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ASNT level 3 Basic Questions and answers latest 2023
ASNT NDT level 3 certification is a requirement of: CP-189. A currently valid ASNT NDT level 3 certificate indicates: that the certificate holder ... [Show More] has satisfied the basic and method exam requirements as set forth in SNT-TC-1A. ASNT NDT level 3 certification: makes an individual potentially eligible to become an employers level 3. The ASNT NDT level 3 basic exam covers all the following except: knowledge of international certification programs To recertify by application, an ASNT NDT level 3 must demonstrate continued NDT activity and level employment To be eligible to sit for the ASNT NDT level 3 exams a candidate with 2 years of passing grades in engineering or science study at a university or tech school must have 2 additional years of experience beyond the level 2 requirements in NDT in a assignment at least comparable to that of NDT level 2 in the applicable NDT methods. In accordance with ASNT CP-189(2011) an NDT level 3 must approve all questions to be used on exams for level 1 and 2 Which of the following is true regarding NDT level 3 examinations The exam administrator must hold a valid ASNt level III certification in the applicable test method When the near distance vision acuity examination is given using a Jaeger reading card it must be given In accordance with the procedure As required in ASNT CP - 189 level one practical examinations are intended to be Given by the employers level III The practical examination shell address the technical and practical competency of the exam knee when the following prepared NDT procedure for Levels one and two Which of the following is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-1A SNT-TC-1A is not to be used as a strict specification The SNT-TC-1A interpretation panel will respond to inquires about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry must be written and stated in general terms Which of the following statements is true SNT-TC-1A was first published in 1960s. With regards to the training of NDT personal, the employer may engage an outside service but is nevertheless responsible for the certification of the company's NDT personnel SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personal [Show Less]
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ASNT level III Vocab words questions and answers 100% correct
ACOUSTIC EMISSION Transient elastic waves resulting from local internal micro-displacements in a material ACOUSTIC EMISSION ACTIVITY Number of bur... [Show More] sts ( or events, if the approriate conditions are fulfilled) detected during test or part of test ACOUSTIC EMISSION EVENT Micro-structural displacement that produces elastic waves in a material under load or stress ACOUSTIC EMISSION TESTING ( AE ) Passive NDT method that monitors a component or assembly for transient elastic waves into electrical signals. Acoustic waves may be movement of micro-structural dislocations during crack propagation, melting, phase transformation or thermal stresses. ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE Frequency dependent property of a medium through which acoustic waves propagate in units of kg.s-1.m-2. in its simplest form, acoustic impedance is the product of longitudinal ultrasonic wave velocity and material density. RADIOGRAPHIC ACTIVATION the process by which neutrons bombard stable atoms and make them radioactive. RADIOGRAPHIC ACTIVITY Degree of radioactivity of a particular isotope. expressed as the number of atoms disintegrating per unit of time. AGING Heat treatment method that alter material properties and micro structures because of the duration of time at ambient or elevated tempature ALTERNATING CURRENT Electric current whose waveform changes cyclically in magnitude and direction ALTERNATING CURRENT MAGNETIZATION in mag-particle testing, a technique for inducing an active magnetic state by a cyclically reversing wave form, a state generally characterized by its form following ability and by shallow penetration. AMPERE SI unit of electric current ANISOTROPY Material characteristic in which different values of a property are noted in different directions ANNEALING process of heating a material to, and holding at, a desired temperature followed by cooling at a desired rate, usually to reduce residual stresses or bring about some other desired change. ANODE (1) in radiography, the positive electrode of a cathode ray tube that generates ionizing radiation. (2) positively charges terminal , which may corrode electrochemically during production of a electric current. A-SCAN one-dimensional display of ultrasonic echo amplitude as function of time or depth in test subject. ASNT American Society for Nondestructive Testing ATTENUATION (1) decrease in energy or signal magnitude in transmission form one point to another. (2) Decrease in intensity caused by absorption, leakage, reflection, scattering or other material characteristics. BECQUEREL (Bq) SI unit for measurement of radioactivity, equivalent to one disintegration per second BETA PARTICLE Electron or positron emitted from a nucleus during radioactive decay BOUNDARY ECHO Reflection of an ultrasonic wave for the interface BRAZING Joining of metals and alloys by fusion of nonferrous alloys that have a melting point above 806 F. but below melting points of materials being joined. BROAD BAND having a relatively wide frequency bandwidth. Used to describe pulses that display a wide frequency spectrum and receivers capable of amplifying them. B-SCAN two-dimensional view of a cross sectional plane through the test subject.the horizontal sweep is proportional to the distance along the test object and vertical sweep is proportional to depth, showing the front and back surfaces and discontinuities between. CANDELA SI unit for luminous intensity THERMAL CAPACITANCE Amount of heat that an object can store HEAT CAPACITY Ability of a material or structure to store heat. The denser the material generally will have higher heat capacity CAPILLARY ACTION Tendency of liquids to penetrate or migrate into small openings, such as cracks, pits. the positive force that causes movement of certain liquids along narrow or tight passages. CASTING DIE (1) casting used in a reusable metallic cavity (2) Casting process where molten metal is forced under high pressure into the cavity of a metal mold. INVESTMENT CASTING Casting metal into a mold produced by surrounding (investment : wax, plastic, frozen mercury) an expandable pattern with a refractory slurry that sets at room temp after which the "investment" is removed. CATHODE The negative electrode of an X-ray tube, the electrode from which electrons are emitted CEMENTITE hard brittle compound of iron and carbon known chemically as iron carbide and found in steels and cast irons. CENTRIFUGE TUBE Vial that holds liquids and has graduations to indicate the concentration of solids that settle out of a known suspension volume. CERTIFICATION written testimony that an individual has met the qualification requirements of a specific practice or standard. CHAPLET metal support used to hold a "core" in place on a mold. CHARGE COUPLE DEVICE (CCD) solid state image sensors. CHATTER in machining or grinding, vibration of tool, wheel or work piece producing a wavy surface on the work. CHILL metal insert embedded in the surface of a sand mold or core or placed in a mold cavity to increase the cooling rate at that point. CIRCUMFERENTIAL direction around the perimeter of a cylindrical surface. CODE standard enacted or enforced as a law COEFFICIENT OF THERMAL EXPANSION (CTE) rate of expansion or contraction per unit of length, volume or area per degree of temp change between specific lower or upper temp limits. COERCIVE FORCE reverse external magnetic field intensity required to reduce the test objects bulk magnetism to zero ABSOLUTE COIL a coil that response to the electromagnetic properties of that region of the test object within the magnetic field of the coil, without comparison to the response of a second coil at a different location on the same material. BOBBIN COIL cylindraically would absolute or differential probe useful for inspecting the inside diameter or tubular products. DIFFERENTIAL COIL two or more physically adjacent and mutually coupled coils connected in series opposition such that the imbalance between them causes a signal COLT SHUT (1) casting discontinuity caused by two streams of semimolten metal coming together withen a mold but failing to fuse. (2) a crack like discontinuity caused by forging, where two surfaces of metal fold against each other without joining. COLD WORKING permanent deformation produced by an external force in a metal below its recrystallization temp. COLLIMATOR in radiographic. A device for restricting the size, shape, and direction of the irradiating beam PENETRANT COMPARATOR (1) transparent plastic devise containing lines of known lengths used to evaluate indication dimensions. (2) An aluminum block with artificial cracks or special surface conditions to test different penetrants. CONDUCTANCE (1) in leak testing, the flow characteristics of a tube, manifold or leak path. (2) transmission of electric current through material CONDUCTION heat transfer occurring when more energetic particles collide with- and thus impart some of their heat energy to slower moving particles. THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY material property defining the relative ability to carry heat by conduction in a static temp gradient. differs in solids,liquids,vapors. it is high for metals and lower for gasses. CONTACT METHOD (ULTRASONIC TESTING) A ultrasonic transducer face makes direct contact with the test object through a thin film or couplant. CONTINUOUS CASTING manufacturing method in which ingot, billet, or tube is continuously solidified while being poured so that its length is not determined by mold dimensions. CORNER EFFECT (ULTRASONIC TESTING) strong reflection obtained when a ultrasonic beam is directed toward the intersection of two or more intersecting surfaces. COSINE LAW physical law stating that the illumination of a surface varies as the cosine of the incidence angle. Maximum illumination is obtained where the cosin equals one and when the source is perpendicular to the surface. COUPLED (1) two electric currents having an impedance in common so that a current in one causes a voltage in the other (2) two coils sharing parts of their magnetic flux paths COUPLING (ELECTROMAGNETIC TESTING) percentage of magnetic flux from a primary circuit that links a secondary circuit. effectiveness of a coil in inducing eddy currents in the test object. CRITICAL ANGLE (ULTRASONIC TESTING) incident angle of the ultrasonic beam where the refracted beam is parallel to the surface and above which a specific mode of refraction energy no longer exists. C-SCAN acoustic data displaying an image of two-dimensional test object with scaled grays or colors representing the ultrasonic signals. DEAD ZONE ( ULTRASONIC TESTING) interval following the initial pulse at the surface of a test object to the nearest inspection depth. any interval following a reflected signal where additional signals cannot be detected. NONAQUEOUS WET DEVELOPER fine particles suspended in a volatile solvent that assists bleedout by diluting the penetrant. SOLUBLE DEVELOPER fine particles completely soluble in its carrier that dries to form an absorptive coating. SUSPENDIBLE DEVELOPER fine particle suspended in water and that dries to an absorptive coating. Applied to the [part after removal of excess liquid penetrant and before drying. DIFFRACTION (ULTRASONIC TESTING) deflection of a wave front when passing the edge of an ultrasonically opaque object. DUCTILITY ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without fracture. DYNAMIC RANGE (ULTRASONIC TESTING) ratio of maximum to minimum reflective areas that can be distinguished on the display at a constant gain setting. EMULSIFIER liquid that mixes with a oily penetrant such that the mixture can then be washed away with water. HYDROPHILIC EMULSIFIER water based liquid that interacts with the liquid [Show Less]
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ASNT Level 3 Study Questions – Basic question and answer 2023
In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given frequency and in a given material because: a. the ... [Show More] wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the wavelength of longitudinal waves. b. shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the material. c. the direction of particle vibration for shear waves is more sensitive to discontinuities. d. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the wavelength of longitudinal waves. ... Common sources of neutrons for neutron radiography are: a. electron linear accelerators. b. isotopes of cobalt (e.g., Co-60). c. nuclear reactors. d. betatrons. ... Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-IA? a. SNT-TC-1A is intended for use by a limited set of industrial segments. b. SNT-TC-1A was generated to satisfy the specification requirements of ASME. c. SNT-TC-1A was last revised in 1988. d. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification. d. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification. The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to inquires about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry must be: a. written and stated in general terms. b. written including specific details of the case, e.g., names, places, dates, and other pertinent facts. c. considered by the ASNT Board of Directors if it involves decisions that would place ASNT in a position between buyer and seller. d. ruled upon the Technical and Education Council of ASNT befor the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel prepares a response. a. written and stated in general terms. Which of the following statements is true? a. ASNT has been providing certification examinations for Level III personnel since the late 1960s. b. SNT-TC-1A was first published in the late 1960s. c. SNT-TC-1A requires that Level III personnel be qualified and certified by ASNT. d. SNT-TC-1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnel qualification and certification set fourth in pats of the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code. b. SNT-TC-1A was first published in the late 1960s. With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer: a. must conduct all of the training on the premises. b. may engage an outside service who must conduct the training on the employers premises. c. should not conduct the training, being too close to the company's problems. d. may engage an outside service but is, nevertheless, responsible for the certification of the company's NDT personnel. d. may engage an outside service but is, nevertheless, responsible for the certification of the company's NDT personnel. SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers: a. to establish their own written practice that must be used as a strict specification. b. to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel. c. to define training, course requirements for contractors performing outside training services. d. who are corporate members of ASNT. b. to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel. The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A: "It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers, circumstances, and/or applications." What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate? a. The employer must change its operations to conform the guidelines. b. The employer must seek relief from ASNT for inappropriate applications. c. The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs. d. The employer shall submit an inquiry in writing directed to the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel. c. The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Certification is written testimony of qualification. b. Qualification is the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job. c. The employer is the corporate or private entity that employs personnel for wages or salary. d. A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT personnel. d. A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT personnel. Who should be responsible to assess whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified who does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates NDT? a. ASNT b. The individual's employer. c. A government regulatory agency. d. The customer's auditor. b. The individual's employer. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable? a. Visual testing b. Thermal/infrared testing c. Acoustic emission testing d. Holographic testing. d. Holographic testing. ASNT intended that the recommendation of SNT-TC-1A be applied: a. with flexibility and reason. b. precisely as written. c. as minimum requirements. d. as maximum requirements. a. with flexibility and reason. Of the following, which is most appropriate to determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel whose only NDT function is to operate digital thickness equipment? a. ASNT b. ASME c. The employer d. The customer c. The employer Certification is: a. the skill, training, and experience required for personnel to properly perform the duties of a specific job. b. written testimony of qualification. c. intended to be conferred by an organization independent from the employer. d. intended to be conferred by an organization hired by the employer. b. written testimony of qualification. Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when: a. the material being tested is for a U.S. Air Force contract. b. the material being tested is for a U.S. Navy contract. c. it has been specified by the customer. d. the material being tested is for a U.S. Army contract that requires certification of NDT personnel. c. it has been specified by the customer. The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT-TC-1A are: a. Trainee, Level I, Level II and Level III. b. Trainee, Apprentice, Level I, Level II, and Level III. c. Level I, Level II, and Level III. d. Level I, Level II, Level III, and Instructor. c. Level I, Level II, and Level III. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified? a. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified. b. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation. c. Only if required by industry codes, standards and specifications. d. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele. d. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele. According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true concerning a Trainee's activities? a. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently and may not report test results. b. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently, but may interpret test results if acting under written instructions. c. The Trainee should work along with a certified individual and my be considered a Level I, provided that the certified individual co-signs any test reports. d. Once the Trainee has worked along with a certified individual, the Trainee may then independently perform any activities as directed by the certified individual. a. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests independently and may not report test results. According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is not true for a Level III? a. Should be capable of assisting in establishment of acceptance criteria. b. Must train and examine the Level I and II personnel in his or her organization. c. Should be familiar with other commonly used NDT methods. d. Should be capable of establishing techniques and selecting of test methods. b. Must train and examine the Level I and II personnel in his or her organization. According to written instructions, an NDT Level I may be qualified to perform: a. specific calibrations. b. specific nondestructive tests. c. specific evaluations. d. all of the above, and record test results. d. all of the above, and record test results. May a Level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for results of nondestructive tests with supervision and guidance from a Level II or III? a. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instruction of a Level II or III. b. No, the Level I may perform the above functions in accordance with written procedures, but must be under constant supervision and guidance of a Level II or Level III. c. No, the Level I may not sign for test results. d. No, the Level I is not allowed to take any independent action. a. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instruction of a Level II or III. Which of the following statements is true concerning the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II, and III in SNT-TC-1A? a. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of level II. b. SNT-TC-1A was intended for use by employers to determine the proficiency of individuals at each level. c. Except for a provision for a Trainee, Levels I, II, and III may not be further subdivided. Level IIIs may not perform Level II functions unless they pass Level II examinations. d. A Trainee may perform all of the functions of a Level I if following written instructions. a. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of level II. [Show Less]
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ASNT Level 3 Basic Materials & Processes questions and answer 2023
Fracture is a type of material failure. Of the following which is another type of material failure? Permanent deformation. Which of the following s... [Show More] tatements best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity? Discontinuities can propagate and become defects. Nondestructive testing is often differentiated from other measurements or inspection techniques in that: NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of material. What are the functions of NDT? Identifying and sorting of material. Identifying of material properties. Ensuring absence of faults or defects that could cause a part to fail. An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures is: The need to ensure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not present when the component enters service. If properly used, NDT can assist in fracture control by: Providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material . A statement that a particular experiment produced a 0.9 probability of detection with a 95% confidence level means that: There is a 5% probability that the probability of detection is overstated. Most solid metals and plastics that have reasonable strength at room temperature are called: Engineering materials. Material properties, as used in design, are most frequently determined by: Materials testing. Even at the early stages of product planning, NDT should be considered because: The design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection. which of the following material properties are of most concern if corrosion resistance is essential? Chemical properties. Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum-based alloys and iron-based alloys? Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment. Tensile test are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy in order to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred to as: Destructive tests. A bar that is 2 in. long, 2 in. wide and 1 in. thick is subjected to a tensile load acting along the lenght of the bar of 36000 lbs. What is the tensle stress within the bar? 18000 psi. What is Point B on the Stress-Strain diagram where it first starts to curve? Elastic limit. Stress-Strain diagram, which of the following ranges indicates the affect of work hardening, to its maximum, caused by plastic flow of the material during a tensile load? Deformation rate to the ultimate strength On the Stress-Strain diagram, the points represented by E and F would be closer together if the material being tested were: Less ductile. The modules of elasticity, or Young's modules, is related to the material's relative: Stiffness and yield strength. Which of the following materials is typically considered when the application only requires high compressive strength? Cast iron. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by using NDT to: Detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers. Which of the following tests uses a pendulum to break a specimen that is notched and supported on both ends, with the results of measuring energy absorption? Charpy test. What is a S-N curve? An endurance limit curve diagram. Direct hardness test provide a measure of a material's ability to resist: Surface and near-surface penetration. Under ordinary usage, metals exist as: Crystalline solids. The term body-centered cubic BCC, face-centered cubic FCC and hexagonal close-packed HCP all refer to the: Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure. The process of returning ductility to cold-worked low-carbon steel is called: Recrystallization. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called: Work hardening. When used as in-process treatment, Re crystallization can: Improve ductility. Processes called austenitizing, annealing, normalizing and spheroidizing are: Approximate equilibrium heat-treatment process. The term"precipitation hardening" is often used interchangeably with the term: Age hardening. An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is: Eddy current. Spheroidizing and normalizing have the effect of: Increasing ductility. When a steel has been quench-hardened and then reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing brittleness, this is called: Tempering. Annealing is usually performed to: Release stress. Attacks on metals be direct chemical action and/or electrolysis are called: Corrosion. Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is under a loads is called: Stress corrosion. Which of the following does not help to prevent corrosion: Stress relieving. Factors of safety are often in the range of 2 to 4. These factors: Could be reduced with the assurance of NDT techniques that the material was free of discontinuities. The reduction of iron ore, by mixing with coke, limestone and oxygen for combustion of the coke, is accomplished in: A Blast furnace. In the iron and steel making process, the term pig iron refers to: A high carbon, low ductility metal produced in the blast furnace that can be used to make subsequent types of iron and steel. Which of the following techniques is often used to speed up the steel making process? Adding oxygen to the molten metal. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in: An electric furnace. What percentage of carbon is found in steel: Less than 2% By which of the following process is most of the world's steel produced: Basic oxygen. An undesirable byproduct of steel making processes is: Slag A steel with 40 points of carbon contains: 0.4 % carbon Corrosion resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are called Stainless steel Low carbon steel contains approximately: 0.06 to 0.25% carbon Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic; this means that: The material has a very low permeability. Which of the followingis an advantage of cast steel over wrought steels? Cast steels have more isotropic properties than wrought steel. Which of the following nonferrous metals is the most important structural material? Aluminum alloys Which of the following statements is true regarding the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys? Conductivity decreases at elevated temperatures. The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of hardening and strengthening: Can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some carbon steels. Which of the following metals has low strength, high corrosion resistance and is used largely in die casting operations? Zinc. Which of the following metals alloys has a density approximately two-thirds that of aluminum? Magnesium. Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin and a large percentage of: Copper. Monel and inconel are: Nickel alloys. Which of the following materials cannot typically be used in the as-cast state? Carbon A high-strength, low density corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine and chemical processing industries is: Titanium. Which of the following statements is true concerning plastics following their initial polymerization. Thermosetting plastics do not soften, but char and deteriorate when reheated. Based on the strength to weight ratio: Some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some metals. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality and cost of a product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following is true? Designer should seek input from NDT [Show Less]
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ASNT Study Guide - Industrial Radiography Radiation Safety correctly answered 2023
The Symbol R means: a. rem b. rad c. roentgen d. radiation c. roentgen The acronym rad means: a. radiation absorbed dose b. roentgen abso... [Show More] rbed dose c. roentgen acquired dose d. radiation at death a. radiation absorbed dose The roentgen (R) exposure is measured in: a. tissue b. water c. a lab d. air d. air The symbol mR means: a. milliroentgen b. microroentgen c. megaroentgen d. millirem a. milliroentgen One roentgen or 1 R is equal to: a. 100 milliroentgen b. 1000 milliroentgen c. 0.001 milliroentgen d. 1 milliroentgen b. 1000 milliroentgen The acronym rem stands for: a. radiation equivalent man b. radiation effect man c. roentgen effect man d. roentgen equivalent man d. roentgen equivalent man The initialism QF stands for: a. quantity factor b. quality frequency c. quality factor d. quality effective factor c. quality factor The quality factor for X-rays and gamma rays is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 20 a. 1 The quality factor for alpha (ray) particles is: a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 20 d. 20 Activity of radioactive material is measured in: a. curies b. roentgens c. sieverts d. grays a. curies Becquerels and curies are units of measurement of: a. physical size of the source b. gray per hour c. decay rate d. roentgen per hour c. decay rate Atoms that have excess energy and are unstable are known as: a. radioactive b. radioactivity c. balanced d. weighted a. radioactive Elementary particles units with a negative electrical charge and a mass approximately equal to 1/1840 that of a proton are: a. electrons b. protons c. neutrons d. valence shells a. electrons Positively charged elementary particles with a mass approximately equal to 1840 times that of an electron, or 1 AMU, are known as: a. electrons b. protons c. neutrons d. valence shells b. protons Uncharged elementary particles with a mass nearly equal to that of a proton are called: a. electrons b. protons c. neutrons d. valence shells c. neutrons The area known as the center of an atom is called the: a. electron b. nucleus c. proton d. neutron b. nucleus Any byproduct material that is encased in a capsule designed to prevent leakage or escape of the byproduct material is a: a. drum b. pig c. sealed source d. container c. sealed source A tube through which the radioactive source travels when inside a radiographic exposure device is a/an: a. port tube b. guide tube c. S tube d. exit tube c. S tube Survey meters must be calibrated at intervals not to exceed: a. three months and/or after instrument servicing except for battery changes b. six months and/or after instrument servicing except for battery changes c. annually and after instrument servicing except for battery changes d. daily and after instrument servicing except for battery changes b. six months and/or after instrument servicing except for battery changes A survey meter must be capable of measuring a range of: a. 0 to 1000 mR/h (0 to 10 mSv/h) b. 2 to 1000 R/h (0.02 to 10 Sv/h) c. 0 to 1000 R/h (0 to 10 Sv/h) d. 2 to 1000 mR/h (0.02 to 10 mSv/h) d. 2 to 1000 mR/h (0.02 to 10 mSv/h) Becquerels and curies are units of measurement of: a. physical size of the source b. activity c. gray per hour d. roentgen per hour b. activity An analog survey meter must be calibrated on each scale at two points approximately: a. 33% and 66% of the scale's potential b. 25% and 75% of the scale's potential c. through the full range of the scale's potential d. at the midpoint of the scale's potential a. 33% and 66% of the scale's potential The process that results in the removal of orbital electrons from atoms resulting in the formation of ion pairs is called: a. excitation b. radioactivity c. decay d. ionization d. ionization The fact that gases bombarded by ionizing radiation become conductors of electrical current make them useful in: a. X-ray transformers b. cathode tubes c. detection equipment d. gasses cannot conduct electrical charges c. detection equipment A dosimeter must be capable of reading a range of: a. 0-100 mR (0-1 mSv) b. 0-200 mR (0-2 mSv) c. 0-500 mR (0-5 mSv) d. 0-1 R (0-10 mSv) b. 0-200 mR (0-2 mSv) Pocket ion chambers must be capable of reading: a. 100 mR (1 mSv) b. 500 mR (5 mSv) c. 200 mR (2 mSv) d. 999 mR (9.99 mSv) c. 200 mR (2 mSv) An exposure rate is measured by: a. survey meter b. a dosimeter c. rate alarm d. TLD/film badge a. survey meter What dosimeters (dosimetric devices) are least affected by moisture? a. digital dosimeters b. film badges c. TLDs d. ion chambers c. TLDs Full deflection of a survey meter while on battery check means: a. meter is working properly and has good batteries b. meter may or may not be working properly c. meter is working properly and battery strength is not an issue d. meter is unusable b. meter may or may not be working properly Dosimeters must be calibrated at intervals not to exceed: a. three months b. six months c. biannually d. annually d. annually [Show Less]
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NDI UT Level 2 ASNT Test questions with complete solution 2023
Fresnel zone the interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the _____ Angle of Reflection in a test where the transd... [Show More] ucer is not perpendicular to the inspection surface, the angle of incidence is equal to _________ A Marker a separate time base line imposed on the viewing screen of some ultrasonic testing instruments that permits measurement of distances is often referred to as ________ Refraction the phenomenon whereby an ultrasonic wave changes direction when the wave crosses a boundary between materials with different velocities is called _________ Surface Waves another name for Rayleigh Waves is _____ Coaxial Cable the cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the search unit especially designed so that one conductor is centered inside another. the technical name for such cable is _______ Longitudinal Wave another name for compressional name is_______ Crystal the piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves is called a _______ Frequency and Crystal Size the amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on the __________ Refraction when an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel takes place in the second material due to ________ 25 MHz 25 million cycles per second can also be stated as ______ A Coarse-Grained Casting which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the greatest amount of sound attenuation over a given distance? Longitudinal Wave when the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a _________ Shear Wave when the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a ____________ Velocity a term used in ultrasonics to express the rate at which sound waves pass through various substances is _________ Vertical Level when a vertical indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be displayed or viewed on the CRT of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its _______ Elapsed Time or Distance in an A-scan presentation the horizontal base line represents _____ Laminar-Type Flaws with Major Dimensions Parallel to the Rolled Surface an ultrasonic test using straight beam contact search unit is being conducted through the thickness of a flat part such as a plate. this test should detect _______ 20 000 Hz sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred to as ultrasonic waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of frequency greater than approx. _________ The Material in which the Sound is Being Transmitted and the Mode of Vibration the velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on ________ Snell's Law The formula used to calculate the angle of refraction within a material is called _________ Decrease In a material with a given velocity when the frequency is increased the wave length will _______ Receiver-amplifier circuits Which circuits electronically amplify return signals from the receiving transducer and often modify the signals into a form suitable for display ______ An A-scan display What is the most common type of data display used for ultra-sonic examination of welds Receiver-amplifier which circuits modify the return signal from the receiving transducer into a form suitable for display on an oscilloscope or other output device pulser which circuit generates a burst of alternating voltage that is applied to the sending transducer A C-scan display A plan view display or recording of a part under examination is called A B-scan presentation Ultrasonic data which is presented in a form representative of the cross section of the test specimen is called A C-Scan presentation A type of data presentation most likely to be used with a high speed automatic scanning system is A bridge The component in a conventional immersion system that spans the width of the immersion tank is called Location and size (plan View) When a C-scan recording is used to produce a permanent record of an ultrasonic test the information displayed is typically the discontinuity's attenuation As the grain size increases in a material it's principal effect in ultra sonic testing is on the Decrease it In a straight beam pulse echo testing, a discontinuity with a rough reflecting surface perpendicular to the incident wave will have what effect on the detected signal in comparison to a smooth flat bottom hole of the same size Angulate the search unit What must be done to evaluate discontinuities that are oriented at an angle to the entry surface so that the sound beam will strike the plane of the discontinuity at right angles A RF display An A-scan CRT display which shows a signal both above and below the sweep line is called Are reflected from a sharp edge corner Surface (rayleigh) waves traveling on the top face of a block Material properties The velocity of sound in a material is dependent upon the Decrease (be shorter) If frequency is increased, the wave length will [Show Less]
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ASNT Level 1 UT questions correctly answered 2023
the back-surface reflection. 1. The indication on the instrument display that represents the far boundary of material being tested is called: angul... [Show More] ation. 2. In immersion testing, the position of the transducer is often varied by a manipulator to transmit sound into the test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to as: coaxial cable 3. The technical name for the cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the transducer is: calibration. 4. The process of standardizing an instrument or device by using a reference standard is called: longitudinal wave. 5. Another name for a compressional wave is: surface waves. 6. Another name for rayleigh waves is : a couplant. 7. A material used between the face of a transducer and the test surface to permit or improve the transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the transducer to the material being tested is called: crystal. 8. The piezoelectric material in a transducer that vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves is called a straight beam testing. 9. Ultrasonic testing of material where the probe is in direct contact with the material being tested may be: is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy 10. An advantage of using lithium sulfate in transducers is that it: 25 MHz transducer 12. The transducer that contains the thinnest piezoelectric crystal is a: 1 MHz 13. Penetration of ultrasonic waves in a material is normally the function of test frequency used. The greatest depth of penetration is provided by a frequency of frequency and crystal size. 14. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on the refraction. 15. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel takes place in the second material due to: two times 21. The velocity of longitudinal waves is approximately __________ the velocity of shear waves in the same material. 25 MHz 27. Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the best resolving power? A coarse-grained casting. 28. Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most like ly to produce the greatest amount of sound attenuation over a given distance? initial pulse. 29. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as the: coarse-grained material. 30. An ultrasonic instrument display pattern containing a large number of low-level indications (often referred to as grass or hash) could be caused by: through-transmission testing 31. A test method employing two separate transducers on opposite surfaces of the material being tested is called frequency 32. The number of complete waves that pass a given point in a given period of time (usually 1 s) is referred to as the an interface. 33. The boundary between two different materials that are in contact with each other is called: longitudinal wave. 34. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a: 25 MHz. 36. The "25 milion eycles per second" can be stated number as: scanning. 37. Moving a transducer over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred to as: velocity 38. A term sound waves pass through various substances is: used in ultrasonics to express the rate at which vertical limit. 39. When an indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be displayed or viewed on the display of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its: angle beam testing. 40. An ultrasonic testing technique in which the transducer element is not parallel to the test surface is called: 0.2 and 25 MHz 44. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies betweern: elapsed time or distance. 45. In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal baseline represents the amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the transducer 46. In an A-scan presentation, the amplitude of vertical indications on the display represents the: 1 MHz 47. Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration in a 305 mm (12 in.) thick specimen of coarse-grained steel? the high indication on the extreme left side of the display that represents the entry surface of the inspected part. 48. In a basic ultrasonic test pattern (A-scan) for contact testing (assuming no sweep delay is used), the initial pulse is: laminar-type discontinuities with major dimensions parallel to the rolled surface. 49. An ultrasonic test using a straight beam contact transducer is being conducted through the thickness of a flat part such as a plate. This test should detect: an air interface between the crystal surface and the part surface would almost completely reflect the ultrasonic vibrations 50. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the part surface is necessary because: discontinuities located just beneath the entry-surface in the part being tested. 51. Near-surface resolution is a characteristic of an ultrasonic testing system that defines its ability to detect: obtain a maximum response if the discontinuity is not originally oriented perpendicular to the ultrasonic beam. 52. During ultrasonic testing by the immersion method, it is frequently necessary to angulate the transducer when a discontinuity is located in order to: longitudinal wave. 53. All other factors being equal, the mode of vibration that has the greatest velocity is the: different in diameter, increasing by 0.4 mm (0.016 in.) increments from the No. 1 block to the No. 8 block. 54. On the area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottom holes in the blocks are: maximum reflection from the entry surface. 55. In immersion testing, verification that the transducer is normal to a flat entry surface is indicated by: convert a mechanical energy to electrical energy 56. A piezoelectric material can: 20000 Hz 57. Sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred to as ultrasonic waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of frequency greater than approximately material properties and wave type. 58. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on the obtain a common reproducible signal. 59. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to: cause both an attenuation of sound and indications on the screen. 60. When testing by the surface wave method, patches of oil or dirt on the surface may [Show Less]
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ASNT Level III Study Guide Basic question and answers 2023
Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-1A? SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification. The SN... [Show More] T-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to inquiries about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry must be: Written and stated in general terms With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer: May engage an outside service but is, nevertheless, responsible for the certification of the company's NDT personnel SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers: To establish their own written practice that must be used as a strict specification. The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A "It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers; circumstances and / or applications." What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate? The employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them as necessary to meet its particular needs. Who should be responsible to assess whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified who does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates NDT? The individual's employer. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable Holographic testing ASNT intended that the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A be applied With flexibility and reason Of the following, which is most appropriate to determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel whose only NDT function is to operate digital thickness equipment. The employer. Certification is Written testimony of qualification. Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when: It has been specified by the customer. The basic levels of qualification recommended by SNT-TC-1A are: Level I, II, III. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment to qualified and certified Weather any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele. According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A which of the following is true concerning a Trainee's activities? The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive test independently and may not report test results According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is not true for a Level III? Must train and examine the Level I and II personnel in his or her organization. According to written instructions, an NDT Level I may be qualified to perform: Specific calibrations, Specific nondestructive test, specific evaluations, and write reports of test results. May a Level I independently perform, evaluate and sign for results of nondestructive test with supervision and guidance from a Level II or III? Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instruction of a Level III or designee. Which of the following statements is true concerning the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II and III in SNT-TC-1A? The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of Level II. Which of the following is not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in SNT-TC-1A? Establish techniques [Show Less]
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