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The Airport Executive must balance these 2 conflicting philosophies - Answer- 1. Airport is a Public Entity 2. Airport is a business enterprise and a plac... [Show More] e for commerce Sponsor vs. Manager - Answer- Sponsor-Policy establish policy set goals execute contracts Manager-Doer/worker Implement policy Run day to day airport enforces rules Airport Management Primary Duty is _______________ - Answer- Safe, Secure, Efficient Ops Part 77 - Answer- Obstructions Part 107 - Answer- UAVs NAV 107 Part 150 - Answer- Noise Part 1542 - Answer- Airport Security Part 1544 - Answer- Aircraft Operator Security Part 36 - Answer- Engine Noise Standards FAA Orders - Answer- -Issued by FAA -Give instructions to FAA personnel on compliance, safety, ops.. FAA AC's - Answer- -Explain intent of regulation -Show acceptable method of compliance -May be required if "incorporated by reference" when attached to Federal $ ARP: FAA Office of Airports has what? Does what? - Answer- -Airport District Office (ADO) -AIP, Part 139, and alternative Dispute resolution AVS: FAA Aviation Safety - Answer- -Pilot & aircraft certification -FSDO (Flight Standards District Office) Part 91 - Answer- Private flight ops Part 121 - Answer- Air Carrier Ops Part 135 - Answer- Charter Ops FAA regulates - Answer- Aviation Safety in US Bonds that require voter approval & are closely associated with States, Cities, Counties? - Answer- General Obligation Bonds Specific technical standards or info on Access Control is where? - Answer- Radio Technical Commission on Aeronautics Which is Aeronautical use? - Answer- Aircraft Fueling What type of plan recommends the general location and characteristics of new airports and the nature of development/expansion for existing ones in a region? - Answer- Metropolitan Airport System Plan Airport Exec, Jenny Kadel, needs the airport's plan for leasing revenue producing areas on the airport, and for providing guidance in determining allowable compatible uses such as farming, rec, industrial. What ALP sheet? - Answer- The airport land use drawing This is the airspace above the runway elevation at any point, but below the 150 foot floor of the horizontal surface area under Part 77. - Answer- Obstacle Free Zone If the airport is considering awarding more than this amount, the FAA requires the airport to implement a DBE Program? - Answer- $250,000 Type of insurance requires the airport to invest and budget for large amounts of liquid capital? - Answer- Self-insurance A technology that will allow better collaboration with FAA related to airport design. - Answer- EALPs (Electronic ALP) FAA does not require disadvantaged business enterprise participation to purchase these 2 items? - Answer- Snow plows and ARFF Trucks Most powerful weapon in the cyber attackers arsenal is? - Answer- Email Types of bonds that are secured by the revenue of the indebted facility. - Answer- Special facility bonds PGLs (Program Guidance Letters) - Answer- Provides guidance and instruction to FAA personnel on Airport compliance & safety issues. This technology is intended to eventually replace radar. - Answer- ADS-B Item in the CATEX checklist relates to projects that will cause a disproportionate impact on minorities or low income communities. - Answer- Environmental Justice For a visual approach the horizontal surface extends _______ feet. - Answer- 5,000 Which individual is the initial point of contact for a security incident at gate or on aircraft? - Answer- Ground Security Coordinator Top Security officer certification is the ___________ - Answer- CPP Certified Protection Professional Which AAAE department provides representation for America's airport system on Capitol Hill? - Answer- Airport Legislative Alliance Who is responsible for the strategic direction of the airport? - Answer- Elected officials who hired the airport director Standard airport noise prediction model used by airports - Answer- Aviation Environmental Design Tool AAAE document provides up to date info on FAA rulemaking actions and interpretations? - Answer- Regulatory Alerts Airport should attempt to get Fair Market Value for sale of ______ property? - Answer- Non-Aeronautical Incidental to aircraft ops & classified as non-aeronautical revenue? - Answer- Concessions Off airport land use is addressed in this Grant Assurance - Answer- Compatible Land use Passenger Facility Charges are classified as this type of revenue. - Answer- Non-Operating Revenue Runway marking located 1,000 ft down the runway from the threshold is? - Answer- Aiming Point Inspection Type? Airport ops asses the surrounding area to identify tree growth into imaginary surfaces? - Answer- Periodic Inspeciton A written document from senior management to all employees, stakeholders,.... expressing managements commitment to safety and assurance that it is being monitored. - Answer- Safety Policy Which entity uses the Airport Acceptance Rate (AAR) to calculate the desired interval between arrival aircraft? - Answer- Air Traffic Control Centers (FAA) ILS outer marker will be located? - Answer- 4-7 nautical miles from runway threshold Which type of short range radar (60 nm) is used to identify and separate traffic in and around airports. - Answer- ASR (Airport Surveillance Radar) Unicom - Answer- Common radio frequency at uncontrolled airports often staffed by FBO employee providing basic info Aircraft cannot fly over or in, which type of airspace? - Answer- Prohibited Airspace Document assists off airport responders when responding to an airport emergency/ - Answer- Airport Grid Map Who is expected to conduct an Environmental Assessment for an airport project? - Answer- Airport Operator or FAA if FAA desires Projects that FAA requires a simple written record except for ___ - Answer- Land Acquisition Wayfinding oriented to be read from viewers perspective and knowledge is _____________________ - Answer- Comprehensible According to FAA guidance on planning airport terminal space ____% of the terminal is available for rent? - Answer- 55 This person has the "Power of the parking brake" - Answer- Pilot on Command To be cleared for a visual approach, the cloud height must be at least this high? - Answer- 1,000 ft Which is an element of passenger processing system? - Answer- Screening Checkpoint Imaginary surface that extends outward and upward at a ratio of 7:1 - Answer- Transitional Surface Where do most conflicts occur related to permitted activity on an airport? - Answer- Non-Aeronautical use of airport Airport users & tenants are required to adhere to what? - Answer- Rules & Regs Bird strikes occured as high as _____ feet. - Answer- 25,000 In an Airport Reference code of B-111, the first item, "B" indicates the aircraft ____________. - Answer- Approach speed Which of the following is meant to be available for an aircraft to stop on if the plane experiences an emergency and the pilot has to abort takeoff. - Answer- The stopway What type of meeting does the FAA prefer to community briefings during the master plan process? - Answer- "open house" format Represents GA Pilots of small aircraft - Answer- AOPA (Aircraft Owners & Pilots Association) Which entity makes safety related regs after an accident? - Answer- FAA only not NTSB Prior to filing a Part 16 compliant against an airport, you must - Answer- Attempt to resolve the issue with the Airport Operator Duties more likely to be performed by Airport Manager/exec? - Answer- Implement Policy IFR altitude - Answer- 18,000' and above - must file flight plan Which hub enplanes 70% or more of the US Passenger traffic? - Answer- Large Hub Passenger forecasts by this entity are considered to be more accurate in terms of future passenger enplanements - Answer- Airlines Pilots operating under VFR use this technique to prevent mid air collisions - Answer- See & Avoid Highest Priority of an airport executive - Answer- Safety Terminal Configuration features concourses constructed from and physically connected to the main terminal - Answer- Pier Most common type of Airport Ownership in the US - Answer- Municipality Alkali-silica reaction is a type of pavement deterioration caused by? - Answer- hydroxylions in the alkaline cement pore solution in the concrete and reactive forms of silca in the aggregate. Section of AEP where "command & control" and "alert & notification" is addressed? - Answer- Functional Annexes To what level should airport operators remove snow on a runway? - Answer- No worse than wet Black square, you're there - Answer- yellow on black is a location sign which NOTAM is most likely to be issued by FAA's Flight Data Center? - Answer- Restricting Airspace due to POTUS Tells the pilot the direction of ATC pattern? - Answer- Segmented Circle Part of Approach lighting system used to help pilot level their wings - Answer- Crossbar lights If i was trained on June 8, 2016, when is retraining due? How long is the record retained? - Answer- Retrain- June 30, 2017 - 1 year/end of month & records retained June 30, 2018 - 2 years/ end of month Alaska airports that serve air carrier aircraft w/ _______ are exempt from federal airport certification. - Answer- less than 30 seats Airport has 2 runways -1 for Air Carrier (139) 1- for GA this would be listed as a ______________ in the ACM? - Answer- Limitation What is the minimum threshold beyond which delays increase exponentially? - Answer- 4-6 minutes of delay __________________ specifies the exact order in which aircraft are to takeoff or land. - Answer- Sequencing Which is considered uncontrolled airspace? - Answer- G What is a categorical exclusion - Answer- This is the term for an environmental project that has no expected environmental impact. What does it mean when an ALP has been approved "conditionally"? - Answer- FAA's office of Airports has not completed the environmental review. Airport with high % of local passengers and turnaround flights. - Answer- origin/destination Not used in planning a commercial service terminal facility - Answer- GA ops Conical surface start at the perimeter of horizontal surface at 20 : 1 for a horizontal distance of ___________ feet - Answer- 4,000 What must always be up to date to receive Federal Money? - Answer- ALP Benefit of grant assurances to airport user? - Answer- Adequate level of safe and efficient services According to the FAA master plan advisory circular, which of the following forecast factors relates to the public's ability to use air travel? - Answer- Demographics How many aircraft operations are necessary to be considered "substantial use", and thus change the design aircraft for the airport? - Answer- 500 annual itinerant flight operations In which area are aircraft allowed to taxi when the associated runway is in use? - Answer- Object free area On which ALP sheet can i find info on when and how specific parcels of airport property were acquired? - Answer- The exhibit A Which Grant Assurance addresses the development of homes around the Airport? - Answer- Compatible land use Act waives gov't immunity over claims arising out of contacts with federal gov't? - Answer- Tucker Act An informal compliant against the airport that is investigated by ADO - Answer- Part 13 Investigation & enforcement compliant FAA has found this to be the most effective in extending federal government policy to local level - Answer- Grant Assurances What is a directive to FAA personnel on specific subjects and programs? - Answer- FAA order Minimum time the gov't must keep a notice of proposed rule making out for public notice? - Answer- 30 days Airport Sponsor - Answer- FAA Term for the entity that governs the airport VFR Rules - Answer- 1,000' ceiling and 3 miles Vis 1,000' And 3, I can [Show Less]
What document, that provides information to the pilot, must be updated on an annual basis? - Answer- Airport Facility Directory What is the NPIAS? - Ans... [Show More] wer- Plan that identifies 3,300+ public airports, their role, and amounts and types of airport development eligibility (AIP) What are the FAA principles related to airports? - Answer- Safe and efficient Affordable Flexible & Expandable Permanent Maintain a balance Support national objectives Extensive Why are state and/or regional plans conducted? - Answer- To form a connected system of transportation What are the steps of an airport master plan? - Answer- Technical Report Summary Report ALP Web Page Public Info Kit What are the goals of public involvement and environmental reviews during the master plan update? - Answer- Balance the need for stakeholder involvement with the costs and time What does the existing conditions tell the airport operator? - Answer- Historical review of the airport and its facilities, airspace structures and NAVAIDS, land use, activity and socioeconomic factors What are the various methods of forecasting, the factors that affect the forecasts, and the forecast models - Answer- Factors: Economic characteristic Demographics Geographic attributes Aviation related factors Other factors Methods: Regression Analysis - ties demand to enplanements, population and income Trend Analysis and Extrapolation - Historical pattern Market Share Analysis - local forecasts represent shares of larger forecasts Smoothing - focuses on recent trends and conditions Whats the difference between Facility Requirements and the Forecasts? - Answer- Facility Requirements compare the current facilities to the forecasted demand of the facilities What is the function of the Facilities Implementation Plan? - Answer- List of potential projects to meet the Facility Requirements What is the function of the Financial Feasibility Analysis? - Answer- Projects the impact the projects will have on operating revenues and expenses, etc. What is a Safety Area and why does it exist? - Answer- Rectangular area including runway or taxiway to use in an event of an undershoot, overshoot or excursion What is the function of the Runway Protection Zone (RPZ)? - Answer- Designed to protect the final approach areas What is the function of the Obstacle Free Zone (OBZ)? - Answer- Extends 200 feet beyond each runway and 150 feet high to represent clear airspace What is the function of the Object Free Area (OFA)? - Answer- Nothing except fixed by function, frangible or mobile Ground area centered on runway Explain how Stopways and Clearways are used - Answer- Stopways - used to support and minimize damage to an airplane in the event of an overrun Clearways - end of a runway suitable for use in calculating aircraft takeoff performance Why are Declared Distanced sometimes used? - Answer- For takeoff performance What are taxiway design principles? - Answer- Main Gear Width Cockpit to Main Gear Distance 3 types of aprons - Answer- 1. Terminal - passenger and cargo 2. Remote - for Remain Overnight parking or storage, also known as hardstands 3. Hangar - surface in front of a hangar used for aircraft movement What is a Stand Guidance System? - Answer- Visual aids for aircraft parking locations What are heliport design principles? - Answer- Maximum Wight/Minimum Contact Area Rotor Diameter Describe the construction safety meeting process - Answer- 1. Pre-design - discuss parameters (pre-bids) 2. Design 3. Preconstruction - discuss phasing, security, labor, safety 4. Construction 5. Inspection 5 imaginary surfaces - Answer- PATCH 1. Primary surface - centered on runway 200 ft past runway end 2. Approach surface - 200 ft from the runway end outward from the primary surface up to 50,000 ft 3. Transitional Surface - Extends upward at a 7:1 ration 4. Conical Surface - perimeter of horizontal surface up to 4,000 ft at 20:1 5. Horizontal Surface - level plane at 150 ft. Difference between 7460-1 and 7460-2? - Answer- -1: Notice of proposed construction or alteration -2: Actual Construction or alteration (popped up) What are options the FAA could take related to an identified hazard to air navigation? What wont they do? - Answer- FAA will request the airport or obstruction owner to remove, light, mark the hazard or relocate threshold or raise minimums 3 components of the terminal system - Answer- 1. Flight interface 2. Passenger Processing 3. Access Interface Desires related to location and design? - Answer- Passengers - close parking and protection from weather Airlines - short taxi distances and minimal runway crossings FAA - Terminal building not interfere Airport - Efficient HVAC, Asthetic and close business community 3 types of airports - Answer- 1. O/D - high percentage of local and turnaround flights 2. Transfer - significant enplaned passengers transferring 3. Through - HIgh originating passengers/low originating flights How much terminal space is available for rent? - Answer- 55% How much space is usable by concessions? - Answer- 15-25% What are the landside planning assumptions? - Answer- Curb length - 20 taxis, 25 private, 30 limos, 50 public bus Parking - 1,000 to 1,400 parking spaces per 1,000,000 annual originating passengers What are the 5 types of horizontal distribution models related to terminal design? - Answer- Simple, Linear, Concourses, Pier, Satellite Explain common use and its advantages - Answer- Efficient use of space, reduced expenses, reduction of ticket counters Design principles of wayfinding? - Answer- Location, Conspicuous, Comprehensible, Legible, Concise 3 types of FIS facilities - Answer- 1. Custom Accelerated Passenger Processing Service - two step, slowest 2. One stop - combined steps 3. Red-Green - nothing to declare proceed through Whats the FAA's position on co-located ARFF/SRE facilities? - Answer- Can be centralized at smaller airports due to staffing What's ADA? - Answer- Disabilities What piece of legislation started environmental awareness in the US? - Answer- NEPA (1969) What is the FAA responsible for related to environmental actions? - Answer- ALP approvals Federal funding requests AIP funded maintenance projects PFC approvals What is the airport operator responsible for related to environmental actions? - Answer- 1. Reviews potentially affected environmental resources 2. Special purpose laws 3. Consults with the FAA 3 types of ALP environmental approval? - Answer- Unconditional - approved Conditional - design good, enviro. not Mixed - short term good, long term not Categorical exclusion - Answer- some projects by their very nature are unlikely to have an environmental impact Environmental Assessment - Answer- little to no impact expected, "hard look" Environmental Impact Statement - Answer- impacts are expected and mitigation measures may be necessary FONSI - Answer- Finding of No Significant Impact - mitigation would not reduce environmental impacts below applicable thresholds Who does the EA? EIS? - Answer- EA - AO EIS - FAA What is the airport priority related to environmental compliance? - Answer- protecting the environment and protecting the airport and managing its liability What is a good-faith-effort? - Answer- Systematic program for ensuring regulatory compliance What is the best means for ensuring tenant and contractor compliance with environmental law? - Answer- Establish specific criteria What is EMS? - Answer- Environmental Management Systems serves a strategic plan for addressing environmental matters What are the air quality issues related to airport operations? - Answer- 25 percent of airports in nonattainment areas must conform to State Implementation P [Show Less]
How did the railroads start commercial aviation? - Answer- The rail industry helped kick start commercial aviation with the Kelly Act/Air Mail Act. They ac... [Show More] cused the govt. of creating a monopoly for carrying mail by air. Who is the ultimate customer of the airport? - Answer- The Pilot. What are a few facts about airports? - Answer- Airports are heavily regulated by the FAA. Airports are essential to functioning of the planet. They Airport System must operate symbiotically. No two airports are the same. An airport can be many things, but only an airport can be an airport. Describe the Air Commerce Act of 1926? - Answer- Air Commerce Act created the Aeronautics Branch (CAA) which is the Civil Aeronautics Administration. This fell under the Dept. of Commerce. Est. Air traffic control, pilots license, airways, - aviation is a commerce function. Foundation of aviation. What did the Works Progress Administration do? - Answer- Provided federal funding to develop or expand 852 airports. Responsible for providing govt. subsidies (first form of AIP funding). What was the CAB (Civil Aeronautics Board) in charge of? - Answer- CAB was charged with making rules, conducting accidents and the economic regulation of the airlines. They economically regulated aviation. What is DLAND (Development of Landing Areas of National Defense)? - Answer- After WWII, 500 airports were declared surplus and given to cities because they could afford them. Promise to make the airport available for PUBLIC use (early start of Grant Assurances). Which act created the FAA? - Answer- Federal Aviation Act of 1958 also known as the Jet Age. It's main reason was to make it safer b/c there was too many mid-air collisions. What did the Airport & Airway Dev. Act of 1970 do? - Answer- Filled gaps in the system, expanded the list of projects available for aid, created FAR Part 139 Cert. and created the Aviation Trust Fund. What is the Aviation Trust Fund? - Answer- A tax collected to fund aviation with the premise only those who use aviation should pay for it. How did deregulation affect the airline industry? - Answer- It ended regulation of the airlines, deregulation created the hub and spoke system allowing airlines to fly where they want without restrictions (Fed Ex model). Which act created the TSA? - Answer- The Aviation and Transportation Security Act (2001) after the attacks of 9/11. Describe what the Airport Improvement Act of 1982 does? - Answer- Created the NPIAS and AIP Funding (capital projects) and est. airport categories. What is NextGen? - Answer- Overhaul of our entire aviation system - affecting everyone. What started private companies to offer space commercialization's? - Answer- When Shuttle Atlantis lands, ending the US Space shuttle program. What are the challenges facing our industry in the future? - Answer- Security measures, NextGen, UAV operations - trying to keep up with them. What do air carriers desire? - Answer- Access to good market, lower operating costs and influence over key airport decisions. Air carriers are your most significant tenant. What is the difference between and FBO and a SASO? - Answer- An FBO can provide fuel, SASO's can not. Which airports can be in the NPIAS? - Answer- Airports who are publicly accessible. Receive more then 2500 annual enplanements or are a qualified GA airport, Relieve airports, Bases or airports with a postal contract. What are the three methods to measure airport activity? - Answer- Enplanements: a passenger boarding commercial Operation: Aircraft taking off or landing Cargo: measured in tonnage What is the difference between a local operation and an itinerant operation? - Answer- A local operation is within 20 miles of the airport, itinerant is outside of the airport area and uses Instrument Flight Rules or Visual Flight Rules. How many Airports are in the NPIAS? - Answer- 3,300 What type of airport must have at least 25,000 itinerant aircraft or 100 based aircraft? - Answer- GA Reliever Airport How many annual enplanements must an airport have for commercial service? - Answer- 2,500 How many enplanements are needed to be a Primary commercial service airport? - Answer- 10,000 Who makes up for 70% of all passenger traffic? - Answer- Large Hub Airports "Big 30" What's the qualifier for non-hub airports and non-primary? - Answer- More GA then Commercial, Commercial still has more then 10,000 enplanements. Non-Hub/Non-primary are predominately GA airports or commercial service with less then 2500 enplanements. What is a joint-use airport? - Answer- Joint Use is entirely owned by the DOD, they lease space to civilian. Shared use of the airfield. What is shared-use airport? - Answer- Govt. owned, co-located with a civil airport, share portions of the runway/taxiways. What is Part 91? - Answer- General Aviation (private) not commercial & not military Part 119 exceptions - Answer- Student Instruction, nonStop air Tours, ferry flights, aerial work, 25-SM nonStop parachute ops, 25 SM flight with max two passengers, external loads, emergency mail service, ops under 91.321, small UAS ops. 119- basic requirements What is the importance of Part 91, 121 and 135 - Answer- Part 91 - General Aviation/ Private Part 121 - Scheduled Commercial Aircraft Part 135 - Charter What is a public charter? - Answer- company contracts for the operation of an aircraft to and from a destination What items are pilots required to check before flying - Answer- Pilots must check the complete visual inspections of the aircraft, test emergency and safety systems, configure the GPS and instrumentation, check the weather, routing, and weight & balance Pilots check the Airport Facility Directory - now called Chart supplements. What does Grant Assurance #19 Operations & Maintenance require the airport to do? - Answer- Operated in a Safe and Serviceable condition Why does the FAA encourage airports to have minimum standards? - Answer- Minimum Standards - min requirements a business must meet, to provide aeronautical services at the airport. Help ensure adequate level of safe and efficient service available to the public. What is an example of "just" discrimination - Answer- Essentially requiring different standards for different kinds of tenants (i.e. flight school and fbo) Overall benefits of minimum standards? - Answer- Promote safety, protect airport from unlicensed products of services, orderly development of land, prevent disputes - level of safe and efficient service. What does the Exclusive Rights Grant Assurance #23 require and what are the exceptions? - Answer- Airport cannot grant an aeronautical tenant exclusive right to conduct a commercial service. Airport however CAN grant itself an exclusive right. Explain what you can and cannot do on an airport? - Answer- Aircraft Owners can provide preventative maintenance to their own plane and can self-fuel. What is Through-The Fence TTF Agreements? - Answer- An agreement between the airport and an aeronautical user adjacent to airport property, not prohibited but discouraged. No rules/regs and no minimum standards. What is revenue diversion? - Answer- Revenue Diversion is using airport revenue to pay for things other then operating or capital costs. What is the difference between aeronautical and non-aeronautical revenue? - Answer- Aeronautical revenue comes in the form of landing fees, fuel flowage fees - services provided by air carriers, non-aeronautical is revenue earned from concessions, parking - all incidental What are some examples of non-operating revenue? - Answer- Grant Money, PFCs What are the most common aeronautical revenue sources at an airport? - Answer- Fuel Flowage Fees, landing fees, hangar fees What is the benefit to the community of having an airport? - Answer- Economic benefits; new money, creation of jobs Identify the items that constitute revenue diversion - Answer- Grant Assurance #25 Airport Revenues - restricts the use of airport revenue generated by the airport to be expended to the capital or operating costs. Examples: economic development, marketing (not related to airport), PILOTS, lost tax revenues, loans or investments of airport money at less that the prevailing interest rate. What can airport revenue be used for? - Answer- Airport revenue can be used for Capital & Operating Costs Reimbursements to sponsors for costs Air travel for promo expenditures Promote airlines - marketing What does Grant Assurance #24 mean? - Answer- Fee & Rental Structure - Airport Sponsor to set fees & lease rates so airport can be self-sustaining as possibel. What are airports prohibited from factoring in to the rate base? - Answer- AIP costs (federal funding) that improved that ground What does self-sustainability mean? - Answer- Airport must be able to function without. All comes back to only people who use the airport should have to pay for it. Maintain the utility of the federal investment in the airport. Airport & Airways Improvement Act Difference between est. rates for aeronautical vs. non-aeronautical rates? - Answer- Aeronautical - break even, agreement that structure is similar for tenants who are alike. Non-Aeronautical - Fair Market Value How to residual agreements work? - Answer- Airlines cover the additional expenses of the airport What can be included in the rate base? - Answer- Total of all costs associated w/ providing airfield facilities and services. Cost of airfield facilities, Services like ARFF, deb-services, cash reserves, environmental costs. When are federal procurement policies & processes required to be used? - Answer- When using federal funds What are federal procurement policies designed to do? - Answer- Fair and Open bids, ensure integrity - applies to AIP money, TSA grants & OTAS (not PFCs) What are the various types of contracts and their central elements? - Answer- CMAR - provide advice during design (General Contractor) Design-Build - one entity works under a signed contract to provide design and construction Task-Ordered - Salt/Sand - specific items Professional Services - program management, construction management, architectural Single-source or noncompetitive - approved by ADO when only one source What are the dollar requirements & minimum public posting requirements for construction contracts using federal funding? - Answer- $100,000 threshold, 30 days Briefly explain the DBE requirements - Answer- DBE is disadvantaged businesses (small businesses), own 51% of business, implement a DBE if awarding more than $250k in prime contracts - creates a level playing field What are the 4 areas airport execs should assess when upgrading a computer system? - Answer- 1. Compatibility & Integrations 2. Security & Safety 3. Scalability 4. Usability Identify the primary IT system at an airport & their function - Answer- GIS - links geographic info w/ descriptive critical component of eALP's electronic Layout Plans Identify the types of cybersecurity attacks & explain how they work - Answer- Hacking - crime of breaking into individuals computer to access personal info. Email - most powerful weapon Denial of Service - disable a machine/system Malware - malicious software, gain access to cause damage Phishing - emails, messages, phone calls Spear - targeted What is Social Engineering? - Answer- Art of human manipulation - pretend to be someone trusted What are the 3 types of insurance under the CGL? - Answer- Hangar Keepers - damage to aircraft Premises Liability - persons or property Product Liability - fuel and oil Identify methods to reduce risk on the airport. - Answer- Part 139 compliance Training Risk analysis Daily inspection Screen employees Accurate information "Blanket" insurance policy Environmental policies What are the 4 basic types of leases? - Answer- Straight lease, graduated, percentage, re-evaluation lease What are the critical elements of a leasehold agreement? - Answer- Term, use, recitals, improvements, expiration What are factors to consider in concession & rate setting - Answer- MAG, higher rent/higher cost - street pricing What is the MAG? - Answer- Minimum Revenue Guarantee - % of gross revenue payments or combo of two 3 approaches to leasing concession space - Answer- 1. Traditional - the airport manages and directly leases the space (higher risk for airport, but higher profits) 2. Development company provides management services (advantage - experienced personnel, disadvantage - another layer of cost) 3. Institutional operator engaged as a master lessee (lower risk, but lower profits) Explain Airport Use Agreements? - Answer- Grants operating rights to the airline, reliable stream of revenue for the airport What is a signatory carrier and an MII clause? - Answer- Signatory carrier - major investment or commitment to airport, exercise control over airport (MII). MII - right to approve capital projects & development. 5 steps of airport property development? - Answer- Assess, conduct market analysis, pro forma, construction phase, operating plan What is the Policy Guidance Letter (PGL) - Answer- FAA issues PGL to add or revise guidance of an AIP What are the 3 types of AIP money & how are they disbursed? - Answer- Entitlement - formula Discretionary - left over Set-aside - noise, military, GA reliever, state What is the federal share of the project depending on the airport size? - Answer- Large Hub - 75 % (80% for Noise) Small - 90% [Show Less]
Air Commerce Act of 1926 - Answer- Created a new Aeronautics Branch known as the CAA (the precursor of the FAA) Function of the Civil Aeronautics Board ... [Show More] (CAB) - Answer- Make safety rules and economic regulation of the airlines Deregulation of the airlines created this airline design - Answer- Hub and spoke system What act created the FAA? - Answer- Federal Aviation Act (FAA) What act created the TSA? - Answer- Transportation Safety Act (TSA) Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 - Answer- Created gov't subsidies programs to expand the list of eligible projects for Federal Funding Growth of the FAAP to the AIP - Answer- Will be discussed later Future challenges facing the industry - Answer- 1. UAVs 2. Commercial Space 3. Cybersecurity Big dog of a Commercial Service Airport? - Answer- Airlines Big dog of a GA Airport? - Answer- FBO What is an FBO? - Answer- Fixed Base Operator that provides fuel What is a SASO? - Answer- Aeronautical Service that doesn't provide fuel How many airports in the US? - Answer- 19,000 ish How many airports are Commercial Service Airports? - Answer- Just over 5,000 How many GA airports are there? - Answer- Roughly 2,500 What are the significance of these numbers: 2500, 10000 and 3345? - Answer- 2,500 - Commercial Service Airport 10,000 - Primary Commercial Service Airport 3,345 - Number of public use airports in NPIAS Purpose of a GA Reliever Airport? - Answer- To relieve the GA traffic from a Commercial Service Airport Joint-Use Airport vs. Shared-Use Airport - Answer- Joint-Use - military owns the joint and leases space for commercial travel Shared-Use - owned by govt and military and civil Airport share runways and taxiways What is the importance of Part 91, Part 121 and Part 135? - Answer- Part 91 - General Aviation Safety Standards Part 121 - Scheduled Airlines Safety Standards (highest) Part 135 - Charter Airlines Safety Standards What is a public charter? - Answer- Similar to renting a limo but with a plane What do pilots check before flying? - Answer- Airport Facility Directory Weather Notices to Airman Weight and Balance Performance Check Above what altitude must an aircraft file an IFR flight plan? - Answer- 18,000 ft Rule for keeping aircraft separated in VFR conditions? - Answer- See and Avoid What chart does a pilot use for VFR? - Answer- Sectional Chart What charts does a pilot use for IFR? - Answer- IFR Low altitude/IFR High Altitude 3 types of aircraft approaches? - Answer- 1. Visual - no aids 2. Non-precision - lateral navigation aid 3. Precision - lateral and vertical aid Difference between Airport Sponsor and Airport Director? - Answer- Airport Sponsor establishes policy while an Airport Director implements those policies Who does the FAA consider responsible for the airport? - Answer- Airport Director Why is Airport Management challenging? - Answer- Inexperienced managers or political appointees with no aviation background Two prominent forms of airport ownership? - Answer- Municipality and Airport Authority Key regulations: Part 77 Part 107 Part 150 Part 1542 Part 1544 Part 36 - Answer- Part 77 - Obstructions Part 107 - UAVs Part 150 - Airport Noise Part 1542 - Airport Security Part 1544 - Airline Security Part 36 - Plane noise What are the primary FAA offices that an airport manager would likely engage with? - Answer- Airport District Office (ADO) What do the ACRP and PARAS projects show? - Answer- Peer reviewed research to provide best practice suggestions Two primary docs issued by the TSA? - Answer- Security Directive - provide direction to change security requirements Information Circulars - provide best practices Grant assurances are: - Answer- Promises made to the govt in exchange for land or money What three competing interests to Grant Assurances balance? - Answer- 1. Allow the Executive to better manage local affairs 2. Federal funds are used for public air transportation 3. Promote social objectives (DBE/ADA) How long are assurances in effect? - Answer- 20 years to life If you don't adhere to Grant Assurances: - Answer- You risk losing federal funding and can be placed on the Airport Noncompliance List Who is most likely to file a Part 13 or Part 16? - Answer- Tenant Difference between a Part 13 and a Part 16? - Answer- Part 13 is an informal complaint while a Part 16 is formal complaint that can lead to consequences for the airport What is Airport Law? - Answer- A phrase used to describe a collection of FAA regulations, adjudications, various statutes, Grant Assurances, ACs, and court decisions. What happens when an airport accepts federal grant money? - Answer- Becomes a closed fiscal system What is the role of FAA related to the airport operator? - Answer- The regulator, the gift-giver and the permission-giver What is the ICAO and what do they do? - Answer- Attempt to standardize global aviation but do not create rules or laws. Create regulations and standards What are the two types of On-Airport land? - Answer- Aeronautical and non-aeronautical. The FAA must give permission to reclassify aero land as non-aero. What are the two types of Off-Airport land? - Answer- Compatible and incompatible land What structures are generally considered to be incompatible with airport operations? - Answer- Residential, schools, churches, public hospitals or health facilities and concert halls What are some options for airport operators to attempt to prevent incompatible land use? - Answer- 1. Airport Master Plan integration with local zoning and community plans 2. Adopt ordinances restricting incompatible land and limit the height of structures Grant Assurance 19 Operations and Maintenance, requires the airport to ___________________________. - Answer- be operated at all times in a safe and serviceable condition Why does the FAA encourage airports to have minimum standards? - Answer- Ensure and adequate level of safe and efficient service Promote safety and a high quality of service Promote orderly development Prevent disputes What is an example of "just" discrimination? - Answer- Essentially requiring different standards for different kinds of tenants (i.e. flight school and fbo) [Show Less]
What are grant assurances? - Answer- They require the recipients to maintain and operate their facilities safely, efficiently, and in accordance with speci... [Show More] fic conditions. (pg 57) Why does FAA use grant assurances? - Answer- Grant assurances are the most effective means of extending government policy to local government unit. (pg 58) How long are grant assurances in effect? - Answer- Continuing obligations for up to 20 years depending on useful life of facility, and other condition. (pg 58) What if grant assurances are violated? - Answer- Loss of FAA funding, FAA might request that previous grant monies be repaid to the FAA. (pg 58) What is the difference between a Part 13 and Part 16 complaint? - Answer- Part 13 is informal. The FAA is not obligated to a deadline in response. Part 16 is formal and most serious of the two. It imposes deadlines and has stringent requirements for the airport, complainant and FAA. (pg 62) Who is most likely to file a Part 13 or Part 16 complaint and why? - Answer- The FAA or aeronautical user if it feels that the airport is in violation of its GAs. (pg 61) What is airport law? - Answer- A collection of FAA regulations, adjudications, statutes, grant assurances, advisory circulars, and court decisions at the local, state, and federal levels. (pg 66) What happens when the airport accepts federal money or land? - Answer- The airport must follow FAA regulations; the airport must be able to account for land acquired with fed funding and must designate its use for aeronautical or non-aeronautical. (pg 79) What is the role of the FAA related to the airport operator? - Answer- The FAA acts as both the gift giver of AIP funds and permission giver in monitoring and enforcing airport compliance with federal regulations. (pg 51) What is ICAO and what do they do? - Answer- International Civil Aviation Organization. Its purpose is to secure international cooperation and the highest possible degree of uniformity in regulations and standards, procedures, and organization regarding civil aviation matters. (pg 71) What are the 2 types of ON-airport land use? - Answer- Aeronautical use and non-aeronautical use. (pg 80) What are the 2 types of OFF-airport land use? - Answer- GA #21, compatible land use, requires the airport to make attempt to restrict the use of adjacent land in the immediate vicinity to purposes compatible with airport operations. GA #20, hazard removal and mitigation, requires the airport to take the necessary action to protect the airspace around the airport including visual and instrument approach paths. (pg 81) What structures are generally considered to be incompatible with airport operations? - Answer- Residential development, schools, churches, hospitals, other public health facilities and concert halls are considered to be incompatible land use (pg 81) What are some options for airport operators preventing incompatible land use? - Answer- Remove obstructions, secure land, properly marking lighting obstructions, let zoning officials use master plan for reference when zoning, stay in contact with local municipalities, request to use AIP money to acquire land before it's used, negotiate with zoning agencies, secure navigation easements on the property. (pg 81) Grant assurance 19 operations and maintenance requires the airport to... - Answer- To be operated at all times in a safe and serviceable condition and requires the airport operator maintain the airport in a safe and serviceable condition in accordance with the minimum standards. (pg 85) Why does the FAA encourage airports to have minimum standards? - Answer- Minimum standards and self-service rules and regulations contributes to nondiscriminatory treatment of airport tenants and users. (pg 86) What is an example of "just" discrimination? - Answer- If a certain activity or class would have an adverse effect on safety or efficiency for the airport the airport exec may deny the business to conduct that activity or limit the manner of operation. (pg 88) What are the overall benefits of minimum standards? - Answer- Protect airport tenants from devaluation of their operations by new competition; provides a level playing field so that airport operators understand all tenants' level of commitment; and ensures the safe and efficient operation of the airport in accordance with rules, regs and guidance. (pg 86) What does the exclusive rights grant assurance 23 require, and what are the exceptions? - Answer- Restricts the airport exec from granting any tenant the exclusive right to conduct a particular commercial aeronautical service unless it would be unreasonably costly, burdensome, or impractical for more than one FBO to provide such services, and if allowing more than one FBO to provide such services would require the reduction of space leased to an existing tenant. (pg 88) Explain the term "unjust discrimination" as it relates to what is and isn't done on airport property. - Answer- Under GA 22 Economic Nondiscrimination the airport sponsor may prohibit or limit aeronautical use if such action is necessary for the safe operation of the airport, but may not restrict individual users of a specific type of aircraft and then allow others of that same type of aircraft to operate. (pg 87) What is a "through the fence" agreement? - Answer- Business located off airport property and isn't under airport control but has access to the airport's runway and taxiway system through access agreement (Uber, Lyft). (pg 92) What are the four basic types of leases? - Answer- 1) Straight: remains constant thru out its term. 2) Graduate: changes in rents and fees at previously arranged intervals. 3) Revaluation: periodic valuation of the property and rent adjustment to current values. 4) Percentage: rent equivalent to the percentage of sales; common in concessions leasing. (pg 135) What are critical elements of leaseholder agreements? - Answer- Recitals, grant of lease, lease term, rates/fees/charges, taxes, security deposits, improvements, obligation for repairs/maintenance/upkeep, covenants by tenants/lessee, indemnity, insurance, signage and use of property by lessee, subletting, damage to premises, condemnation/default/expiration of lease agreement, title, signature blocks. (pg 135) What are the factors to consider in concession leasing and rate setting? - Answer- Location in airport, size and type of facility needed, support infrastructure needed, support in traveler flow, efforts the airport makes to highlight various shopping opportunities in the facility and a demand for the airport's space. (pg 137) What are minimum annual guarantees (MAG)? - Answer- Tenants will pay the airport a minimum amount annually. (pg 138) What are the 3 approaches to leasing concession space? - Answer- 1) Standard: airport management directly leases and manages space. 2) Development: company or retail expert can be engaged to provide management services overseeing rental and concessionaire development in lieu of the AP. 3) Institutional: operator can be engaged as a master lessee and is given authority to provide all required concessions or for sublease to other concessionaires. (pg 138) What are the advantages and disadvantages of concessions located before and after screening? - Answer- Before advantages: People picking up passenger can shop and so can passengers who are leaving. Before disadvantages: Less exposure to passengers passing thru. After advantages: Passenger traffic in concourse area and btwn flights. After disadvantages: People picking up passengers can't access. (pg 139) What does airport use agreements do and don't do? - Answer- DO: grant rights and provide a reliable stream of revenue for the airport. DON'T: guarantee services by the airlines to the airport and the nearby community. (pg 140) What is a signatory carrier and an MII clause? - Answer- A signatory air carrier that has entered into use agreement with airport proprietor that can exercise significant control over an airport's capital budget under MII clause. (pg 140) What are the 5 steps of airport property development? - Answer- (1) Physical restraints (2) zoning regulations (3) politics (4) conveyance (or use) restrictions (5) general contract and legal counsel. (pg 141) What are the 4 areas airport executives should assess when upgrading a computer system? - Answer- 1) Compatibility and integration 2) Security and safety 3) Scalability 4) Usability (pg 124) Identify the primary IT systems at and airport and their functions. - Answer- Airside IT systems focuses on information delivery and decision making needed to support the movement of aircraft both on the ground and in the air. Landside IT systems assist in passenger drop off and pick up at the airport. (pgs 124-125) Identify the types of cybersecurity attacks and explain how they work. - Answer- Denial of Service (DOS): Disable a machine or system. Malicious software (malware): Gain access to or cause damage to a computer. Phishing: Steal information; identity theft/data mining- taking someone's identity and gathering information and using it for illegal things. Social engineering: Pretending to be someone trusted to get information. (pg 132) What are the 3 types of insurance under the Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy? - Answer- Hangar Keepers Liability protects the insured from damage to aircraft in their care and control. Premises Liability covers injury to persons or property. Product Liability coverage on products that tenants may sell. (pg 133) Identify methods to reduce risk on the airport. - Answer- Compliance with part 139 Conduct regular training Conduct risk analysis programs Conduct daily inspections Routine screening of new and existing employees Maintain thorough, accurate and timely information sources Obtain blanket insurance policy Developing environmental policies (pg 134) When are federal procurement policies and processes required to be used? - Answer- When the airport accepts federal funds thru the AIP or other transaction agreements with the federal government exception for PFCs. (pg 119) What are federal procurement policies designed to do? - Answer- The processes are designed to promote fair and open competition and to ensure integrity in the public procurement process. (pg 118) What are the various types of contracts and their central elements? - Answer- For construction over $100k the airport must obtain a bid guarantee equal to 5% of bid price and performance and payment bonds equaling 100% of contract; any federally funded construction over $2000 must comply with Davis-Bacon Act providing a weekly report of wages paid i.e. the minimum wage requirement. (pg 119) [Show Less]
Mot Airport Directors/Managers are _________________, meaning that they are on an employment contract and can usually be let go without cause; they literal... [Show More] ly serve at the pleasure of the governing board - Answer- appointed An airport executive must be aware that he or she works for the_____________ and not the individual - Answer- position ________________, __________________ and _____________- are three areas that an airport executive must immediately investigate to determine their level of authority - Answer- agreements, purchasing, and personnel A ________________ is a written motion adopted by a vote of the governing authority - Answer- resolution _________________ are a bundle of items that are voted on, without discussion, as a package - Answer- consent agendas The ___________ allows topics to be discussed in a public forum before the governing body votes on it - Answer- regular agenda Some items may be scheduled for __________________- with the governing body but only for the purposes of information gathering - Answer- public discussion Everything said or done in executive session is ________- - Answer- confidential AT a commercial service airport, the air carriers commonly meet on a monthly basis at the ________________-- - Answer- station managers meeting public participation should be focused on building ______________ and recognizing the needs and desires of those potentially affected by the policy change - Answer- informed consent The goal of the policy makers in building informed consent is not necessarily to make everyone happy about the project but instead to increase ____________ to accept the project - Answer- general willingness ________________ focuses on following legislation at the federal, state, or local level, and, in some cases, attempts to garner support for certain projects and programs - Answer- intergovernmental relations the _________________ or role focuses on attending regional and economic development planning meetings, developing position papers on legislative and policy issues, representing the airport in regional forums with federal, state, and local government officials, and preparing talking points and presentations for board members and the airport executive - Answer- governmental affairs function an ___________ or _______________, such as a lobbyist, is often helpful in providing insight into the details of legislation and the legislative process - Answer- attorney or legislative specialist AAAE holds more than _____ domestic and international meetings each year with ___________ attendees - Answer- 90; 10,000 When AAAE members need assistance interpreting or advocating for a position on pending or existing legislation, the AAAE legislative affairs team --- _____________________ --- provides strong and effective representation for america's airport system on capitol hill. - Answer- airport legislative alliance _______________ keep members up to date on the status of pending legislation - Answer- airport alerts _________ provide insights into the various hearings that affect airport operators including TSA, FAA, and DHS testimony - Answer- hearing reports ______________ deliver timely information and updates to airport executives who need to be in the know on industry-related developments on capitol hill and around Washington. - Answer- Washington Insider Update Videos The transportation security policy (TSP) provides _______________, which provide information to member's on pending or existing TSA related actions and news - Answer- security policy alerts and notices the transportation security policy (TSP) also provides to the ___________________---, which is a free daily email providing the latest trending security news - Answer- AAAE security SmartBreif The AAAE Transportation Security Clearinghouse is the only designated aviation channeler (DAC) with nearly ____ years of airport experience - Answer- 15 ____________ keep members up-to-date on FAA rule making actions and interpretations, along with the status of FAA and EPA programs that affect airport executives - Answer- regulatory alerts _______________ provide the status of hot button issues from a regulatory perspective - Answer- airport regulatory issues _____________ features dozens of peer reviews publications on numerous airport management and operational issues - Answer- Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP) the _____________ oversees the accreditation and certification program. - Answer- board of examiners AAAE _______________ builds on the experience of the original interactive employee training system, currently used by 100 airports - Answer- IET Learning Suite (IET-LS) The ___________________ video training system has provided thousands of airport employees with on-demand video training on every aspect needed to run an airport - Answer- airport news and training network (ANTN Digicast) Noise abatement is addressed through the grant assurances, and is included in __________________, ____________________. Not specifically mentioned, airport noise abatement also touches upon _______________________ - Answer- Assurance #5 Preserving Rights and Powers, Assurance #19 Operations and Maintenance, #26 Reports and inspections, and #31 disposal of land Grant Assurance #22, economic nondisctrimination Noise abatement also touches on _______________________, as the FAA will take into consideration the extent to which the airport sponsor has taken appropriate actions - Answer- Sponsor Assurance #21, compatible land use ___________________ was the catalyst for public awareness and response to aircraft noise issues in the US - Answer- The national environmental policy act of 1969 The significance of NEPA on airports was not fully measurable until November 1976, when the secretary of transportation and the FAA adopted the ________________, which became the first clear identification of the responsibilities of the FAA - Answer- Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) Under the ANAP, the _______ became responsible for the retirement, replacement, or retrofit of older jets that did not meet federal noise level standards - Answer- airlines One of the early attempts at mitigating noise cam in 1969 when the FAA promulgated FAR Part 36, Certificated Airplane Noise Levels. __________________ established noise certification standards for the design of turbojet and transport category aircraft - Answer- Title 14 CFR Part 36 Aircraft engines are rated from a noise perspective in "stages", with stage 1 generally being the _______ and stage 4 the _______ - Answer- loudest; quietest All subsonic turbojet-powered and transport-category airplanes with maximum gross takeoff weights of ____________ or more of a new type design submitted on or after January 1, 2006 must meet new noise certification levels - Answer- 12,500 _____________________________ provided a basis for a great majority of noise abatement planning at airports - Answer- The airport safety and noise abatement act of 1979 (ASNA) Part 150 regulations govern the development and review of an integrated plan to achieve noise control objectives by encouraging compatible land uses in and around airport through the development of _____________ and ______________ - Answer- noise exposure maps (NEM) and Noise compatibility programs (NCP) The design of the part 150 regulations and planning process owed much to two programs that had been previously established, the FAA's __________________ program and the ___________ program used for military airports - Answer- Airport noise control and land use compatibility (ANCLUC); Department of defense's airport installation compatible use zone (AICUZ) ANCA (airport noise and capacity act of 1990) also created ___________, and placed a cap on the number of stage 2 aircraft allowed to operate in the US - Answer- part 161 Failure to follow the provisions in part 150 or 161 can result in the loss of ___________ or _________ - Answer- AIP funds or PFC authorization In 1992 ____________________________ was passed; it required the FAA to study the social, economic, and health effects of airport noise at the 65,60, and 55 dB DNL (day-night average level) noise areas to determine the actual level at which noise creates and adverse impact on populations - Answer- The airport and airway safety, capacity, noise improvement, and inter-modal transportation act the physical unit most commonly used to describe sound levels is the ___________ - Answer- decibel the perceived loudness doubles for every increase of _______ decibles - Answer- 10 _____________ are based on extensive research develop to highly correlate with human response - Answer- cumulative metrics acousticians doing research have formulated the _____________, which holds that over a given period of time, people respond most predictably to the total noise energy they receive rather than to the characteristics of any single noise event - Answer- equal energy The FAA uses the ____________________ method of calculation as the standard to be used for forecasting cumulative noise exposure under part 150 studies - Answer- Day/Night Average (DNL) To obtain a daily DNL reading, noise is measured each ________ and recorded for a 24 hour period. For the hours 10 pm to 7 am, ______ decibels are added to the recorded measurement - Answer- seconds; 10 the _______________ has long been the standard airport noise prediction model used by airports and involves a complex and detailed procedure for determining the DNL noise contour area for a specific mix of aircraft - Answer- Integrated Noise Model (INM) The INM model utilizes flight track information, aircraft fleet mix, standard and user-defined aircraft profiles, and terrain. It can also process US census population data and flight schedules from the ___________________- - Answer- official airline guide (OAG) In may 2015, the _________________ replaced the INM; it is a software system that models aircraft performance in space and time to estimate fuel consumption, emissions, noise, and air quality consequences - Answer- Aviation Environmental Design Tool (AEDT) Using the DNL method for calculating noise, these standard contours developed are the 65 and 75 DNL levels, respectively. The FAA recommends that the airport own all property within the _______ DNL contour. - Answer- 75 Under the federal land-use guidelines included in part 150, all land uses are considered to be compatible with noise levels less than __________ - Answer- 65 DNL A popular tool for airports is the establishment of the ____________________ or _______________ that reveal potentially noise-impacted areas to current boards and planning commissions - Answer- airport influence area or public disclosure maps the _________________ was a noise-assessment program designed to provide an analysis of air traffic changes over broad areas - Answer- Noise Integrated Routing System (nirs) the _________________ is a computer program that assists in determining whether a change in air traffic procedure for airport arrivals and departures between 3,000 and 10,000 feet AGL will generate a 5 dB increase in noise to underlying communities, and therefore, is likely to be controversial - Answer- Air Traffic Noise Screening (ATNS) Although air traffic changes above 3,000 feet above ground level are _______________ from further environmental documentation, new noise introduced over noise-sensitive areas may be controversial public issues - Answer- categorically excluded The _________________ is the principal law supporting federal efforts to identify and reduce noise issues involving land use around domestic civil airports - Answer- Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) Congress specifically designated _____________ percent of airport planning and development funding from the 1970 airport and airway development act to fund noise compatibility planning and mitigation measures at airports. The percentage provision was increased to __ in 1987 - Answer- 8; 10 The first phase in the part 150 process is to generate a _______ - Answer- NEM The second phase of the part 150 process is to draft the _______- - Answer- NCP The FAA currently defines significant change in noise exposure as an increase in DNL of _____, if the new DNL is above 65 dB - Answer- 1.5 dB In order for the significant change provision to be effective, the person must have had what is legally known as ___________ that an NEM exists - Answer- constructive knowledge The most effective control measure for reducing noise impact is ____________ - Answer- land acquisition acquiring an air navigation easement is considered to be the same as having _________- - Answer- an interest in the land if federal funds are sued for land acquisition, the airport operator is governed by the procures found in 49 CFR Part 24 and the _______________ - Answer- uniform relocation and real property acquisition policies act sound-attenuation improvements and sound insulation of homes are intended to reduce interior residential noise levels to at least __________ within the ___________ - Answer- 50 dBA within the 65 dBA contour a noise reduction of ____ to ___ dBA is the goal of noise insulation projects - Answer- 30 to 35 for non-compatible, public-use buildings, an average sound level of -________ dBA is the nominal design objective - Answer- 45 if the interior noise level reduction attributable to soundproofing does not achieve compatibility under part 150 or local land-use guidelines, an __________- noise easement should supplement the soundproofing - Answer- avigation the implementation of preferential runway-use system is exclusively the authority and responsibility of the ____ - Answer- faa to designate a preferential runway in use, the wind direction must be within ____ degrees of runway heading and must not exceed ____ knots on runways that are clear and dry - Answer- 90 degrees; 15 knots For the implementation of ______, consideration is given to whether aircraft are physically capable of performing noise abatement flight maneuvers in a safe and efficient manner - Answer- fight procedures _____________, include the most common airport development measure proposed under part 150, which are runway extensions, new runways, and taxiway development - Answer- airport development measures ___________ include the creation of noise advisory committees, publication of pamphlets and programs for residents and airport users, and capital improvement policies - Answer- administrative measures and studies _______________ from the noise compatibility perspective, one of the explicit objectives of the part 150 planning process is to improve airport land-use planning - Answer- improved land-use planning _____________ requires local airports seeking to impose new noise rules such as curfews to perform a cost-benefit analysis including a comprehensive study of the impacts before they can seek approval from the FAA - Answer- part 161 at least ____-- days prior of the effective date part 161 airports must publish notices in local newspapers and post notices that are accessible to users and the public - Answer- 180 the success of the airport is largely based on the success of its _________ - Answer- tenants (marketing) Use of airport money is addressed under Grant Assurance _________, and specifies that revenues generated by the airport must be used on the airport - Answer- Grant Assurance 25, airport revenue [Show Less]
The number of days an airport operator has to report a Part 139 deviation? - Answer- 14 days What is a form 5010? - Answer- "Airport Data and Informatio... [Show More] n Program" - info pilots use before and during their flight to familiarize themselves with the airport. Changes to the airport (issues more serious than NOTAMS), significant changes to landing areas, and instrument approaches should all be in Form 5010. Purpose of Airport System Planning - Answer- study the performance and interaction of an entire aviation system to understand the interrelationship of the member airports. Peak Hour Demand - Answer- Based on the "peak hour" of the average day of the peak month. ARFF Requirements - Answer- First to respond is 3 minutes, everyone else is 4 min. *Prepare for LONGEST Aircraft with minimum of 5 takeoffs daily ___________ is defined in AC 150 as 500 or more annual itinerant operations by the critical design aircraft. - regular use: less than 500 itinerant operation - Answer- "Substantial Use" Runways are normally aligned with - Answer- prevailing winds Airport Master Record - Answer- Basic operational and services data of an airport All four part of Form 5010 together. Who is responsible for the marking and lighting of navigable waterways - Answer- U.S Coast Guard How often are gates used and how long is the "gate turn" - Answer- Gates are used 50-80% of the time (20-30 min for GA and 40-60 min for commercial) NPIAS identifies __________ airports that are important to national air transportation, thus receives grants under the AIP - Answer- Over 3300 _____________ the owner or operator, governing entity of a single airport or local airport system - Answer- Airport Sponsor Airport Sponsors (Elected Officials, Boards, etc) are the ____________, o the Executive is the ___________. - Answer- STRATEGIC Vision, TACTICAL Leader Five Types of Airports: - Answer- 1. Commercial Service 2. General Aviation/Reliever 3. Cargo 4. Private 5. Military (1-3 Public Use) Under municipal structure airports operate like a ____________. Which is a branch of government that operates like a business - Answer- Enterprise Fund Five types of airport sponsors - Answer- 1. Municipality (city/county) 2. Airport Authority 3. Port Authority 4. State 5. Private Responsible for managing the airport - Answer- Airport Executive the safe secure and efficient operation of the airport is the responsibility of - Answer- airport management Addresses areas of accounting, budget, HR, public relations. - Answer- Finance and Adminstration Addresses the areas of capital improvement plans, construction standards, airport master plan, airport layout plan. - Answer- Planning and Engineering enforcing operating and security regulations, deals with FAA inspectors, comply with Part 139 - Answer- Operations, Security and Maintenance Shift from a traditional government responsibility to the control of a private enterprise. Still subject to public use and grant assurances. In part or whole - Answer- Airport Privatization The FAA tested the idea of privatized airports in 1996. - Answer- The Airport Privatization Program How FARS are created. NPRM is issued when an FAR is added, changed, or removed - Answer- Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Process (NPRM) Official journal of federal government; contains public notices - Answer- Federal Register Amount of days for public comment for FAR changes - Answer- 30-60 days depending on the change When does an FAR become enforcable - Answer- After it is published in the federal register the second time, after the public comment period. Major roles of the FAA - Answer- 1. Regulating civil aviation safety 2. Encourages and develops new aviation tech 3. Develops and operates ATC 4. Researches and develops the NAS 5. Develops and carries out programs concerning aircraft noice 6. Regulates space transportation Four (soon to be five) Lines of FAA Business - Answer- 1. Airports (ARP) 2. Air Traffic Organization (ATO) 3. Aviation Safety (AS) 4. Office of Commercial Space Transportation (AST) 5. NextGen (ANG) Responsible for the certification of pilot's mechanics and other air safety professionals - Answer- Aviation Safety (AS) provides leadership in planning and developing a safe and efficient national airport system. The office is responsible for all programs related to airport safety and inspections as well as standards for airport design, construction, and operation. - Answer- Airports (ARP) a REGIONAL office of the FAA that concentrates on enforcing regulations pertaining to aircraft and airmen certification and licensing. - Answer- Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) help explain the intent of a federal aviation regulation, to provide guidance and information to the aviation public in a designated subject area, or to show a method acceptable for complying with a related regulation. - Answer- Advisory Circulars (ACs) allows federal agencies to meet the requirement to publish regulations by referring to materials already published elsewhere. - Answer- Incorporation by reference Advisory Circular series that addresses airports and areas related to airport operations, planning, and management - Answer- The AC/150 series - are directives on specific subjects and programs issued by the FAA and remain in effect until rescinded by the FAA - provide guidance and instruction to FAA personnel on compliance, airport safety, operations, and other related issues - Answer- FAA Orders When airport owners or sponsors, planning agencies, or other organizations ACCEPT FUNDS from FAA-administered airport financial assistance programs (e.g., AIP grants), they must agree to certain obligations to the federal government. - Answer- Grant Assurances Grant Assurances balance three competing, but equally important, public interests: - Answer- (1) they allow the Airport Executive to better manage local affairs, (2) they meet the requirement of the FAA to ensure that federal funds are effectively used to meet the need for public air transportation, and (3) they meet the goal of the federal government to promote social objectives, such as disadvantaged businesses and the rights of those with disabilities. Grant Assurances are primarily managed by the FAA through the (airport document) - Answer- Airport Compliance Manual (FAA Order 5190.6B) lists those obligated airports with egregious violations where the airport sponsor has been informally determined to be in noncompliance with its grant assurances and/or surplus property obligations as of a particular date - Answer- Airport Noncompliance List (ANL). provides the public a method of reporting compliance violations of federal laws affecting air transportation, including any regulations, rules, policies, or orders issued under those laws - Answer- FAR Part 13 complaints cover matters within the jurisdiction of the FAA involving federal obligations incurred by an Airport Sponsor in accepting federal property or FAA grants. - Answer- FAR Part 16 Individuals may file a complaint with the - Answer- Office of the Chief Counsel The complaint process as outlined in Part 13 and Part 16 should serve as a reminder to airport personnel and Airport Sponsors that an airport is not managed in a . - Answer- vacuum is considered to involve injury to an individual, rather than to the society as a whole. - Answer- Civil law a legal concept that the government cannot commit a legal wrong and is immune from civil suit or criminal prosecution. - Answer- Governmental immunity the failure to use reasonable care - Answer- negligence occurs when someone has personally participated in an affirmative act of negligence, known about or complied in negligent acts, or failed to perform a precise duty which he/she agreed to perform. - Answer- Active negligence Grant Assurance #_____: airport that is satisfactory to the FAA or to give satisfactory assurance to the FAA - Answer- Grant Assurance 4, land reserved for an aeronautical activity, which is "any activity that involves, makes possible, or is required for the operation of aircraft or that contributes to or is required for the safety of such operations" - Answer- Aeronautical land use land that does not support an aeronautical activity but is used to generate revenue to support the airport's aviation needs - Answer- Non-aeronautical land use Grant Assurance that requires the airport to make an attempt to restrict the use of adjacent land, or land in the immediate vicinity, to activities and purposes compatible with airport operations. - Answer- Grant Assurance #21 Compatible Land Use the land can be used for more than one purpose at the same time. - Answer- Concurrent Land Use requires the Airport Sponsor to delineate the airport's boundaries, including all facilities, and to identify plans for future development - Answer- Airport Layout Plan Grant Assurance related to the day-to-day operation of an airport - Answer- Grant Assurance 19 Operation and Maintenance The airport to be operated at all times in a safe and serviceable condition and requires the airport operator to operate and maintain the airport in a safe and serviceable condition, and in accordance with the _____________ (most airports have this posted on their website) - Answer- Minimum Standards is one of the most misunderstood and controversial of the Grant Assurances - Answer- Grant Assurance 22 Economic Nondiscrimination Grant Assurance that restricts the Airport Executive from granting any tenant the exclusive right to conduct a particular commercial aeronautical service - Answer- Grant Assurance 23 Exclusive Rights Grant Assurance that requires large and medium hub airport operators to report to the Secretary of Transportation any denial of a request by an air carrier for access to the airport - Answer- Grant Assurance 39 Competitive Access is a business operation that is located off the airport property and is therefore not under the control of the airport, but which has access to the airport runway and taxiway system through an access agreement. - Answer- Through-the-Fence (TTF) Agreement FBOs and SASOs located on the field may level an unfair and discriminatory practice charge if the FBO is required to pay lease fees and percentage rents, while TTF businesses or operators may not have to. - Answer- Problems with TTF Agreements, FAA does not like TTF Agreements aeronautical, non-aeronautical and non-operating. - Answer- Three Types of Airport Revenue services provided by air carriers related directly and substantially to the movement of passengers, baggage, mail, and cargo at the airport. - Answer- Aeronautical Revenue land rent received from an off- industrial park that is owned by the airport, reservations centers, catering facilities, rental car operations, parking, and concession sales. - Answer- Non-Aeronautical Revenue includes Passenger Facility Charges, Customer Facility Charges (i.e. landside access fees for commercial ground transportation such as taxi cabs and limousines), interest income, and grants. - Answer- Non-Operating Revenue a fee that almost all airline travelers in the United States pay in their ticket price. The fee goes toward the upkeep and maintenance of airports, and is setup and capped according to US federal law. - Answer- Passenger Facility Charges PFC the airport must conduct an annual audit and assure the government that airport funds have been properly distributed. - Answer- Single Audit Act of 1984 Grant Assurance that restricts the use of airport revenue generated by the airport and local taxes on aviation fuel to be expended for the capital or operating costs of the airport, the local airport system, or other facilities owned or operated by the Airport Sponsor which directly and substantially relate to the actual air transportation of passengers or the property or noise mitigation efforts. - Answer- Grant Assurance 25 Airport Revenues airports request this so vendors are not allowed to charge a price greater than the average price for a product or service that might be found in the local area or city shopping malls. maybe average price plus a percentage markup. - Answer- Street Pricing which guarantees that the tenant will pay the airport a minimum amount annually. - Answer- Minimum Annual Guarantee Signatory carriers may exercise significant control over an airport's capital budgeting process under provisions in a use agreement known as - Answer- Majority-In-Interest (MII) clauses Three methods of rate setting - Answer- Residual, Compensatory, Hybrid Rate setting that permits aeronautical users to receive a cross-credit of non-aeronautical revenues. Much of the financial risk is transferred to the airlines in return for a negotiated limit on the airport's profits - Answer- Residual Rate setting that a Sponsor assumes all liability for airport costs and retains all airport revenue for its own use in accordance with federal requirements. Aeronautical users are charged only for the costs of the aeronautical facilities they use - Answer- Compensatory The two methods of compensatory approaches are - Answer- "cost-of-service" (a.k.a. multiple cost center approach) and the public subsidy approach. This type of compensatory method is fees and charges are set for each revenue-producing cost center, so that ideally, the charges match the costs of operation. - Answer- cost-of-service This type of compensatory method the local government agency offsets the difference between the revenue and expenses by subsidizing the airport's operation - Answer- public subsidy The aeronautical users are charged for the aeronautical facilities with the aeronautical users assuming additional responsibility for airport cost in return for a share of the non-aeronautical revenue. - Answer- Hybrid Approach to Rate Setting For construction contracts over $100,000, federal regulations require the airport to obtain a ____________ equal to at least 5 percent of the bid price - Answer- bid guarantee Under the __________ contracts for construction and equipment must go to the lowest responsive and responsible bidder - Answer- sealed bid method When a seal bid is not appropriate ___________ may be used - Answer- competitive proposals produces reports on noise and flight track compliance, helps to monitor noise limits, assists with curfew management, monitors no-fly zones, assists with handling noise complaints by providing accurate information about particular flights and noise emissions, and provides data for the generation of Integrated Noise Model contour - Answer- Airport Noise and Operations Monitoring System (ANOMS) located in publicly accessible spaces, they usually provide the first and last airport IT interactions with passengers. - Answer- Landside IT Systems monitor the activity of vehicles that are outfitted with a transponder. Detected by receiver stations, and that tag can be used to control access and usage to the vehicle. - Answer- Automatic Vehicle Identification (AVI) a computer system used to display flight information in real time to passengers - Answer- Multi-User Flight Information Display System (MUFIDS) used to meet the airport organization's administrative needs and are tailored to fit the airport's unique business environment - Answer- Business and Financial Management Systems assist users with property and parcel management, lease and concession management, invoicing and billing, and maintenance and work order tracking. - Answer- Property and Asset Management System focuses on any item of text or media that is formatted into a binary source such as videos, animations, and music or other audio recordings that are owned by an entity. - Answer- Digital asset management used to allow, restrict, or track the movement of individuals who have been issued airport credentials throughout the security areas of the airport. - Answer- Physical Access Control System (PACS) Ensure that mechanical systems work properly so that building environments are pleasant and functional; they help the airport staff keep the airport operating at peak performance - Answer- Facility and Maintenance Systems used to support planning, infrastructure, development, and management activities at an airport. - Answer- Geographic information systems (GIS) centralized data storage location whose resources (i.e. data) are shared by other systems - Answer- Airport Operational Database (AOBD) provides for changes in rents and fees at previously arranged intervals. - Answer- Graduated Lease provides for periodic valuations of the property and rent adjustments to current values (which can sometimes go down). - Answer- revaluation lease calls for rents equivalent to a percentage of business sales, which are common in concession lease agreements. - Answer- percentage lease is the amount earned according to the selling price of a service or item - Answer- Gross Revenue attempt to guarantee, a reliable stream of revenue for the airport. - Answer- Aeronautical Use (or Lease) Agreements AIP processes are regulated under FAA Order 5100.38C, otherwise known as the - Answer- Airport Improvement Program Handbook. The law requires that AIP funds be apportioned by formula known as - Answer- entitlement funds Remaining AIP funds that are left over are called - Answer- discretionary funds are the first funds to be issued to airports and states. May be used by the airport or transferred to another airport, an action that is typical when one airport has higher fiscal needs for a particular project. - Answer- Entitlement Apportionments are distributed by Office of Management and Budget and allow the FAA to obligate Congressional apportionments with a financial plan - Answer- Discretionary which means that the state assumes responsibility for administering AIP grants at airports classified as "other-than-primary" airports - Answer- Block-Grant (1) incurred for a common or joint purpose benefitting more than one cost objective and (2) not readily assignable to the cost objectives specifically benefitted, without effort disproportionate to the results achieved. - Answer- Indirect Cost FAA assigns a value between 0-100 "100" most consistent with FAA goals - Answer- National Priority System (NPS) refer generically to interest-bearing obligations issued by state and local government entities to finance capital costs. - Answer- Municipal securities (municipal bonds) issued only by states, municipalities, and other authorized, general-purpose [Show Less]
The Kelly Act - Answer- Authorized postmaster general to contract for domestic airmail service with commercial air carriers Fixed-Base Operator (FBO) - ... [Show More] Answer- Provided fuel and place for pilots/passengers to rest. Offered services Air Mail Act of 1925 - Answer- Commercial airlines became widespread Commerce Act of 1926 - Answer- Federal govts.'s regulation of civil aviation American Association of Airport Executives (AAAE) - Answer- First airport management trade organization established Hub-and-Spoke - Answer- Allows cargo to be transported to central hub, where it's re-sorted and sent to final destination. Airlines also used for more efficient way of moving passengers Self-sustaining - Answer- Airport does not rely on municipal tax revenue to operate Airport Sponsor - Answer- this entity is own/controls the direction of and is accountable to the FAA for operating a public use airport Airport Executive - Answer- tactical leader of airport (airport direction/manager), in charge of day to day activities, makes recommendations to board Which entity is responsible for preparing financial plans? - Answer- Airport Executive/Manager FAA Orders - Answer- Memo to an FAA District Office. Explains how to administrate a process. How FAA will regulate a process Term for Grant Assurances - Answer- -Non-land: Typically 20 years -Land: Life of the land -Equipment: lifespan of equipment Part 13 Complain - Answer- Informal -Know where to file -Brief summary of process -Results of process Part 16 Complain - Answer- -Formal -Deadline driven -Have to prove that you attempted to fix things w/ airport first. What department was Aeronautics first organized under in the U.S.? - Answer- Department of Commerce Min. number of enplanements per year to be classified as commercial service? - Answer- 2500 Which precedent is the Works Progress Administration (WPA) responsible for setting? - Answer- Airports should be self-sustainable What signified the effective begging of privatized space flight? - Answer- Final flight of US Space Shuttle Correct classification for airport designated by FAA to relieve GA traffic from commercial service airport? - Answer- GA Reliever FAA Order - Answer- Directive to FAA Airport District Office personnel on specific subjects and programs What federal doc has the FAA found to be the most effective means for extending federal govt. policy to local govt. units? - Answer- Grant Assurances What waives immunity over claims arising out of contracts w/ the federal govt.? - Answer- The Tucker Act FAA term for the entity that is responsible for governance of the airport? - Answer- Airport Sponsor Benefit of grant assurances to the airport user? - Answer- Ensure that an adequate level of safe and efficient service is available to the public According to FAA, which area do the most conflicts occur, related to permitted activity on the airport? - Answer- Non-aeronautical use What doc must always be up to date to receive federal funds? - Answer- Airport Layout Plan 1987 Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act (ACEA) - Answer- Funding priority was given to airport projects that focused on enhancing safety and sustaining an airport's overall capacity to handle aircraft and ground operations Capacity - Answer- A protein of an airspace or airports ability to handle a given volume of traffic (demand) within a specified time period Airfield Capacity - Answer- A measure of the level of aircraft movements that the rwy/taxiway system is able to handle over a specified time period Which Act Transferred the federal govt.'s civil aviation role to a new independent agency, the Civil Aeronautics Authority? - Answer- The Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938 33% of all public use airports are owned by which entity? - Answer- City What impact did the Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century have on the aviation industry? - Answer- Increased PFC's to $4.50 Which two key positions at any airport are generally outside of the vertical reporting structure? - Answer- Legal counsel and financial auditor When does governmental immunity apply? - Answer- To employees of the federal, state, or local govt., provided they are acting within the scope and authority of their position DBE requirements mean than not less than ___ of the funds authorized for the highway and transit financial assistance programs be expended with DBEs. - Answer- 10% What is the name of the agreements that transferred military airports to civilian airports after WWII? - Answer- AP-4 Agreements What type of use of airport revenue would NOT be approved by the FAA? - Answer- General Economic Development for the community What is the ONLY exception to the Exclusive Rights Grant Assurance - Answer- The airport may grant itself the exclusive right to conduct an operation The public comment period for a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking for a minor change is normally how long? - Answer- 30 days What does the grant assurance addressing compatible land use require the airport to do? - Answer- Attempt to restrict the use of land adjacent to or in the immediate vicinity of the airport Which reg. addresses airport noise planning? - Answer- Title 12 CFR Part 150 How many enplanements does a primary commercial service airport have? - Answer- 10,000 or more What FAA office provides oversight of airport compliance with Part 139? - Answer- Airport District Office What office can dismiss Part 16 complaints based on procedural grounds? - Answer- The Director of the Office of Airport Safety and Standards What plan addresses the strategy for Air Service Development for an airport? - Answer- Marketing Plan What document identifies the legal, financial, and operational relationship between the airport operator and the airlines? - Answer- Aeronautical Use Agreement FAA policy applies a strict ___ valuation standard to core aeronautical use facilities. - Answer- Historical What types of charges are related to the ops and uses of an airfield but are incidental to the operation of an aircraft? - Answer- Non-Aeronautical Use What gives signatory airlines the ability to influence capital projects undertaken at the airport by giving them the right to approve or disapprove proposed projects? - Answer- Majority in Interest ___ airports have commonly used the residual method fro setting rates because of the influence and power of the airlines in generating economic traffic. - Answer- Large Hub A personal property tax on an aircraft based at an airport is an example of what type of revenue? - Answer- Non-Operating Lease requires a period valuation of the property to set new rates. What type of lease is this? - Answer- Revaluation Lease This type of concession contract guarantees that the tenant will pay the airport a min amount annually - Answer- Min Annual Guarantee (MAG) Airports enplaning over ___ passenger annually are good candidates for brand-name vendors and concessions - Answer- 5,000,000 Amount owed to the airport are? - Answer- Accounts receivable What does the module consider the most important factor that affects an airport's ability to become more self-sustaining through commercialization or privatization? - Answer- The demographic makeup of the community What financial statement provides a fiscal description of airport assets and liabilities at a specific date? - Answer- Balance Sheet What statement shows revenues minus expenses to arrive at the "bottom line?" - Answer- Income Statement This is a decision making tool to assess whether a stock is earning money - Answer- P/E Margin What is an annual charge against income that reflects the cost of capital improvements and equipment used in the conduct of business? - Answer- Depreciation This type of budge is becoming the most popular for airports with compensatory agreements - Answer- Revenue or cost-centered Which type of budge is normally associate w/ a small airport? - Answer- Lump sum When you remove the costs of doing business from the income statement, you are left with what? - Answer- Gross profit Liquidity is - Answer- Amount of time required to convert an asset to cash Which category has the highest priority for AIP funding? - Answer- Safety and Security What is considered the most effective way to conduct a market analysis? - Answer- Hire a knowledgable consultant What is the first step in assessing the quality of a bond? - Answer- Airport conducts informal discussions w/ the rating services What type of federal funds are given to an airport through a set formula? - Answer- Entitlement Which doc conveys the intent of the FAA to obligate the money for an Airport Improvement Program project over a period of time? - Answer- Letter of Intent What types of bonds require the voter approval and are associated w/ being issued by States or Municipalities? - Answer- G [Show Less]
Type of inspection that occurs after a weather event - Answer- Special Inspection Type of airfield marking with yellow background and black ladder shape... [Show More] - Answer- ILS critical area marking The national incident management system consist of three areas: ICS, joint Public and - Answer- Multi agency coordination Rezoning property along an approach path from residential to commercial - Answer- Mitigation A position within the incident command structure tasked with coordinating with other agencies - Answer- Liaison officer This pavement deterioration occurs when water seeps beneath the pavement and comes back up - Answer- Pumping An airfield marking with a single solid yellow line and a single yellow Dash Line - Answer- Movement or nonmovement area boundary marking If an airport safety inspector sees a problem but cannot correct the problem immediately, what two things must they do - Answer- Issue a NOTAM and create a work order How often must individuals be trained that conduct Airport self inspections - Answer- Every 12 consecutive calendar months What is the term for when a vehicle operator drives into a protected area such as a runway - Answer- Runway incursion Under part 139 what is the definition for small aircraft seat range - Answer- 10-30 During and alert 2 response responding personnel are required to do this - Answer- Stage near the incident Used to report runway friction and breaking action - Answer- RCAMS Auditing and anonymous reporting is part of what SMS element - Answer- Safety assurance Identification of hazards and risk assessment is part of what SMS element - Answer- Safety risk management Establishing a culture of safety is part of what SMS element - Answer- Safety promotion What is the most effective means of preserving airport runways, taxiways and other paved areas - Answer- Implementation of an airport payment management system-APMS Surface movement guidance and control system-SMGCS - Answer- A lighting system used in the airport with low visibility that helps guide aircraft operators to their destinations - less than 1200 runway visual range For what area of the airport is airport driver training Required as per FAA - Answer- For the movement area Who causes the most runway incursions and what is the percentage - Answer- Pilots - 2/3 Who conducts a wildlife hazard - Answer- Wildlife biologist At what altitude do the majority of birdstrikes - Answer- Below 600 feet What is Stanford Act - Answer- Requires elected officials legally responsible for emergency and disaster planning In Which phase of the airport emergency plan lifecycle does Property Preservation fall in? mitigation, preparedness, recovery, response - Answer- Response What is included in the airport emergency plan basic plan section - Answer- Overview of a plan, legal authority What is included in the airport emergency plan functional annexes section - Answer- Capabilities or emergency support system - Communications, alert in morning, law-enforcement, fire and rescue What is included in the airport emergency plans hazard specific section - Answer- Specific hazards - The craft accidents, bomb threats, natural disasters Effectiveness of the incident command structure relies on - Answer- Command, control, communication Of the five components of ICS, who is responsible for performing actions - Answer- Operations Of the five components of ICS, who is responsible for developing the incident action plans - Answer- Planning Of the five components of ICS, who is responsible for acquiring materials, personnel and equipment - Answer- Logistics Of the five components of ICS, who is responsible for tracking expenses, coordinating personnel and providing legal support - Answer- Finance and administration What type of IROP Is a high level of aircraft and passenger flow into the airport - Answer- Surge What type of IROP is when the terminal hits full passenger capacity and all gates become full with aircraft - Answer- Capacity What type of IROP occurs when an aircraft lands with passengers that need to deplane at irregular hours - Answer- After-hours What type of IROP occurs with passengers and aircraft may be stuck at the airport for an extended period of time, such as a day or more - Answer- Extended stay What is the tarmac rule for domestic flights - Answer- Three hours What is the tarmac rule for international flights - Answer- Four hours Airport operations center concept - Answer- Includes TSA, airlines, and ground transportation center What regulatory influence does the TSA over certain areas of the terminal building - Answer- Check operations, do not leave bags and attended, do not leave vehicle on What are some techniques for the airport operator to influence the passenger experience - Answer- Therapy dogs, calming music in terminal, Airport ambassador program The overall feel is what passenger touch point - Answer- Subliminal Screening, ticketing, and baggage handling are what passenger touch points - Answer- Procedural What is the most prevalent crime at an airport - Answer- Theft Who acts as a primary point of contact for bomb threats and hijackings - Answer- The aircraft operator ground security coordinator [Show Less]
The AAAE Certified Member Modules are materials airport managers can use as... - Airport regulation - Airport case Law - Final authoritative documents ... [Show More] - A daily reference and field guide - Answer- A daily reference and field guide Which statement is False? - Each Airport has its own unique geography - it is impossible to accurately capture how each public-use airport in the US operates at all levels of its position - When you've seen one airport, you've seen one airport - Each airport has the same operating characteristics - Answer- Each airport has the same operating characteristics When using the term "Airport Sponsor", the authors of the AAAE modules are referring to the... - Airport director - Governing body - Federal Aviation Administration - Airport management - Answer- Governing body An airport has many customers, however, the airport must serve the... - Community - Stakeholders - Pilot - Airlines - Answer- Pilot In 1970, The Airport and Airway Development Act brought about all except the following - Airport and Airway Trust Fund - Planning Grant Program (PGP) - Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) - National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) - Answer- National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) (T/F) The FAA does not include in its planning or funding decision-making any private airports unless they are publicly accessible or military airports that do not host any civilian operations. - Answer- True The National Plan of integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS) identifies 3,345 public-use airports that are important to the national air transportation system and eligible to receive grant funds under the FAA Airport Improvement Program (AIP). An airport can be included in the NPIAS for all of the following reasons except... - GA reliever airport - Serving a community that is at least 15 minutes from the nearest NIPIAS airport - Publicly owned - Part of a State Airport System - Answer- Serving a community that is at least 15 minutes from the nearest NPIAS airport Commercial service airports are grouped into two major categories - National and Regional - Civilian and Military - Large hub and small hub - Primary and non-primary - Answer- Primary and non-primary A passenger enplanement can be defined as... - A passenger using a handicap ramp - A take-off and a landing - A passenger boarding a commercial flight - A passenger getting off any type of aircraft - Answer- A passenger boarding a commercial flight The FAA uses three primary measurements to gauge airport activity. Which statistic is not one of the three? - Total passenger traffic - Passenger enplanements - Aircraft operations - Cargo tonnage - Answer- Total passenger traffic Although federally regulated, public-use airports can be operated by all of the following organizational structures except - Airport Authority - City - State Government - Department of Commerce - Answer- Department of Commerce Successful airports can be observed creating effective working relationships between - City and County - Vendors and Customers - Airlines and Pilots - Airport policy makers and Management - Answer- Airport policy makers and Management (T/F) Airport sponsors must maintain their responsibility to the FAA to operate the airport as an essential component of the national aviation system without regard to any negative impact to the airport's community - Answer- False As a manager of a federally obligated public-use airport, your airport generates revenue, such as landing fees, building rentals, and fuel flowage fees. What percentage of the income derived must be utilized for airport purposes? - 0% - 100% - 100% in excess of Fair Market Value (FMV) - 50% - Answer- 100% Airports are distinctly different from traditional municipal operations in that they can operate as - Centralized governments - Federal agencies - L.L.Cs - Stand-alone enterprises - Answer- Stand-alone enterprises Generally, airport authority board members are compensated as follows: - $1 a year to comply with federal and state labor laws - Fair Market Value - Minimum Wage - Do not receive compensation and serve in a voluntary capacity - Answer- Do not receive compensation and serve in a voluntary capacity Each type of airport of ownership has advantages and disadvantages. What is a potential disadvantage to the municipality owned structure? - Power to tax and issue bonds - access to other city/county departments - Can be viewed as another department of the city/county - Access to larger sources of funding - Answer- Can be viewed as another department of the City/County The debate over the status of the airport as either a public entity or a business enterprise will likely continue for decades, but the simplest understanding is that... - An airport is a government entity run by elected officials - An airport is a Department of Transportation sub-organization - An airport is a public entity that is run like a business - An airport is an enterprise fund with many departments - Answer- An airport is a public entity that is run like a business The most common positions at an airport that are outside of the vertical structure are the - Finance and administration personnel - Operations and maintenance positions - Legal counsel and auditor - Certification inspector and regulator - Answer- Legal counsel and auditor The terrorist attacks of Sept. 11, 2001 resulted in the Aviation and Transportation Security Act of 2001 moving the airport and aircraft operator security regulations from the FAA to the newly created - Transportation Security Administration - Civil Aviation Office - Dept. of Homeland Security - National Transportation Security Board - Answer- Transportation Security Administration As a new airport manager trying to inventory all applicable airport laws, and regulations, he or she be careful not to omit which form of hidden regulation? - FARs - FAA orders - Cert. Alerts - Grant Assurances - Answer- Grant Assurances The Flight Standards District Office, commonly known as FSDO, is responsible for - Food safety on the concourses - Flow of air traffic and NAVAID maintenance - Enforcing laws for aircraft and pilot certification and licensing - Regulating all aviation safety in the US - Answer- Enforcing laws for aircraft and pilot certification and licensing Federal Grant Assurances require the airport operator to do all of the following except: - Operate the airport in the public interest - Use specific lands approved by the FAA for non-aeronautical use to generate revenue to support the airport's aviation needs - Grant exclusive rights for aeronautical purposes or uses - Maintain the airport in good and serviceable condition - Answer- Grant exclusive rights for aeronautical purposes or uses If the FAA or an aeronautical user believes that the airport is in violation of its Grant Assurances, it may file a complaint with the FAA through the Part 13 or Part 16 process. Part 13 complaints are... - Considered informal - Handled with definitive timelines - submitted straight to FAA headquarters - Typically used for Grant Assurance Violations - Answer- Considered Informal (T/F) The Federal government has complete authority over airspace and aircraft operations. - Answer- True Airport land use is critical component of airport management. Grant Assurance 5. Preserving Rights and Powers prevents an airport Sponsor from taking any action that may deprive the Airport Sponsor of its rights to - Charge fees consistent with the sustainability rule - Create jobs and payroll - Direct and control airport development - Regulate interstate commerce - Answer- Direct and control airport development (T/F) The FAA Grant Assurances require the Airport Executive to attempt to prevent both incompatible land use and obstructions to the navigable airspace around the airport even it it's beyond the airports property boundaries - Answer- True The airport property map does all of the following except - Show funding source used to acquire tracts - Show proposed airport development - Indicate use of land - Indicate how tracts were acquired - Answer- Show proposed airport development Defending the airport from incompatible off-airport land use starts with which document? - Airport Master Plan - ALD Drawing - Airport Rules and Regulations - "Exhibit A" Property Map - Answer- Airport Master Plan While the FAA has traditionally opposed residential land use on and around airports, all of the following are allowable except - Aircraft rescue and fire fighting facilities with 24-hour coverage requirement - Finance manager sleeping room during single-audit - Temporary pilot or crew rest facilities - Air ambulance operations - Answer- Finance manager sleeping room during single-audit Kansas State University's Polytechnic Campus is an "off-airport" entity and is a perfect example of a - Non-aeronautical user - Through-the-fence-operator - Exclusive right tenant - Fixed Base Operator - Answer- Through-the-fence operator Grant Assurance 19 requires the airport to be operating all times in a safe and serviceable condition. The two primary guiding documents that serve as airport Sponsor tools in this endeavor are the - Airport Emergency Plan and Certification Manual - Minimum Standards and Airport Rules and Regulations - Airport Master Plan and "Exhibit A" Property Map - Airport Layout Plan and Drawing - Answer- Minimum Standards and Airport Rules and Reguations The FAA's hangar use policy was clarified in 2016 whereby it stated that aircraft hangars should be used to store aircraft, which is an approved aeronautical use. If this policy is violated, the federal government is essentially subsidizing - A non-aeronautical function on an airport - Airport hangar maintenance - An aeronautical use - Airfield operations - Answer- A non-aeronautical function on an airport Grant Assurance 39 relates to competitive access for air carriers. If an Airport Sponsor is already served by one air carrier and doesn't have existing facilities to accommodate a 2nd interested air carrier in establishing service, the Airport Sponsor - Has met its obligation if there are no existing facilities remaining to add another airline - Should report this to the Secretary of Transportation - Should work to accommodate the interested air carrier - can prohibit the new air carrier from operating at the airport - Answer- Should work to accommodate the interested air carrier Far Part 43, Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration provides pilots the ability to perform maintenance on any aircraft they own or operate, provided the plane is not used to conduct - Commercial flight operations - IFR flight operations - TTF flights - Flights with passengers other than the pilot - Answer- Commercial Flight Operations Airports must generate revenue in order to provide for the safe, secure and efficient transportation system that is expected by the public and the FAA. Revenue can be categorized as all of the following except - Capital - Aeronautical - Non-aeronautical - non-operating - Answer- Capital (T/F) Airport tenants do not expect to be charged more than it costs to cover the expenses associated with providing a safe, secure, and efficient airport operation. - Answer- True Which of the following is not an example of airport operating revenue - Passenger Facility Charges - Fuel flowage fees - Rental cars - Concessions - Answer- Passenger Facility Charges Utilizing airport revenue for purposes other than airport capital or operating costs is a violation of Grant Assurance 25 and is known as - Non-aeronautical subsidies - Posserory tax violation - Revenue diversion - Payments in Lieu of Taxes - Answer- Revenue diversion The Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 requires airports to be as self-sustaining as possible. Self-sustaining means - The airport has built up large revenue surpluses - The airport does not accept federal or state grant monies for capital projects - The airport fees are fair and reasonable - The airport relies only on its revenue streams for operational expenses - Answer- The airport relies only on its revenue streams for operational expenses The FAA's Rates and Charges Policy provides comprehensive guidance on the legal requirement that airport fees be (select all that apply) - Not unjustly discriminatory - Reasonable - Sweetheart deal - Fair - Answer- Not unjustly discriminatory, Reasonable, Fair Fair market fees for use of the airport are required for non-aeronautical use of the airport and are - Required for non-airfield aeronautical use - Optional for non-airfield aeronautical use - Answer- Optional for non-airfield aeronautical use The Airport Sponsor would not need to recieve Fair Market Value (FMV) if it leased property to which of the following - Corporation - Limited Liability Company - Angel Flights - Sole Propietorship - Answer- Angel Flights The residual method of rates and charges setting can best be described as - The airport applies excess non-aeronautical revenue to the airfield costs to reduce air carrier fees. - A hybrid between a compensatory and rate-based method - The airport is required to make sure the expenses do not exceed the revenue received - The airport assumes all liability for airport costs and retains all airport revenue and the user is charged only for the cost of the aeronautical facility - Answer- The airport applies excess non-aeronautical revenue to the airfield costs to reduce air carrier fees. (T/F) The FAA will not allow airport improvement program grant funding to be used for Value Engineered projects - Answer- False There are many IT systems at airports. All the systems below are examples of common IT systems at airports except - Airfield lighting - Flight information Displays - Majority-of-interest (MII) - Property and Asset Management Systems - Answer- Majority-of-interest (MII) Most will agree that a __________ year lease, is a life-time lease - 75 - 99 - 65 - 35 - Answer- 99 A current trend in airport concessions at medium to large-hub airports are the - Duty-free shops - Local Mom & Pop Shops - Self-serve coffee shops - Shopping center and/or brand-name concessions - Answer- Shopping center and/or brand-name concessions All of the following are common types of lease agreements except - Modified gross - Straight - Revaluation - Graduated - Percentage - Answer- Modified gross There are 3 basic approaches to leasing concession space. Under the standard approach, the airport management directly leases and manages the space. With this method - Does not benefit from larger share of revenues if successful - Assumes no risk - The airport assumes the risk and will benefit from a larger portion of the revenue if the concession is successful - Shares the risk equally with a development company - Answer- The airport assumes the risk and will benefit from a larger portion of the revenue if the concession is successful Airports are capital intensive facilities. Select all the most common ways airport sponsors can generate monies for capital projects - PFC's - Customer Facility Charges - Bonds - Bank operating loan - Answer- PFC's, Customer Facility Charges, Bonds Passenger Facility Charges are - Unlimited ticket taxes set by each airport - Levied on commercial airline tickets - Collected by the airport FBO - Collected by charter operators and remitted to the airport sponsors - Answer- Levied on commercial airline tickets A common activity on airport is "self-fueling". This process means the aircraft owner - Uses a fuel from renewable energy source - Operates an FBO - Does not have to pay the airport sponsor a fuel flowage fee _ Obtains and uses fuel from the source of his/her preference - Answer- Obtains and uses fuel from the source of his/her preference (T/F) FAA Airport Improvement Program Funding and Passenger Facility Charges were designed under the concept that the users of the aviation systems, as opposed to all citizens, would pay for the aviation transport systems. - Answer- True The AIP process is regulated under FAA order 5100-38C otherwise known as the Airport Improvement Program Handbook. Periodically the FAA will issue __________ to add or revise guidance about the administration of AIP related to the AIP Handbook. - Advisory Circulars (AC) - FARs - Program Guidance Letters (PGL) - Airport Directives (ADs) - Answer- Program Guidance Letters (PGL) The Law requires that AIP entitlement funds be apportioned by formula each year. The apportionment, depending on the type of airport, can be based upon all of the following except - Passenger enplanements - Aircraft operations - Fuel flowage - Amount of cargo - Answer- Fuel flowage The funds remaining after the entitlement apportionment are known as - Slush fund - Discretionary funds - Set-aside funds - Reliever funds - Answer- Discretionary funds (T/F) With the ADO being responsible for carrying out the grant process, it would be in the airport executive's best interest to have their local government lobby and influence the ADO federal employees. - Answer- False (T/F) PFC's have caused problems for bond rating companies because the legislation creating PFC's allowed the FAA to terminate PFC authorization under certain circumstances. - Answer- True Which of the following is an advantage to issuing General Obligation Bonds for financing airport capital improvements? - Typically issued at a lower interest rate than other types of bonds - Secured by the revenue generated by the indebted facility - Payment is backed by the full faith and credit of the airport lessee - Can be issued for up to 40 years - Answer- Typically issued at a lower interest rate than other types of bonds The Air Traffic Control (ATC) system in our industry is seeing significant changes due to the use of - Localizer - VORs - GPS - Glideslope - Answer- GPS (T/F) Planning is a critical component in maintaining the airport as a valuable community asset. Airport planning is performed at the national, state, regional and local levels of government and industry. - Answer- True The federal plan for airports provides the federal government perspective on the role of each public-use airport in the national air transportation system. This plan is known as the - National Master Plan - National Plan of Integrated Airport System - Federal Airport Improvement Program - State Aviation System Plan - Answer- National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems Which of the following are the primary areas of an airport (check all that apply) - Roadside - Landside - Terminal - Airside - Answer- Landside, Terminal, Airside Grant Assurance #29 (Airport Layout Plan) requires that the Airport Sponsor keep the Airport Layout Plan updated at all times. The primary functions of the ALP include all the following except - Blueprint for airport development - Necessary for the airport to receive AIP funding - Public document that serves as a record of aeronautical requirements - Depicts aviation forecast demands - Answer- Depicts aviation forecast demands (T/F) A standard Airport Layout Plan is comprised of one or two sketches. - Answer- False The ALP becomes a legal document after it is approved and signed by the - Transportation Security Administration - Airport Sponsor governing body - Federal Aviation Administration - State Department of Transportation - Answer- Federal Aviation Administration The FAA ADO office can make the following type of changes on the ALP if they are minor in scope. - Draft watermarked - Pen-and-Ink - Penciled in - Preliminary - Answer- Pen-and-Ink The FAA provides for which three levels of ALP approval (select all three) - Unqualified - Unconditional - Conditional - Mixed - Answer- Unconditional, Conditional, Mixed The FAA defines "near-term" as a project that is - Ripe for decision - Shovel-ready - Is designed with plans on the shelf - Ready within 1 year - Answer- Ripe for decision Airport sponsors keep pilots up-to-date on airport data and information using the following means (check all that apply) - 7460-1 - NPIAS - NOTAMs - Airport Facility Directory - Answer- NOTAMs, Airport Facility Directory The projects listed in the NPIAS fall into which three general categories of work. (Select all 3) - Physical Component - Purpose - Airspace - Type of work - Answer- Type of work, Physical Component, Purpose (T/F) The Airport Master Plan can set forth the direction of the airport for one to two decades. - Answer- True (T/F) An Airport Sponsor completed a Master Plan 6 years ago and has been following the program, including the capital improvement projects as outlined in the plan. A new opportunity emerged that is not in the Master Plan or on the approved ALP. The Sponsor should not be surprised when the project is not immediately eligible for AIP funding. - Answer- True The FAA _____________ the Forecast and Airport Layout Plan as p [Show Less]
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