Bundle
APEA TEST EXAM COMPILATION BUNDLE 2023
10 Items
APEA Cardiac Questions and Answers 2023
A common side effect of thiazide diuretics is: erectile dysfunction Mrs. Brandy is having contrast dye nest week for a heart catheterization. What ... [Show More] drug does NOT need to be stopped prior to her catheterization? Losartan Pharmacologic treatment for children who have hypertension should be initiated for: Diabetics with hypertension A 75-year-old patient with longstanding hypertension takes an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide daily. He has developed dyspnea on exertion and peripheral edema over the past several days. This probably indicates: Development of heart failure Which class of medication is frequently used to improve long-term outcomes in patients with systolic dysfunction ACE inhibitors The usual clinical course of mitral valve prolapse is benign A characteristic of an ACE inhibitor induced cough is that it: usually begins within 2 weeks of starting therapy Warfarin treatment is greatly influenced by a patient's food and medication intake. Which group listed can potentially decrease INR in an outpatient who takes warfarin Sucralfate and cholestyramine A 77-year-old patient has had an increase in blood pressure since the last exam. THe blood pressure readings are provided. If medication is to be started on this patient, what would be a good first choice: BP: 144/90 to 168/88 Calcium channel blocker The carotid arteries are auscultated for bruits because: this is indicative of generalized atherosclerosis A decrease in blood pressure can occur in men who take sildenafil (Viagra) and: any antihypertensive medication A 74-year-old who retired as a store clerk last year would like to start an exercise program. She tells the nurse practitioner that she would like to start walking 15-20 min daily. Which statement is correct regarding the patient She does not need any testing because she is asymptomatic Which medication listed below could potentially exacerbate heart failure in a susceptible patient Metoprolol Mr. Brown a 45-year old African American male has the following lab values. What should the NP do next: LDL 180 HDL 37 Cholesterol 250 Triglycerides 140 A thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level According to the national heart, lung and blood institute, which characteristic listed below is a coronary heard disease risk equivalent; that is, which risk factor places the patient at a CHD risk similar to a history of CHD Diabetes mellitus An otherwise healthy two-year-old presents with a heart rate that varies with inspiration and expiration. Which statement is true This is a normal exam A medication that may produce exercise intolerance in a patient who has hypertension is: metoprolol Three of the following medications warrant monitoring of potassium levels. Which one does NOT Amlodipine A patient will be screened for hyperlipidemia via a serum specimen. He should be told: to fast for 12-14 hours A patient is taking an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) should avoid potassium supplements Many factors can contribute to the risk of congenital heart disease. Which maternal disease carries a higher risk of TGA, VSD, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy diabetes A congenital heart abnormality often discovered during the newborn period is coarctation of the aorta. How is this assessed by comparing upper and lower extremity blood pressures Screening for AAA should take place once for all males aged 65-75 who have ever smoked Which item below represents the best choice of antihypertensive agents for the indicated patient Lisinopril in a 35-year-old Caucasian male The most common indicator of end-organ damage in adolescents with hypertension is left ventricular hypertrophy At what age should initial blood pressure screening take place 3 years old The diagnosis of mitral valve prolapse can be confirmed by echocardiography A 75-year-old has isolated systolic hypertension. She started on amlodipine 4 weeks ago. She states that since then, she has developed urinary incontinence. What is the NP's assessment it is probably related to amlodipine A patient who had diabetes presents with pain in his lower legs when he walks and pain resolution with rest. When specifically asked about the pain in his lower leg, he likely will report pain: in the calf muscle [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.95
- 0
- 139
APEA Endo Questions and Answers 2023
When patients administer regular insulin (Humulin R U-500), they should be taught: 10 units of Humulin R U-500 is equal to 10 units on a U-500 insulin syr... [Show More] inge. Radioiodine therapy is safe to administer to: A 30-year-old man who desires natural fatherhood-used to tx hyperthyroidism and does not cause infantility or birth defects in the offspring of tx'd pts A pt who has Addison's disease has received a prescription for fludrocortisone. Fludrocortisone acts by: Regulating salt and water balance-mineralocorticoid indicated as partial replacement therapy for pts with primary or 2ndary adrenocortical insufficiency Methimazole for the tx of Graves' disease is contraindicated in pts: Who are pregnant-can cause fetal harm when administered, can readily cross the placental membranes Which of the following medications may cause gynecomastia? Enalapril (Vasotec)-ACE inhibitors may cause gynecomastia A pt is started on a sulfonylurea (i.e. glyburide). The NP informs the pt that sulfonylureas are likely to: Reduce microvascular events-also low in cost Disadvantages-produce hypoglycemia and cause weight gain Thiazolidinedione (TZD) medications: Increase insulin sensitivity-by acting on adipose, muscle & liver to increase glucose utilization and decrease glucose production Pts taking dipeptidyl-peptidase-4 (DDP-IV) inhibitors for the tx of T2DM do NOT routinely need to be monitored for: Weight loss-Januvia, Onglyza, Tradjenta not likely to cause weight loss or weight gain The expected hemoglobin A1V reduction for pts who are started on dipeptidyl-peptidase-4 (DDP-IV) inhibitors such as sitagliptin (Januvia) is: 0.6% DDP-IV inhibitors such as alogliptin (Nesina): Suppress glucagon secretion and increase insulin secretion Sulfonylurea-stimulate the release of insulin from functioning beta cells Biguanides-decrease hepatic glucose production, decrease intestinal absorption of glucose, and improve insulin sensitivity Prior to the admin of methimazole (Tapazole) the NP should obtain a baseline: CBC-tx for hyperthyroidism, CBC & liver profile should be obtained A pt is started on exenatide (Byetta) for T2DM. Byetta should be d/c'd if the pt exhibits: Persistent abd pain, radiating to the back-monitored for sx of acute pancreatitis Sulfonylureas such as glyburide (Micronase) are extensively metabolized: In the liver-primarily by CYP 450 A 48-year-old pt is started on metformin (Glucophage) for T2DM. The maximum expected hemoglobin A1C reduction after initiation of this medication is: 2%- usual expected decrease in A1C is 1-2% Insulins recommended for use in insulin pump delivery systems include: Apidra & Humalog-only rapid acting insulins are safe for continuous IV use The generic name for Victoza is: Liraglutide-GLP-1 agonists A pt who is started on a glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1), such as Victoza, should be informed that this class of medications may: Increase satiety-delay gastric emptying & promote weight loss Pts who are receiving radioiodine therapy for hyperthyroidism should be advised to: Avoid contact with young children for several days-radiation emits from the body avoid kids & pregnant women Pts taking thiazolidinedione (TZD) medications should be monitored for: Fluid retention & weight gain-may precipitate or exacerbate HF in some pts by causing dose-related fluid retention Levothyroxine use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy: May require an increase in dose-due to alterations of endogenous maternal thyroid hormones Exenatide (Byetta) is classified as: GLP-1 Gynecomastia is NOT likely to be caused by: Clonazepam Ketoconazole, finasteride, spiro, lavender/tea tree oil may cause this Pt receiving insulin detemir (Levemir) are at higher risk for developing: Hypokalemia-causes a shift in K+ from the extracellular space to the intracellular space The mechanism of action by which metformin (Glucophage) improves glucose tolerance is: Decreased intestinal absorption of glucose-also improves insulin sensitivity by increasing peripheral glucose uptake and utilization Due to the mechanism of action of meglitinides used in the tx of T2DM, they should by administered: at meal time-should be admin within 30 mins of a meal or at meal time 2-4 times daily Victoza (liraglutide), a GLP-1 for the tx of T2DM, may potentially decrease effectiveness of: Oral contraceptives-delay absorption of orally absorbed medications Metformin (Glucophage) is a: Biguanide The combination of metformin (Glucophage) and glyburide (Diabeta) for the tx of T2DM is: highly efficacious with a moderate risk of hypoglycemia A pt is receiving a fast-acting insulin to decrease post-prandial blood sugars. If the bedtime blood sugar is elevated, the pt should be advised to increase the fast-acting insulin dose at: Dinner-onset of rapid acting is 15 mins Which of the following is a rapid-acting insulin? Aspart (Novolog) Pts should be advised to take glimepiride (Amaryl): In the morning with breakfast-or 1st meal of the day, long acting sulfonylurea Which statement about metformin (Glucophage) is correct? It should be temporarily discontinued for radiologic studies with iodinated contrast-may result in acute alteration of kidney function Insulin glargine (Lantus) is NOT indicated in the tx of: Pediatric pts with T2DM Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors reduce blood glucose by: Increasing urinary glucose excretion Pioglitazone hydrochloride (Actos) is contraindicated in pts with: heart failure-can cause dose-related fluid retention Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors such as acarbose (Precose) are contraindicated in pts with: Inflammatory bowel disorders-delays absorption of carbs following a meal [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.95
- 0
- 131
APEA 3P EXAM Prep Neuro Questions and Answers 2023
A patient who is 82 years old is brought into the clinic. His wife states that he was working in his garden today and became disoriented and had slurred sp... [Show More] eech. She helped him back into the house, gave him cool fluids, and within 15 minutes his symptoms resolved. He appears in his usual state of health when he is examined. He states that although he was scared by the event, he feels fine now. How should the nurse practitioner proceed? Prescribe an aspirin daily. Re-examine him tomorrow. Send him to the emergency department. Order an EKG. This patient likely suffered a transient ischemic attack. He needs urgent evaluation with head CT and/or MRI, ECG, lab work (CBC, PTT, lytes, creatinine, glucose, lipids and sedimentation rate); possible magnetic resonance angiography, carotid ultrasound, and/or transcranial Doppler ultrasonography. He is at increased risk of stroke within the first 48 hours after an event like this one. On initial evaluation, the most important determination to be made is whether the etiology of the stroke or TIA is ischemic or hemorrhagic. After this determination, treatment can begin. Unfortunately, this determination cannot be made in the clinic. The patient needs urgent referral to a center where this evaluation and possible treatment can be performed. The most common presenting sign of Parkinson’s disease is: muscular rigidity. tremor. falling. bradykinesia. Approximately 70% of patients with Parkinson’s disease have tremor as the presenting symptom. The tremor typically involves the hand but can involve the legs, jaw, lips, tongue. It seldom involves the head. Muscular rigidity and bradykinesia are two less common presenting signs. When should medications be initiated in a patient who is diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease? As soon as the disease is diagnosed When symptoms interfere with life’s activities When nonpharmacologic measures have been exhausted After MRI and CT have ruled out stroke or tumor The medications used to treat patients who have Parkinson’s disease do not prevent the progression of the disease. Therefore, it is not necessary to start medications until symptoms interfere with the patient's quality of life. Levodopa is often used initially at the lowest dose that helps a patient manage symptoms. It can be titrated upward as needed. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of levodopa, so blood pressure should be monitored closely. A 72-year-old patient with history of polymyalgia rheumatica complains of new onset, unilateral headache and visual changes. Her neurologic exam is otherwise normal. Her CT results are WNL. ESR is 75 (Normal: 0-29). VS: BP 140/82, HR 67, RR 18, T 100. What is the most likely reason for her symptoms? Transient ischemic attack Temporal arteritis Meningitis CVA Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a chronic inflammatory condition that produces morning stiffness in the neck, shoulders, and hips. Its peak incidence is 70-80 years old. PMR is commonly associated with temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. Temporal arteritis is a chronic vasculitis of the medium and large vessels. Temporal arteritis is characterized by new onset unilateral temporal headache, abrupt onset of visual disturbances, elevated sedimentation rate, jaw claudication, and unexplained fever. This is best diagnosed by temporal artery biopsy. She should be referred to neurology for evaluation today. What recommendation should be made to an older adult who is diagnosed with mild dementia? Driving will probably not increase your risk of an accident. The healthcare provider should recommend that the patient stop driving today. The healthcare provider should recommend assessment of driving to determine risk of an accident. The patient may continue to drive as long as he feels comfortable. Dementia independently increases the risk of motor vehicle accidents if the patient drives. The healthcare provider should discuss this with the patient and a family member if a family member is present during the older adult’s evaluation. Depending on the degree of impairment, the healthcare provider could recommend stopping driving, or recommend that an assessment be done. The assessment is usually completed by either an occupational or physical therapist or someone trained to assess this. A person with 20/60 vision: is legally blind. will have difficulty reading a newspaper. will be unable to see the big “E” on the eye chart. has better vision than someone with 20/80 vision. Using the Snellen nomenclature for describing visual acuity (example 20/80), the first number represents the test distance. In most cases this is 20 feet. The second number represents the distance at which the average eye can see the letters on a specific line of the chart. In other words, the examinee can see at 20 feet what an average eye (20/20) can see at 80 feet. 20/80 is a measure of distant vision, not near vision such as reading a newspaper. The big “E” represents 20/200 vision. 20/200 is considered legally blind by most standards. A patient reports a history of transient ischemic attack (TIA) 6 months ago. His daily medications are lisinopril, pravastatin, and metformin. After advising him to quit smoking, what intervention is most important in helping to prevent stroke in him? Auscultation of carotid arteries at each visit Taking low dose aspirin daily Assessing hemoglobin A1C every 3-6 months Encouraging smoking cessation at each visit Antiplatelet therapy, usually aspirin, inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase and reduces thromboxane A2 production, which stimulates platelet aggregation. Thus, risk of ischemic stroke is reduced. The dosage of aspirin needed to prevent an event is debatable. Most studies found that 75-150 mg daily was as effective in preventing stroke as was higher doses. Lower doses of aspirin are associated with less GI toxicity and fewer side effects. A 75-year-old is diagnosed with essential tremor. What is the most commonly used medication to treat this? Carbidopa Long-acting propanolol Phenobarbital Gabapentin Tremor is the most common of all movement disorders and essential tremor is the most common cause of all tremors. It is characterized by rhythmic movement of a body part, commonly the hands or head. Beta blockers are the most commonly used medication class to treat essential tremor. Propanolol is the most commonly used medication, but other beta blocking agents are used as well. Both gabapentin and phenobarbital are used, but, not nearly as often. Carbidopa is used in patients with Parkinson’s disease. A patient who had an embolic stroke has recovered and is performing all of her activities of daily living. Taking aspirin for stroke prevention is an example of: primary prevention. secondary prevention. tertiary prevention. quaternary prevention. The patient is taking aspirin to prevent recurrent stroke. Research demonstrates that taking an aspirin daily can significantly reduce the risk of subsequent strokes and MI. Secondary prevention means that the intervention is performed to prevent another occurrence of the deleterious event. If she had never had a stroke but took aspirin daily for prevention of stroke, that would be primary prevention. Taking aspirin at home during the course of having an MI is an example of tertiary prevention. There is no reference in the literature to quaternary prevention. An older adult patient with organic brain syndrome is at increased risk of abuse because she: lives in a nursing home. has multiple caregivers. is incontinent of stool and urine. has declining cognitive function. Older adults are at increased risk of abuse because of their decline in cognitive function. Caregiver strain, stress, and depression occur at higher rates than in the general population. According to the National Center of Elder Abuse, family members are likely to be abusers of infirm older adults. Healthcare providers should remain alert to signs of abuse and caregiver stress. A patient with migraine headaches and hypertension should receive which medication class with caution? Beta blockers Triptans Pain medications ACE inhibitors The class of medications called “triptans” work to eradicate migraine headaches by producing vasoconstriction. This can produce a potentially serious drug-disease interaction in patients with hypertension. An episode of severe hypertension can result. Triptans may be used in patients with well-controlled hypertension, but a hypertensive episode is always possible. A patient who is 60 years old complains of low back pain for the last 5-6 weeks. She states that the severity is about 4/10 and that she gets no relief from sitting, standing, or lying. The NP should consider: sciatica. ankylosing spondylitis. disk disease. systemic illness. Systemic illness, like cancer or infection, is a serious consideration when patients report no relief of pain with position change. Additionally, this patient is female, older, and has had pain longer than 4 weeks. These are three risk factors for systemic cause of low back pain. Sciatica presents with pain that radiates down the leg. Ankylosing spondylitis is typical in males in their 40s and produces pain at nighttime that is improved with being upright. Disk disease is a consideration, but, an absence of relief with lying down is unusual. A patient complains of severe right-sided facial pain. She states that her symptoms have worsened over the past 48 hours. Which diagnosis below is NOT part of the differential diagnosis? Bell’s palsy Trigeminal neuralgia Tooth abscess Shingles Bell’s palsy does not produce pain. It usually produces symptoms over several hours. Common symptoms include sagging eyebrow, an impaired eye blink or the inability to blink the eye on the affected side, and mouth drawn up on the affected side. The facial nerve, Cranial Nerve VII, is affected in patients who present with Bell’s palsy. Trigeminal neuralgia (TN) is a common cause of facial pain characterized by paroxysmal electric shock like pains. TN involves the Cranial Nerve V (trigeminal nerve). A patient has developed loss of hearing over the past several weeks. His otoscopic exam is normal. What cranial nerve should be assessed? Cranial Nerve III Cranial Nerve V Cranial Nerve VIII Cranial Nerve X Cranial Nerve (CN) VIII is the CN responsible for hearing. When assessing CN VIII, each ear should be assessed individually. The Weber and Rinne tests can be used to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. A 68-year-old smoker with a history of well-controlled hypertension describes an event that occurred yesterday while mowing his lawn. He felt very dizzy and "passed out" for less than 1 minute. He awakened spontaneously. Today, he has no complaints and states that he feels fine. Initially, the NP should: perform a complete neurological and cardiac exam with auscultation of the carotid arteries. order a 12-lead ECG and carotid ultrasound, and perform a physical exam. order a CT of the brain, blood clotting studies, and cardiac enzymes. check blood pressure in three positions, order a 12-lead ECG, and schedule an exercise stress test. The event described is syncope. Syncope is a brief and sudden loss of consciousness that occurs with spontaneous recovery. This is a significant event but it is especially so in a smoker with hypertension. The assessment of this patient must start with an examination of the cardiac and neurological systems. Based on the findings and tentative diagnosis of syncope, coupled with the patient’s history of the event, other tests might be ordered to evaluate arrhythmias, stroke, transient ischemic attack, myocardial infarct, carotid stenosis, other vascular etiologies. A referral to specialty care is indicated after initial workup by the nurse practitioner. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $16.45
- 0
- 85
Peds (APEA) Questions and Answers 2023
Hep A immunization schedule First dose at 1 year, second dose after 6 months Hep B immunization schedule 3 doses: 0, 1-2 months, 6-18 months after... [Show More] 1st You are caring for a newborn whose mother is known to be HBsAg (+). How should this be handled? Administer Hep B vaccine and Hep B immunoglobulin within 12 hrs of birth How many doses are in the DTaP series? 5 Tdap in pregnancy 1 dose of tdap during each pregnancy, preferably at 27-36 wks PCV vaccine amount 4 doses Fever or rash after receiving a live attenuated immunization indicates? Reaction to a viral replication, not the vaccine Examples of live attenudated vaccines MMR Varicella MMR and varicella immunization schedule At 12 months (can be on the same day), then must wait one month for second Earliest age to receive flu vaccine >6 months A mother reports that her one year old child has an allergy to eggs that produces hives. How should this be handled? Influenza vaccine should be given Is it ok to give influenza to a patient who has experienced an allergic reaction and signs of angioedema, respiratory distress? Yes, under the supervision of a HCP who can manage severe allergic reactions A 15 year old patient who is sexually active is in your clinic to receive her first HPV vaccine. How should the NP handle this? Administer today without checking pregnancy status CDC recommends monitoring a child after immunization for: 15 mins When is diabetes usually diagnosed in kids? During puberty Managing ADHD preschool v. school-age Preschool: behavioral School-age: stimulant medication At what age are meds considered first line for kids with ADHD? 6 years old Is PNA in kids usually viral or bacterial? Viral What is the most sensitive sign of PNA in kids? Increased RR Preferred treatment for kids diagnosed with PNA? Amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day in divided doses Biggest symptom found in kids with bronchiolitis? Paroxysmal wheezing Symptoms of croup Inspiratory stridor Barking cough Hoarseness Med for croup Single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.6 mg/kg) Two systems affected by cystic fibrosis Pulmonary & GI How to test for cystic fibrosis Sweat test Symptom associated with cystic fibrosis Thick mucous with productive cough Lead toxicity masqueredes as... iron deficiency anemia What is an abnormally high billirubin for an infant? > 25 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.45
- 0
- 127
APEA 3P Exam Prep- Cardiovascular Questions and Answers 2023
Which patient could be expected to have the highest systolic blood pressure? A 21-year-old male A 50-year-old perimenopausal female A 35-year-old ... [Show More] patient with Type 2 diabetes A 75-year-old male D. Nearly 25% of the US population has hypertension. The greatest incidence is in older adults because of changes in the intima of vessels as aging and calcium deposition occur. Males of any age are more likely to be hypertensive than females of the same age. African American adults have the highest incidence in the general population. Among adolescents, African Americans and Hispanics have the highest rates. Hypertension occurs in 5-10% of pregnancies. Mrs. Brandy is having contrast dye next week for a heart catheterization. What drug does NOT need to be stopped prior to her catheterization? Naproxen Furosemide Metformin Losartan D. Naproxen and furosemide should be stopped for 24 hours prior to the catheterization. Metformin should be stopped 48 hours prior to the catheterization. Furosemide is stopped because it contributes to volume depletion. NSAIDs like naproxen are withheld because of the impact on renal prostaglandin production. Metformin has been implicated in lactic acidosis when combined with contrast dye in an impaired kidney. In older adults, the three most common ailments are: hearing loss, vision loss, hypertension. hearing loss, hypertension, arthritis. depression, vision loss, hypertension. arthritis, hearing loss, depression. B. Hypertension and arthritis are the two most common ailments in older adults. Hearing loss occurs in half to almost 2/3 of older adults. The most common form is known as presbycusis. There is no consensus for the frequency of screening for hearing loss in older patients, but minimally, it should be grossly evaluated at each visit and screened more thoroughly if deficits are observed. Blood pressure should be screened annually, but it is usually screened at each visit. Arthritis is not routinely screened. Mr. Holbrook, a 75-year-old male, is a former smoker with a 30-pack-year history. He has come in today for an annual exam. He walks daily for 25 minutes, has had intentional weight loss, and has a near-normal BMI. On examination, the patient is noted to have an absence of hair growth on his lower legs. Which statement is true regarding this patient? This is a normal consequence of aging. This might indicate disease in the lower extremities. It might be from exercise initiation. This is secondary to long-term smoking. B. An absence of hair growth likely indicates peripheral artery disease in this patient. It is part of normal changes of aging that hair growth will diminish, but not become absent. His lower extremity pulses should be assessed, his cardiac risk factors should be assessed (he smoked for years), and he should be questioned about leg pain when he walks. An ankle-brachial index could be measured. If < 0.9, further assessment should be done. A normal ankle-brachial index should be greater than 0.9. Less than 0.4 is considered critical. The usual clinical course of mitral valve prolapse: is benign. results in sudden cardiac death. results in chronic heart failure. is associated with multiple episodes of emboli. A. The usual course of mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is benign, and most patients who have MVP are asymptomatic. A murmur may be present and is best auscultated with the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the cardiac apex. In a minority of patients, symptoms of heart failure or sudden death may occur. When heart failure results, it is usually a result of mitral regurgitation. Embolization may occur, but, this is not common or usual in the majority of patients. An ACE inhibitor is specifically indicated in patients who have: hypertension, diabetes with proteinuria, and heart failure. diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia. asthma, hypertension, diabetes. renal nephropathy, heart failure, hyperlipidemia. A. ACE inhibitors have numerous indications. Three are indicated in the first choice. ACE inhibitors are also indicated in patients who have renal insufficiency. However, ACE inhibitors can worsen renal insufficiency, so the patients must be monitored closely with lab tests for BUN, Cr, and potassium. Diabetes without proteinuria is not a specific indication for ACE inhibitors use, though they are used by some healthcare providers in this way. This is an off-label use. An older adult who has hypertension and angina takes multiple medications. Which one of the following decreases the likelihood of his having angina? ACE inhibitor Beta blocker Diuretic Angiotensin receptor blocker B. The beta blocker slows down heart rate, depresses myocardial contractility, and decreases sympathetic stimulation. These decrease myocardial oxygen demand and improve angina symptoms. It is an excellent drug class to use to prevent symptoms of angina in patients who have underlying coronary artery disease. Calcium channel blockers are another class of medications that could be used to improve symptoms of angina. Orthostatic hypotension can be diagnosed in an older adult if the systolic blood pressure decreases: more than 20 points anytime after rising. more than 20 points within 3 minutes after rising. more than 20 points within 1 minute after rising. any degree drop if the patient becomes weak or dizzy. B. Orthostatic hypotension, also called postural hypotension, is diagnosed in older adults when the systolic blood pressure drops 20 mm Hg or more within 3 minutes of moving to a more upright position. Systolic blood pressure can be expected to decrease within one minute of moving to an upright position. Normally, the blood pressure returns to baseline within one minute of a position change and orthostatic hypotension does not occur. It is always abnormal when blood pressure decreases beyond one minute of moving to an upright position. Orthostatic hypotension can then be diagnosed. Moving to an upright position may be 1) lying to sitting or 2) sitting to standing. Additionally, if the systolic blood pressure does not meet these criteria, but the diastolic drops by 10 mm Hg or more with a position change, orthostatic hypotension can be diagnosed. Patients become symptomatic when this occurs and often report lightheadedness, weakness, dizziness, blurred vision, or decreased hearing. Which hypertensive patient is most likely to have adverse blood pressure effects from excessive sodium consumption? 21-year-old Asian American male 35-year-old menstruating female 55-year-old post menopausal female 70-year-old African American male D. Two groups of patients typically experience adverse blood pressure effects from consumption of sodium greater than 2,000 mg daily. Those patients considered to be most sodium-sensitive are elderly patients and African American patients. Thus, choice d is the best choice listed. A patient who takes HCTZ 25 mg daily has complaints of muscle cramps. He probably has: hypocalcemia. hypomagnesemia. hypokalemia. hypercalcemia. C. HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic that is potassium-wasting. Patients can become hypokalemic and experience side effects of this. A common one is muscle cramps. A 25-year-old patient has aortic stenosis (AS). The etiology of his AS is probably: congenital. rheumatic. acquired calcific. unknown. A. In someone younger than 65 years, the most likely cause is congenital. The aortic valve usually consists of three cusps, but some people are born with a bicuspid aortic valve. Rheumatic heart disease is the second most common cause of aortic stenosis in this age group, but the incidence has decreased drastically in the last many decades because of the use of antibiotics to treat Streptococcal infections. In more than 90% of patients older than 65 years, acquired calcifications appear on a normal aortic valve and produce aortic stenosis. A 75-year-old patient with longstanding hypertension takes an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic daily. He has developed dyspnea on exertion and peripheral edema over the past several days. This probably indicates: worsening hypertension. development of heart failure (HF). noncompliance with medication. acute myocardial infarction. B. The symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and peripheral edema are symptoms of HF. Long standing hypertension is a risk factor for HF. Acute myocardial infarction would result in acute symptoms, not development of symptoms over the past several days. Noncompliance with medication and fluid or sodium excess might result in peripheral edema and development of heart failure. A patient with newly diagnosed heart failure has started fosinopril in the last few days. She has developed a cough. What clinical finding can help distinguish the etiology of the cough as heart failure and not related to fosinopril? It is dry and nonproductive. It is wet and worse with recumbence. It is purulent and tachycardia accompanies it. Shortness of breath always results after coughing. B. The cough associated with fosinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is a dry, nonproductive cough that may be described as annoying. Its severity does not change with position or time of day. A cough associated with heart failure is wet, worse when lying down, and is usually described by patients as worse at night. Choice c is often associated with fever and probably reflects an infectious process like pneumonia. Which choice below would be the best choice for an 80-year-old patient whose blood pressure is 172/72 mm Hg? Chlorthalidone Amlodipine Monopril Acebutolol B. This patient has isolated systolic hypertension. According to many learned authorities, this is best treated with a long-acting calcium channel blocker, particularly the ones that end in "pine." These belong to the class of calcium channel blockers termed dihydropyridines. Thiazide diuretics are not potent enough to decrease this patient's blood pressure into normal range, and its effect is not additive when combined with calcium channel blockers. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.95
- 0
- 107
Hematology (APEA) Questions and Answers 2023
Anemia is defined as reduction in one or more RBC measurements: RBC count Hgb Hct Lab value to look at size of RBC MCV Lab value to look ... [Show More] at color of RBC MCH Lab value to look at degree of variation of RBC size (<15% is normal) RDW Why would the bone marrow make small RBC? Not enough iron Iron lab values Serum iron Serum ferritin TIBC Serum iron Measure of iron in circulation Serum ferritin Measure of iron in storage TIBC (total iron-binding capacity) Reciprocal relationship to iron count Peripheral smear Visual description of RBC Should always be considered when a patient presents with anemia Reticulocytes Immature RBC Usually about 1% Indicates ability of bone marrow to produce RBC Microcytic anemia examples Iron deficiency anemia Thalassemia Iron deficiency anemia: what type & clinical presentation Microcytic hypochromic Young-adults: fatigue, weakness, headache, exercise intolerance Older-adults: worsening symptoms of another disease How to tell the difference between IDA and thalasemmia? Serum iron and ferritin will be low and TIBC will be high in IDA How much elemental iron does a person need daily for IDA and for how long? 150-200 mg daily for 4-6 months What is the most well-tolerated iron source? Ferrous sulfate What normal lab values indicates that iron supplementation may be stopped? Serum ferritin level What kind of anemia is anemia of chronic disease and why? Normocytic, normochromic RBC life is shortened Best way to treat anemia of chronic disease? Better control of underlying chronic disease Macrocytic anemia examples B12 deficiency Folate deficiency Symptoms and causes of B12 and folate anemias Often asymptomatic May present with neuro symptoms Often older adults, malnourished, alcohol abuse, bariatric surgery patients Multiple melanoma: What is it? Symptoms Labs Affects plasma cells Fatigue, weakness, bone pain Proteinuria, hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia Hemophilia A: What is it? Factor VIII deficiency aPTT prolonged Gold standard test to diagnosis hemoglobinopathies: Hemoglobin electropheresis Pernicious anemia: What is it? Treatment Autoimmune disorder stops intrinsic factor production (necessary for vit B 12 absorption) Tx: B12 injection every week x 4 wks, injection once a month for life [Show Less]
- Exam
- $10.45
- 0
- 146
Gastrointestinal APEA Questions Answered 100% correct 2023
Positive Murphy's sign pain felt when taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approximate location of the inflamed gallbladder ... [Show More] Murphy's sign pain with palpation of the RUQ during inspiration, indicative of cholecystitis McBurney's point Pain in RLQ with appendicitis McBurney's sign rebound tenderness associated with appendicitis Gold standard diagnostic tool for gallbladder disease Ultrasound The harder the gallbladder works, the _________ it gets. Thicker Muscle becomes bigger causing thickening What could cause dilated loops of bowel? Obstruction What diagnostic test determines level of obstruction? CT Name the initial diagnostic test for suspected divirtuculitis CT abd Which antibiotics treat diverticulitis? Flagyl and cipro What protects the lining of the stomach from the acid within it? Prostaglandins True negative Specificity True positive Sensitivity What class of medications work the quickest to relieve GERD? antacids How long to antacids last? 30 minutes What class of medications decrease acid production? H2 antagonists How long do H2 antagonists work? 6-12 hours How long does it take for H2 antagonists to work? 60-120 minutes Name some examples of H2 antagonists Cimetidine (Tagamet) Ranitidine (Zantac) * pulled off market Famotidine (Pepcid) Nizatidine (Axid) What class of medications reduce gastric secretion? PPIs How long to prescribe PPIs 4-8 weeks If symptoms return after PPI trial? EGD Name some examples of PPIs Omeprazole (Prilosec) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) Rabeprazole (Aciphex) Esomeprazole (Nexium) Pantoprazole (Protonix) Do Bulk laxatives cause dependence? Name a few. NO psyllium (metamucil) methylcellulose (citrucel) Fibercon What might bloody noctural diarrhea indicate? Inflammatory bowel disease Name 2 inflammatory bowel diseases chrons and ulcerative colitis How to diagnose ulcerative colitis colonoscopy Symptoms of IBD (inflammatory bowel disease) bloody diarrhea, fatigue, fever, abdominal pain adenomatous polyps 1. Most common neoplasm of the intestine 2. Benign neoplasms coming from the intestinal epithelium 3. Most cases of colorectal cancer begin as adenomatous colonic polyps Hyperplastic polyps a benign polyp of the colon How long does it take a polyp in the colon to become cancerous? 10 years How often is a FIT recommended? Annually How often is the cologuard recommended 1-3 years What is the gold standard for colon cancer screening? colonoscopy What lab measures the liver integrity? AST/ALT What lab measures the synthetic activity of the liver? PT/Albumin What lab measures the excretory function of the liver? Bilirubin, ALP What could an elevation of the AST/ALT indicate? Liver injury hepatitis NAFLD Acute liver failure What could an elevation of the ALP indicate? Bone disease liver disease obstructed bile ducts What could an elevation in the bilirubin indicate? Red cell destruction liver disease bile duct obstruction gilberts disease What could an elevated PT/INR indicate (in the setting of abnormal LFTs) Cirrhosis, cancer of the liver Where is bilirubin stored? In the RBC What happens to the bilirubin when the RBC dies? It spills out of the RBC What happens with the spilled bilirubin from the dead RBC? The liver grabs it to recycle it. It the liver is sick, it cant catch all of the bilirubin, thus the bilirubin levels build up. The alkaline phosphatase (ALP) will be elevated in patients that present with issues such as- prostate cancer (poss mets to bone) causing bone breakdown= elevation in ALP and old adults that have potential/likely bone breakdown and slowed regeneratioin In viral hepatitis will the AST or ALT usually be higher? ALT Which forms of hepatitis causes chronic hepatitis? B,C,D IgM vs IgG IgM: antibody in INITIAL immune response; IgG: antibody in REPEATED exposure to the same antigen First immunoglobulin during acute infection- IgM [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.95
- 0
- 105
Derm APEA Questions and Answers 2023
Pediculosis capitis RX 1. 1% permethrin (Nix) - most effective Macule 2 - Flat - Change in skin color Papule 4 - Raised - Solid lesion ... [Show More] - Change is skin color - <0.5cm Plaque (3) - Raised - Solid - >0.5 cm Nodule (2) - Solid - 0.5-2cm Tumor (2) - Solid - >2cm Vesicle - Raised - Fluid - <0.5cm Bulla - Raised - Fluid - >0.5cm Abscess= furuncle= boil Deep skin infection of the hair follicle Confluent or Coalescen Multiple lesions blending together Reticular Pattern Netlike pattern Lichenification Skin thickening usually found over pruritic or friction area Annular Ring formation Cellulitis Description SX (7) - Acute infection of the skin - SX: redness, edema, warm, fever & pain on the face of legs *puss= MRSA Cellulitis: TX Without purulence & With 1. MSSA - Cephalexin (Keflex) - Cefadroxil -Clindamycin* 2. MRSA I&D 1st line THEN - TMP-SMX - Clindamycin* - Teracycline - Linezolid x5-10 days Folliculitis Description Classic presentation Etiology RF TX - Superficial OR deep infection/irritation of the hair follicles. - Follicullar pustules or papules on hair-bearing areas - Staph most common - Shaving, tight jeans, poor hygiene - Bacroban small area OR Keflex for large Carbunculosis: Description Deep coalescence lesions of several inflamed follicles that form a purulent mass Carbunculosis TX (2) 1. I& D 2. Consider Abx if fever or systemic sx present or initial tx failed (TMP-SMX) Impetigo Description TX - Superficial infection of the skin that begins as small superficial vesicles. Vesicles rupture and form honey-colored crusts. (Bullous and nonbullous) - Topical for small Oral for Large; Mupirocin (Bactroban) or retapamulin (Altabax) BID x 5 days * children should avoid school until 48 hrs after abx or until bolsters become dry Ecthyma: Description TX - It is a deep form of impetigo; characterized by crusted sores beneath which ulcers form (Affects butt, thighs, legs, ankle, feet) RX MSSA= - dicloxacillin - cephalexin OR MRSA= - doxycycline - clindamycin - TMP-SMX Bites (cat, dog, human) TX (5) 1. Copious Irrigation 2. Cautious debridement 3. Leave wound open (unless on face) 4. Tetanus/Rabies 5. Abx prophylaxis 4. RX for Cat Bite Prophylaxis - Augmentin 3-5 days - PCN allergy use doxycycline Tinea capitis - Head - TX = oral Griseofulvin RX 4-6 wks Tinea Corporis - Body - Topical "conazole" creams x 2wks *Clotrimazole-Betamethasone Cream 1-0.5% BID *hydroxyzine for itching Tinea cruris - Jock (man) - Topical "conazole" creams x 2 weeks Tinea pedis - Feet - Topical x 6 weeks Tinea unguium - Fingernail/Toe - Oral 6-8 weeks plus Topical (Ciclopirox) 48wks QD Pityriasis Versicolor - Axilla, shoulders, chest, back (sebum rich areas) - Well marginated lesions in varying colors, rare itching, lesions do not tan! - Ketaconazole 2% Shampoo (leave on 5mins)x 1 or Selenium sulfide 2.25% Shampoo (leave on 10min) x 7days Description of fungal infection -Central clearing -Circular plaque -Oval Patch -Annular Ring -Dry, erythematous scales *Hyphae or buds under microscope Herpes Zoster: Description - A reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox virus) that has lain dormant in nerve cells. - This involves the skin of a single dermatome or less commonly, several dermatomes. Herpes Zoster: Prodrome SX - 1-10 days - Itching Burning Photophobia Herpes Zoster: Acute Phase - 3-4 days - Maculopapular rash which progresses to grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, and then pustules in 3-4 days. Successive crops of vesicles may appear for a week Herpes Zoster: Convalescent Phase - Within 2-3 weeks, rash resolves - Pain (burning, throbbing, or stabbing) Herpes Zoster: Complications - Postherpetic neuralgia is pain >1m after rash has resolved. Common in older adults Herpes Zoster: Shingrix - >50 - 2 IM doses 2-6months apart - Non-attuniated - Contraindicated: Pregnancy, severe immunocompromised - Highly effective Herpes Zoster: Transmission Patients who have shingles are not able to transmit shingles to other susceptible patients. They may only transmit the chickenpox virus to susceptible patient Herpes Zoster: TX (2) Refer 1. Antiviral (<72hr of sx or if new lesions appear >72hr) x 7 days high dose 2. Analgesics; NSAIDS or narcotics for severe pain, topical lidocaine 3. Urgent consultation of ophthalmologist for dermatomes involving the eye* or send to ER * Prophylactic oral corticosteroids have not shown to prevent the development of PHN: 3-week tapering dose may modestly reduce duration of pain and neurologic involvement Herpes Zoster: Expected course - Resolution of acute phase usually 14-21 days - Postherpetic neuralgia may last for months Lyme Disease: Description - Complex, multisystem disease transmitted by the Ixodid tick* - Tick must be attached for 36-48hrs before transmission (groin, armpit, scalp) [Show Less]
- Exam
- $16.95
- 0
- 123
APEA GASTRO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023
Metoclopramide (Reglan), an antiemetic, increases gastric motility by: blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and enhancing the action of acetylcholine... [Show More] The class of medications most useful in the tx of chemo induced nausea and vomiting is the: Serotonin receptor antagonists-5-HT3 receptors antagonists ending in -setron The length of tx for oral metoclopramide should not exceed: 12 weeks, for adult use only, risk the development of tardive dyskinesia For pts who didn't respond to an initial course of triple therapy for H. pylori, an alternate regimen should be prescribed. It would include a PPI &: Metronidazole & tetracycline The following medication should not be administered concomitantly with clopidogrel (Plavix): Omeprazole (Prilosec)-reduces the effect of Plavix by blocking the conversion to its active form The most commonly reported side effect of metronidazole and clarithromycin combination therapy for H. pylori is: metallic taste H. pylori is naturally resistant to: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) Which of the following medications is classified as n antihistamine and a phenothiazine? Promethazine (Phenergan) In addition to metoclopramide (Reglan), another prokinetic drug used to improve gastric motility is: Erythromycin base (Ery-tab)-enhance emptying the stomach and/or gut and enhance the contractions of the gut The plasma elimination half-life of esomeprazole (Nexium) is: 1-1.5 hours Promethazine (Phenergan) should not be used in children younger than 2 years due to: respiratory depression-1st gen antihistamine A pt who has failed 2 courses of therapy for H. pylori should: Receive reinforced education about compliance with meds-often times the cause of tx failure Rabeprazole (Aciphex), used in the tx of reflux, is classified as a(n): PPI The brand name for famotidine is: Pepcid Pts should be advised to remove the scopolamine patch if an adverse reaction occurs, such as: Confusion Which therapy should be initiated in a pt with moderate C. dif infection who has failed to respond to tx with metronidazole (Flagyl)? Oral vancomycin-indicated for the tx of initial episode of mild to mod infection Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) is indicated for the tx of nausea and vomiting associated with: Motion sickness Promethazine (Phenergan), a 1st gen antihistamine, is contraindicated in the presence of: Asthma Oral promethazine used for the tx of nausea and vomiting should be administered as needed every: 4 hours The scopolamine patch should be applied: Behind the ear Corticosteroids, used in the tx of ulcerative colitis, usually do NOT: Increase the effectiveness of antibiotics-decreases effectiveness The brand name for esomeprazole is: Nexium The antibiotics in triple therapy for the tx of H. pylori should be administered: Twice daily Corticosteroids, used in the tx of ulcerative colitis, are produced by the: Adrenal glands Ondansetron (Zofran) dosage should be adjusted in pts: With hepatic impairment-5-HT3 receptor antagonists dose limited in hepatic impairment Anticholinergic agents reduce nausea and vomiting by antagonizing the: Muscarinic receptors The brand name for prochlorperazine maleate is: Compazine Infliximab (Remicade), a tumor necrosis factor inhibitor, is: Used to tx Crohn's disease in children Lubiprostone (Amitiza), used in the tx of chronic constipation, is contraindicated in pts who have: Suspected mechanical bowel obstruction The brand name for metoclopramide, an antiemetic, is: Reglan Which of the following medications used for the tx of GERD works by neutralizing hydrochloric (HCl) acid in the stomach to rapidly increase gastric pH? Calcium carbonate (Tums) The medication class indicated for the intermittent (on-demand) relief of mild gastroesophageal reflux is: antacids Side effects related to transdermal scopolamine may include: Urinary retention [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.95
- 0
- 111
APEA EENT Questions and Answers 2023
For tx of blepharitis, pts should be instructed to apply erythromycin ointment to the affected eye using: A 1 cm ribbon 5 times daily for 7 days Th... [Show More] e ophthalmic preparation that is NOT available OTC is: Hydroxypropyl cellulose (Lacrisert), a lubricant Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is an antiviral agent, further classified as a(n): Neuraminidase inhibitor The duration of action of ocular decongestants such as oxymetazoline (Visine-LR) is approximately: 6 hours-pts should be advised to apply 1-2 drops in the affected eye q 6 hours The mechanism of action for macrolides is to: block the dissociation of peptidyl tRNA from ribosomes 2nd generation antihistamines: have a variety of anti-inflammatory properties-including decreased mast cell mediator properties and downregulation of adhesion molecule expression After the administration of olopatadine (Pataday) ophthalmic for allergic conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be inserted for at least: 10 minutes-do not insert if eyes are red Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of ocular steroids? Promotes capillary proliferation and dilation The mechanism of action of polymyxin B/trimethoprim ophthalmic is: Increased cell wall permeability/inhibition of nucleic acid and protein synthesis Sulfacetamide/prednisolone (Blephamide) is NOT indicated in: Ocular mycobacterial infection (ocular tuberculosis) The mechanism of action of pheniramine is that it: Antagonized histamine-1 receptors The duration of action of meclizine (Antivert) is: 8 hours-1st gen antihistamine , onset ~1 hr with half-life of 6 hours The mechanism of action for mast cell stabilizers is: Inhibition of histamine release and slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis The brand name for sulfacetamide ophthalmic is: Bleph-10 The vasoconstrictive properties of alpha- agonist medications make them beneficial for the tx of: Sinus congestion-used to reduce edema and inflammation within sinus cavities The generic name for Dramamine is: Dimehydrinate Which risk factor would NOT prohibit the NP from prescribing prednisolone acetate (Pred Forte)? Superficial punctate keratitis Which of the following organisms is NOT susceptible to sulfacetamide ophthalmic (Bleph-10)? Psuedomonas aeruginosa- does not provide adequate coverage against Neisseria species A medication that acts on the hypothalamus to produce antipyresis is: Acetaminophen Azelasine (Astelin), for tx of allergic rhinitis, is classified as a nasal: Antihistamine A serious adverse reaction to clindamycin (Cleocin) is: Clostridium difficile-related colitis If ocular steroids are to be used for more than 10 days, monitoring should include: Ocular pressure The most effective tx for eradication of group A streptococcus in those who are apparent carriers is: Oral clindamycin (Cleocin) for 10 days Oxymetazoline nasal spray, a nasal decongestant, is manufactured under the brand name: Afrin Which of the following is a cholinergic agonist used in the tx of glaucoma? Pilocarpine (Pilopine HS) ophthalmic A common side effect related to the administration of cetirizine (Zyrtec) is: Drowsiness-admin at bedtime The onset of action of oxymetazoline (Afrin) is: 1o minutes, 2-3 sprays in each nostril q 10-12 hours First-line tx for children who are diagnosed with Strep pharyngitis is: Amoxicillin (Amoxil) Brand names of sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim do NOT include: Azulfidine (sulfasalazine) The duration of action of azelastine (Optivar) ophthalmic drops is: 8 hours Naphazoline/pheniramine (Naphcon-A) is indicated in the treatment of: Allergic conjunctivitis Ocular steroids indicated for the tx of allergic conjunctivitis can be used in pts with: Herpes zoster keratitis Polycin-B is the brand name for: Polymyxin B and bacitracin The brand name for meclizine is: Antivert Due to potential drug-drug interactions, therapy should be monitored when a pt is receiving erythromycin (Eyemycin) ointment and: Warfarin-may increase serum concentration of Vit K antagonists such as warfarin Due to the potential development of pseudo tumor cerebri, tetracycline (Sumycin) should not be administered concomitantly with: Isotretinoin (Claravis)-may enhance the adverse/toxic effect of retinoic acid derivatives A benefit of prescribing an ophthalmic antihistamine with mast cell stabilizer property would be that the mast cell stabilizer provides: An extended duration of action-due to their high affinity to the H-1 receptor Ocular decongestants such as oxymetazoline (Visine-LR) are used to reduce: Redness Pts should be advised to administer polymyxin B/trimethoprim q: 3 hours, maximum 6 doses in 24 hour period The most common symptoms of penicillin allergy includes hives, itchy eyes, and: Swollen lips Bacitracin (Ocu-tracin) ophthalmic ointment inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by: Preventing the transfer of mucopeptides into the growing cell wall When prescribing polymyxin B sulfate/bacitracin zinc (Polycin-B), pts should be instructed to: Complete therapy, even if sx resolve Prolonged use of bacitracin ophthalmic may result in: Fungal overgrowth Which of the following is classified as a 2nd gen antihistamine? Fexofenadine (Allegra) Hydroxyzine-1st gen Pts being treated with trifluridine (Viroptic) for herpes simplex 1 keratoconjunctivitis should be advised to return to the clinic if they do not experience sx improvement within: 7 days Polymyxin B/trimethoprim ophthalmic is NOT indicated for: Ophthalmia neonatorum-does not treat the most common bacterial causes The mechanism of action of trifluridine (Viroptic), an ophthalmic antiviral, used the treatment of herpes simplex conjunctivitis is: Interference with viral replication by inhibiting thymidylate synthetase A common side effect of oral phenylephrine (Sudafed), a decongestant is: Anxiety Cephalosporins are classified as: Beta-lactam antibiotics Ophthalmic cromolyn inhibits the degranulation of sensitized mast cells. It is indicated in the treatment of: Vernal conjunctivitis Dosing of oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for older adult pts with active influenza and a creatinine clearance between 30-60 mL/min is: 30mg PO BID for 5 days Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of sulfacetamide ophthalmic (Bleph-10) for the tx of acute conjunctivitis? Acute renal insufficiency The brand name of prednisolone acetate ophthalmic is: Pred Forte Pts who are using a glucocorticoid nasal spray should be advised to: Prime the pump prior to first use or if unused for more than a week Which of the following does NOT cause a drug-disease interaction when using a decongestant/antihistamine medication such as Naphazoline/pheniramine (Naphcon-A)? Hypothyroidism [Show Less]
- Exam
- $18.45
- 0
- 103
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$45.45
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
167
1
Seller Details
