer assumptions about the underlying data Which of the following is an expression of the extent of a linear relationship between two variables? - CORRECT ANSWER correlation Your chief medical officer has requested that you track patient satisfaction over time and in a way that attempts to separate routine variation from true underlying changes over time. The best tool to select from the options below is a(n) - CORRECT ANSWER statistical process control chart When a data analyst develops a sample selection involving the choice of every fourth patient from each clinic schedule for each physician during the course of a three month period, this sampling technique being used by the analyst is called which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Systematic random sampling chart - CORRECT ANSWER chart - CORRECT ANSWER The type of statistical techniques used to make conclusions based on a sample are: - CORRECT ANSWER inferential The mean is an appropriate statistic to use to measure which type of data? - CORRECT ANSWER ratio chart - CORRECT ANSWER If a health plan analyst wanted to determine if the readmissions rates for two hospitals were statistically different, which hypothesis test should be used? - CORRECT ANSWER two-sample Z-test for proportions A researcher would like to test the null hypothesis that the lengths of stay at two hospitals are equal. What statistical test should the researcher use in this situation? - CORRECT ANSWER t-test for means We want to compare the average weight of patients before and after a specialty diet is administered. We expect the weight to decrease after administration of the diet. Which of the following tests should be conducted to determine if the average weight for each patient is less at the conclusion of the diet? - CORRECT ANSWER paired t-test The variable that may cause the change in a second variable is called the - CORRECT ANSWER independent variable If the correlation between years of experience and salary is positive, what can you conclude about the slope of a regression line that might be fit to describe the relationship? - CORRECT ANSWER the slope will be positive Which of the following is an assumption made regarding the residuals in least squares regression? - CORRECT ANSWER the mean is zero they are independent they are approximately normally distributed A sampling technique that divides the population into subsets and then selects a random sample within each subset is called - CORRECT ANSWER stratified random sampling In order to increase the precision of a confidence interval and leave the confidence level the same, the same size must be - CORRECT ANSWER larger If an analyst is studying the wait times at a clinic and the only list of patients available is hard copy, which sampling technique is the easiest to use? - CORRECT ANSWER systematic sampling What is the biggest problem with using mean length of stay as a facility statistic? - CORRECT ANSWER it is influenced by outlier values Average length of stay is an example of a - CORRECT ANSWER descriptive statistic chart - CORRECT ANSWER SPSS is a - CORRECT ANSWER statistical analysis software package Where D= dead and A= alive, what is the proportion of patients that died in the sample of of 10? D,D,A,A,A,A,A,A,D,A - CORRECT ANSWER 30% Which of the following attributes is required for a sample to be statistically valid? - CORRECT ANSWER it must be reproducible If an analyst divides the population into groups and randomly selects groups to make up the sample, then the sampling technique used is? - CORRECT ANSWER cluster sampling The post-operative infection rate for a sample of cases for one unit in a hospital was 3 percent in a sample of 150 cases. What ranges represents a 95-percent confidence interval for a the population post-operative infection rate? - CORRECT ANSWER (0.3 percent, 5.7 percent) chart - CORRECT ANSWER We have conducted a t-test to determine if the hospital mean for DRG XXX is significantly different from the population mean for DRG XXX. The calculated t is -3.39 and the critical t is -1.96. In this case we: - CORRECT ANSWER reject the null hypothesis An analyst wishes to test the hypothesis that the wait time in the emergency department is longer on weekends than weekdays. What is the alternative hypothesis? - CORRECT ANSWER the average wait time is longer on the weekends You are preparing a budget presentation to the board. They have asked for a presentation on the percentage of salary budget spent on temp salary, hourly employees, and salary employees. What graph would be most appropriate to convey this data? - CORRECT ANSWER pie chart In comparing mortality rates between hospitals, it is important to also consider the - CORRECT ANSWER severity of illness graph - CORRECT ANSWER An analyst has been asked to work on the development of a home health strategic plan. Which of the following data sets would be most helpful in developing this analysis? - CORRECT ANSWER UACDS Your facility is engaged in a research project concerning patients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The researchers notice older patients have a longer length of stay than younger patients. They have seen a - CORRECT ANSWER positive correlation between age and length of stay Under what circumstances is it acceptable to use a non-probability sample for an audit? - CORRECT ANSWER When not generalizing to the population graph - CORRECT ANSWER In analyzing the reason for charges in a hospital's Medicare case-mix index over time, the analyst extract data from the information warehouse at which level of detail? - CORRECT ANSWER Discharge level chart - CORRECT ANSWER The facility's Medicare case-mix index has dropped, although other statistical measures appear constant. The CFO suspects coding errors. What type of coding quality review should be performed? - CORRECT ANSWER focused audit This type of data display tool is used to illustrate frequency distributions of continuous variables, such as age and length of stay (LOS): - CORRECT ANSWER histogram The ICD coding system was originally designed to be a ________________ - CORRECT ANSWER disease tracking system Patient payments and charges are likely to be found in a: - CORRECT ANSWER patient accounting database Which graph is the best choice to use when exploring the relationship between length of stay and charge for a set of patients? - CORRECT ANSWER scatter diagram Which of the following situations might result in a compliance audit? - CORRECT ANSWER High CC/MCC capture rate 30-day morality rates are considered a - CORRECT ANSWER outcome of care measure A computer software program that assigns appropriate MS-DRGs according to the information provided for each episode of care is referred to as a - CORRECT ANSWER grouper The surgery department is evaluation its postoperative infection rate of 6 percent. The chief of surgery asks the quality improvement coordinator to find the post-operation infection rates of 10 similar hospitals in the same geographic region to see how the rates compare. The process is called ______ - CORRECT ANSWER benchmarking The capture of secondary diagnoses that increase the incidence of CCs and MCCs may be benchmarked against other facilities by using which dataset? - CORRECT ANSWER MEDPAR The science of examining raw data with the purpose of drawing conclusions about that information is referred to as - CORRECT ANSWER data analytics graph - CORRECT ANSWER Analyzing patterns of care can help identify - CORRECT ANSWER all of these Which kind of data might be displayed on a pie chart? - CORRECT ANSWER percentage of discharges by third-party payer In which of the following examples does the gender of the patient constitute information rather than a data element? - CORRECT ANSWER in a study comparing the incidence of myocardial infarctions in black males as compared to white females The application of information science to the management of healthcare data and information through computer technology is referred to as - CORRECT ANSWER healthcare informatics Data taken from the health record and entered into registries and databases are considered a(n): - CORRECT ANSWER secondary data source graph - CORRECT ANSWER Name of element, definition, application in which the data element is found, locator key, ownership, entity relationships, date first entered system, date element terminated from system and system of origin are all examples of - CORRECT ANSWER metadata Rates for population-based statistics are reported per 1,000, 10,000, or 100,000 individuals. Rates for healthcare facility statistics are reported per _______ cases. - CORRECT ANSWER 100 Which national database was created to collect information on the legal actions (both civil and criminal) taken against licensed healthcare providers? - CORRECT ANSWER Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank You want to graph the number of deaths due to prostate cancer from 2005 through 2012. Which graphic tool would you use? - CORRECT ANSWER line graph Which data collection program is the basis for the CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) value-based purchasing program? - CORRECT ANSWER Hospital Compare Fifty percent of patients treated at our facilities have Medicare as their primary payer. This is an example of what type of information? - CORRECT ANSWER aggregate The percent of antibiotics administered immediately prior to open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) surgeries or the percent of deliveries accomplished by cesarean section are examples of what type of performance measure? - CORRECT ANSWER process measure graph - CORRECT ANSWER An important part of the maintenance of the master patient index is to resolve situations where a patient is assigned to another patient's medical record number. This is an example of which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER overlay What database would be most critical to validate and test for users preparing to enter a RHIO or HIE? - CORRECT ANSWER MPI (Master Patient Index) Your facility is preparing to implement a system wide clinical documentation system. Two years of data from existing systems will be backloaded into the new system for continuity of care. Current systems define the field for BMI as either Body-Mass index of BMI. What step should be taken to ensure the data fills to the EMI in the new system? - CORRECT ANSWER data mapping from current to new system High-quality information is contingent on - CORRECT ANSWER reliable data Assuring that data have been accessed or modified only by those authorized to do so is a function of - CORRECT ANSWER data integrity ASTM Standard E2522-07 provides guidance to healthcare organizations in developing - CORRECT ANSWER Health Level 7 (HL7) - CORRECT ANSWER Better enables interoperability when standard terminologies are used Health information loses PHI status and is no longer protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule when it - CORRECT ANSWER is deidentified To ensure quality of data, the Cancer Committee reviews the abstracting done by the cancer registry personnel. This is a method of ___________ reliability. - CORRECT ANSWER interrater Which dimension of data quality is defined as "data that is free of errors"? - CORRECT ANSWER accuracy An audit trail is a good tool for which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER reconstruction electronic events Laboratory data is successfully transmitted back and forth from Community Hospital to three local physician clinics. This successful transmission is dependent on which of the following standards? - CORRECT ANSWER LONIC Of the following resources, the best resource to use in defining the structure of the EHR is the - CORRECT ANSWER HL7 Functional Model Which of the following is an example of what an audit trail checks for? - CORRECT ANSWER Unauthorized access to a system The HIPAA methods titled Expert Determination and Safe Harbor are ways that which of the following can be achieved legally? - CORRECT ANSWER deidentification An EHR system can provide better security than a paper record for protected health information system due to: - CORRECT ANSWER Access controls, audit trails, and authentication systems In which of the following phases of systems selection and implementation would the process of running a mock query to assess the functionality of a database be performed? - CORRECT ANSWER testing The individual most likely to lead strategic planning for a healthcare organization's information system is the - CORRECT ANSWER CIO (Chief Information Officer) The purpose of the data dictionary is to _________________ definitions and ensure consistency of use. - CORRECT ANSWER standardize Which of the following is a mechanism that retrospectively records and examines data revisions in information systems? - CORRECT ANSWER audit controls Medical information loses PHI (Protected Health Info)status and is no longer protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule when it - CORRECT ANSWER is deidentified Organized Healthcare Arrangement (OHCA) - CORRECT ANSWER Is described by the Privacy Rule as an arrangement between two or more legally separated CEs to participate in join activities to share PHI about shared patients with the purpose of managing and benefiting the joint operations. To qualify for an OHCA, the entities must be legally separate CEs that are either clinically or operationally integrated and share PHI for the purposes joint management and operations based on the arrangement. It would be appropriate for an independent physician would enter into an OHCA to share PHI to support clinical operations without having to receive an authorization to share information. Type of PHI Share for Fundraising - CORRECT ANSWER Information that can be share for fundraising: 1) demographic information (name, address, other contact information, age, gender, and DOB, 2) dates of healthcare provided to the individual, 3) department of services, 4) treating physician, 5) outcome information, and 6) health insurance status. 45 CFR 164.514(f)(1) Research Waiver - CORRECT ANSWER In order for research to be conducted, it must meet a minimum set of waiver criteria elements. Elements that must be met to meet wavier criteria are: 1) the use or disclosure for the research involved minimum risk to the patient; 2) the research could not be conducted without proper access to the waiver being approved; and 3) the research could not be conducted without proper access to the use of the PHI. 45 CFR 164.512 (i)(2) Limited Data Set - CORRECT ANSWER A limited data set is PHI that removes 16 specific identifiers. Limited data sets are used for the purpose of research, public health, or healthcare operations. In addition to the 16 specific identifiers, to use a limited data set, a CE also needs to get a data usage agreement signed by the receiving induvial(s) that establishes an agreement between the CE and the recipient defining the permitted uses and disclosures and by whom. 45 CFR 164.514(e) Risk Avoidance - CORRECT ANSWER the process of terminating a process or activity due to the increased risk to the organization and inappropriate controls in place to reduce the risk. Two-factor Authentication - CORRECT ANSWER Uses two different methods of authentication to get access to a system. Methods of authentication are something you know, something you have, and something you are. Quantitative Risk Analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Attempts to assign a monetary value to each of the identified risks that an organization has determined through the risk analysis process. Security Incident - CORRECT ANSWER Is defined as "the attempted or successful unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of information or interference with system operations in an information system. Malicious software - CORRECT ANSWER Also known as malware, is software that is used to control or take over applications, workstations, or servers. Cryptography - CORRECT ANSWER The process of masking information to provide integrity, confidentiality, and authenticity of information as it is transmitted (data in motion) or stored (data at rest). - CORRECT ANSWER Designated Record Set Definition and Role - CORRECT ANSWER A group of records maintained by or for a covered entity that is: (i) The medical records and billing records about individuals maintained by or for a covered health care provider; (ii) The enrollment, payment, claims adjudication, and case or medical management record systems maintained by or for a health plan; or (iii) Used, in whole or in part, by or for the covered entity to make decisions about individuals. (2) For purposes of this paragraph, the term record means any item, collection, or grouping of information that includes protected health information and is maintained, collected, used, or disseminated by or for a covered entity. User-based access control (UBAC) - CORRECT ANSWER Assigns permissions within an EHR containing PHI based on the specific needs of an individual. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) - CORRECT ANSWER Assigns permissions within an EHR containing PHI based on the type of role the individual has within the organization. [Show Less]
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CHPA 3 Exam 18 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPA 3 Exam 18 Questions with Verified Answers Safety Risks... - CORRECT ANSWER Safety risks arise from the structure of the physical environment, from ... [Show More] performance of everyday tasks, or from situations beyond the hospital's control. The TJC standard that mandates hospitals manage security and safety risks - CORRECT ANSWER EC.02.01.01 Safety incidents are... - CORRECT ANSWER most often accidental.... Security incidents are often... - CORRECT ANSWER ..intentional.. Security incidents are caused by... - CORRECT ANSWER individuals from eith inside or outside the organization. How does the hospital identify security and safety risks associated with the Environment of Care? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Ongoing monitoring 2) Results of Root Cause Analyses 3) Annual Proactive Risk Assessments 4) Credible external sources such as Sentinel Event Alerts The hospital takes action to... - CORRECT ANSWER minimize or eliminate identified safety and security risks in the physical environment. What must the hospital maintain? - CORRECT ANSWER ...it maintains all grounds and equipment. The hospital must identify... - CORRECT ANSWER ...individuals entering its facilities. Security Sensitive Areas... - CORRECT ANSWER ...must be identified and access to them must be controlled. The hospital has written procedures for... - CORRECT ANSWER security incidents, including infant abductions. Should the hospital respond to product notices and recalls? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes! Who determines which individuals who requires identification? - CORRECT ANSWER The hospital determines who ahd HOW individuals will be identified. Every ____________ months... - CORRECT ANSWER Every 12 months the hospital evaluates each environment of care management plan. Evaluating the EOC management plan, includes... - CORRECT ANSWER a review of the plan's objectives, scope, performance, and effectiveness. The EC's chapter goal is to: - CORRECT ANSWER promote a safe, functional, and supportive environment within the hospital so that quality and safety are preserved. What three elements make up the Environment of Care? - CORRECT ANSWER - Buidings and spaces -Equipment used to support patient care -People, patients and anyone else using the facility TJC Environment of Care standards include... - CORRECT ANSWER -Safety and security -Hazardous materials and waste -Fire safety -Medical equipment -Utilities [Show Less]
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CHPA- Last Ditch 15 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPA- Last Ditch 15 Questions with Verified Answers The security management plan should contain a brief description of the activities performed by each ... [Show More] position - CORRECT ANSWER True This is key to an effective security program - CORRECT ANSWER Organization-wide security coordination is key to an effective program and involves numerous aspects of the organization including different departments Coordination with public safety agencies - CORRECT ANSWER It is vital to document the nature of these partnerships in the strategic plan Building configuration and design ... - CORRECT ANSWER ...most cost effective when accomplished during renovation or new construction When handling incidents, the goal is... - CORRECT ANSWER ..to minimize disruptions and harm to persons while avoiding negative publicity The _____ is responsible for contractors to comply with health and safety. - CORRECT ANSWER facility What did OSHA develop the fire matrix in response to? - CORRECT ANSWER terrorism Retention of Parking Violations - CORRECT ANSWER One Year Why is vendor fraud perpetrated by employees? - CORRECT ANSWER Due to high number of miscellaneous items ordered. Potential for kickbacks. Also, high-risk for shell companies. Requires 24-hour access control - CORRECT ANSWER Roof Areas There are three kinds of internal audits: - CORRECT ANSWER Unannounced inspections of procedures Spot checking goods entering and leaving the facility Undercover surveillance of services Three organizational philospohies for large healthcare systems - CORRECT ANSWER * Centralized * Quasicentralized * Decentralized Centralized Approach - CORRECT ANSWER - One budget -Each faciity gets security services as a one campus approach - Even though sites might be miles apart - Rarely used in multi-state locations Quasicentralization - CORRECT ANSWER - Most popular model - usually in a metropolitan area - Central office provides training, investigations, central comm, etc. - Perhaps consolidated fiels supervisor - Officers hired by the facility security manager Decentralized - CORRECT ANSWER - Each facility maintains complete control - No line of authority outside the facility [Show Less]
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CHPA 6 Exam Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CHPA 6 Exam Questions with Verified Answers public opinion - CORRECT ANSWER the distribution of the population's beliefs about politics and policy issue... [Show More] s political ideology - CORRECT ANSWER a consistent pattern of beliefs about political values and the role of government ő minority majority - CORRECT ANSWER When the combined minorities outnumber the majority. Authoritarian - CORRECT ANSWER A government in which one leader or group of people holds absolute power. demography - CORRECT ANSWER The scientific study of population characteristics. political culture - CORRECT ANSWER an overall set of values widely shared within a society liberal - CORRECT ANSWER open to new behavior or opinions and willing to discard traditional values. Libertarian - CORRECT ANSWER One who believes in limited government interference in personal and economic liberties gender gap - CORRECT ANSWER a distinctive pattern of voting behavior reflecting the differences in views between women and men Census - CORRECT ANSWER the official count of a population political socialization - CORRECT ANSWER the process by which people gain their political attitudes and opinions conservative - CORRECT ANSWER A person who believes government power, particularly in the economy, should be limited in order to maximize individual freedom. party identification - CORRECT ANSWER a citizen's self-proclaimed preference for one party or the other [Show Less]
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Chpna Terms and The Chupacabra Notes Cards Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Chpna Terms and The Chupacabra Notes Cards Questions with Verified Answers Acupressure - CORRECT ANSWER treatment method that involves therapeutic mas... [Show More] sage of points along the body's energy pathways same as acupuncture, through with hand pressure acupuncture - CORRECT ANSWER the practice of inserting fine needles through the skin at specific points to cure disease or relieve pain began in China more than 2000 yrs ago acute - CORRECT ANSWER coming on suddenly without warning example of acute - CORRECT ANSWER pain that may come from an injury, surgery, or disease an leg cramp is an example adapt - CORRECT ANSWER to adjust or change to suit conditions to get use to something aggressive - CORRECT ANSWER someone who may be hostile or wanting to do harm agitation - CORRECT ANSWER a state of anxiety or nervous excitement accompanied by restlessness may include resistive or combative behavior amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) - CORRECT ANSWER a progressive neurological disease of the nerves and muscles hallmarked by progressive weakening of muscles including those used for breathing has NO cure alternative therapies - CORRECT ANSWER therapies used in place of or instead of common medical practices alternative therapies also called - CORRECT ANSWER alternative medicine or non-pharmacological treatments Anemia - CORRECT ANSWER A condition in which the blood has too few red blood cells to carry oxygen to the muscles and organs of the body resulting in weakness and fatigue anesthetic - CORRECT ANSWER a medication that numbs an area to keep the pt from feeling pain anorexia - CORRECT ANSWER lack of appetite or desire to eat antibiotic - CORRECT ANSWER a medicine that kills or prevents the spread of miccroorganisms (bacteria) that causes illness anticipated grief - CORRECT ANSWER grief that occurs when pt or family thinks ahead to the emotional pain and life changes that will occur then pt dies. has many of the same symptoms as grief experienced after death has occurred Antidepressants - CORRECT ANSWER a class of psychotropic medications used for the treatment of depression and can also treat some types of nerve pain antiemetics - CORRECT ANSWER control nausea and vomiting by blocking nerve impulses to the vomiting center of the brain apathy - CORRECT ANSWER not caring not showing enthusiasm, lack of interest or concern aphasia - CORRECT ANSWER not being able to speak or understand written or spoken communication apnea - CORRECT ANSWER absence of breathing pts near death can have periods lasting 5 to 60 secs A)First Source. - CORRECT ANSWER Novella, Robert. "Wood You Believe It." Chemistry & Industry 8.8 (2000): 1-8. 1 Aug. 2000. Web. 2 Feb. 2017. A1)Quote: Pg.7 - CORRECT ANSWER "Chupacabra sightings have been reported in Florida and Mexico. Dr. Neftali Olmo-Terron, a psychiatrist in San Juan, Puerto Rico, argues that this shows the whole thing is a myth spreading to different areas"(Novella 7) A2) - CORRECT ANSWER The Chupacabra is known to be found in Florida, Puerto Rico and other tropical places, which makes it hard to believe that the Chupacabra is true. A3) - CORRECT ANSWER Normally an animal stays in its own habitat and does not go else where. B) - CORRECT ANSWER David J., Kozlowski. "Commentary: The Bloop and other terrible monsters." Daily Record, The (Rochester, NY) n.d.: Newspaper Source Plus. Web. 3 Feb. 2017. B1: - CORRECT ANSWER "The Chupacabra myth began in 1995 in Puerto Rico. Chupacabras — literally, goat-suckers — are said to hunt at night and eat or drink the blood of domestic animals. A brief Google search will result in a variety of different descriptions of their appearance. In the Texas video, the creature running down the road appears to be — wait for it — a dog or coyote (not a Chupacabra). I know, I was shocked too. It appears to be similar to another recent alleged Chupacabra from Texas, which turned out to be a hybrid between a coyote and a Mexican wolf"(Kozlowski 1). B2) - CORRECT ANSWER People are making reports of the Chupacabra in Texas. Come to find out, it is just a mixed animal. Many people pretend they saw something just for the publicity. B3) - CORRECT ANSWER No one has really seen the Chupacabra since people are finding false chupacabras. C) - CORRECT ANSWER Lopez, Lalo. "Media-Fueled Chupacabra-Mania Raises `Fact Or Fiction' Hysteria." Hispanic 9.8 (1996): 12. MAS Ultra - School Edition. Web. 3 Feb. 2017. C1)Quote - CORRECT ANSWER "Perhaps a flying saucer is the reason Chupacabras apparently has an amazing capacity to travel large distances, as it has been sighted almost simultaneously in divergent geographical locations. Chupacabras has been spotted stalking or sucking livestock in Puerto Rico, Mexico, the Dominican Republic, Massachusetts, Miami, Southern California--basically wherever Latinos can spread the Chupa Chisme"(Lopez 1). C2)Quote - CORRECT ANSWER "Also, a widespread adherence to superstition, a character trait not unknown in Latin America, has given rise to the current level of Chupa-hysteria. "Witnesses" who are interviewed seem to drop all traces of skepticism when breathlessly describing the elusive bat-like creature"(Lopez 1). C3) - CORRECT ANSWER People believe the Chupacabra is not only a myth but a hysteria that has spread, making people believe that the Chupacabra is real. [Show Less]
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