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ALL CRAT EXAM (25 Sets) QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS,100% CORRECT
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CRAT Exam 65 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Exam 65 Questions with Verified Answers Chronotropic - CORRECT ANSWER heart rate Inotropic - CORRECT ANSWER force of myocardial contractility ... [Show More] Dromotropic - CORRECT ANSWER conduction velocity through the AV node Systole - CORRECT ANSWER contraction of chamber, blood is being ejected. Pressure rises during systole. Diastole - CORRECT ANSWER rest, relaxation of chamber, chamber is allowed to fill. Pressure falls during diastole. Stroke Volume - CORRECT ANSWER the amount of blood left ventricle pumps in each beat. (mL/beat) Cardiac output- definition - CORRECT ANSWER The amount of blood pumped into the aorta each minute. (units= mL/min) Cardiac output- equation - CORRECT ANSWER (HR) X (Stroke Volume) Avg. healthy adult= 4-8 L/min Venous return - CORRECT ANSWER amount of blood flowing into the right heart from the systemic ciruclation Blood Pressure- definition - CORRECT ANSWER force exerted by the blood against the walls of the arteries as the ventricles contract and relax Blood pressure- equation - CORRECT ANSWER (cardiac output) X (peripheral resistance) or you could put it another way: (HR)(Stroke Volume)(Peripheral Resistance) An increase in Potassium or decrease in Calcium cause the heart to be ____. - CORRECT ANSWER flaccid, limp, dilated, lower HR Excess Calcium can cause the heart to be _____. - CORRECT ANSWER spastic contractions. Although about 70% of ventricular filling occurs passively, ______ ______ contributes an additional 10% to 30% of blood flow to ventricular filling. - CORRECT ANSWER atrial kick The area in the middle of the thoracic cavity in which the heart lies is the: - CORRECT ANSWER Mediastinum The inferior surface of the heart is formed by the - CORRECT ANSWER Right and left ventricles Receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae and the coronary sinus - CORRECT ANSWER The right atrium The right ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER Pumps unoxygenated blood into the pulmonary circulation The _____ pericardium is the inner layer of the pericardium, which is also the outer layer of the heart wall called the _____. - CORRECT ANSWER Visceral, epicardium When a ventricle relaxes in the normal heart, blood is prevented from flowing back into it by - CORRECT ANSWER A semilunar valve Which of the following conditions are potentially reversible? - CORRECT ANSWER Myocardial ischemia and myocardial injury Which of the following is the innermost layer of the heart that lines its inner chambers, valves and is continuous with the innermost layers of the arteries, veins and capillaries of the body? - CORRECT ANSWER Endocardium Which of the following statements is CORRECT - CORRECT ANSWER A branch of the right coronary artery supplies the right atrium and the right ventricle The main electrolytes that affect cardiac function are - CORRECT ANSWER Sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium When an ECG machine is properly calibrated, a 1-millivolt (mV) electrical signal will produce a deflection measuring exactly ______ tall. - CORRECT ANSWER Ten millimeters The ST segment is measured from - CORRECT ANSWER The end of the QRS to the beginning of the T wave Where is the positive electrode placed in Lead III? - CORRECT ANSWER Left leg/foot Five large boxes, each consisting of five small boxes, represent _____ on ECG paper. - CORRECT ANSWER One second Another term for ventricular escape rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER Idioventricular Rhythm (IVR) Agonal rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER IVR with HR < 20 bpm HR for IVR (ventricular escape rhythm) - CORRECT ANSWER 20-40 bpm Signs and symptoms experienced during a tachydysrhythmia are usually primarily related to: - CORRECT ANSWER Decreased ventricular filling time and stroke volume The most common type of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) - CORRECT ANSWER AV nodal reentrant tachycarida (AVNRT) Which of the following rhythm originates in the SA node and is commonly phasic with breathing? - CORRECT ANSWER Sinus arrhythmia HR Range: Idioventricular, Acc Idioventricular, and Vtach - CORRECT ANSWER 20-40, 41-100, 101+ HR Range: Juncitonal, Acc Junctional, and Junctional Tach - CORRECT ANSWER 40-60, 61-100, 101+ Intrinsic rate of SA node - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100 bpm Intrinsic rate of AV node - CORRECT ANSWER 40-60 bpm Intrinsic rate of Purkinje fibers (ventricles) - CORRECT ANSWER 20-40 bpm 2 types of v-tach - CORRECT ANSWER monomorphic (all the same) and polymorphic (looks like a spindle) Torsades de Pointes is a type of ______ ______ - CORRECT ANSWER poltmorphic v-tach Rhythm that has no pattern at all. Waveforms cannot be identified. - CORRECT ANSWER V-fib If R is far from P, then you have - CORRECT ANSWER 1st degree Longer, longer, longer, drop, then you have a - CORRECT ANSWER Wenckebache (mobitz 1, 2nd degree type 1) If some p's don't get through, then you have a - CORRECT ANSWER Mobitz 2 (2nd degree type 2) If p's and r's dont agree, then you have a - CORRECT ANSWER 3rd degree The two types of blocks where PR intervals are all identical - CORRECT ANSWER 1st degree, and 2nd degree type 2 A 3rd degree block will either be ______ with a narrow QRS or _____ with a wide QRS. - CORRECT ANSWER Junctional or ventricular. And PR interval has no consistency. A ____ pause follows a PAC. - CORRECT ANSWER incomplete. SA node resets its rhythm. A ____ pause follows a PVC. - CORRECT ANSWER complete. Before and after premature beat is the same as 2 r-r intervals Compensatory pause - CORRECT ANSWER sinus node timing is not interrupted, and next sinus impulse is conducted on time Non-compensatory pause - CORRECT ANSWER SA node resets its timing, and the following P wave may appear earlier than expected. Delta wave - CORRECT ANSWER The slurred effect of.... An accessory conduction pathway is present between the atria and the ventricles, with rapid conduction of electrical impulses to the ventricles. These rapid impulses create a slurring of the initial portion of the QRS. Sign of WPW syndrome (AVRT) For an irregular heart rate: Count the number of QRS complexes over a ________. - CORRECT ANSWER 6 second interval. Multiply by 10 to determine heart rate. Augmented leads - CORRECT ANSWER (aVR, aVL, aVF) measure positive electrical charges through a single electrode and a reference point having zero activity. Sinus exit block - CORRECT ANSWER block that results in a dropped beat that is a multiple of the P - P interval, after the dropped beat, the rhythm continues regularly It is NOT a non-conducted PAC if...... - CORRECT ANSWER the p-waves are on time. (ex. Second degree type 1 AV block) Bundle branch block - CORRECT ANSWER either the left or right ventricles may depolarize late, creating a wide, notched QRS. Third degree AV block - CORRECT ANSWER Conduction between the atria and the ventricles is totally absent because of complete electrical block at or below the AV node. This is known as AV dissociation. Complete heart block is another name for this. Ventricular Fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER no ventricular depolarization or contraction. Small baseline amplitude= fine. Large amplitude= coarse. Torsade de Pointes - CORRECT ANSWER (twisting of points)- polymorphic v-tach that looks like spindles. Multiform - CORRECT ANSWER PVC's with different shapes QT interval represents... - CORRECT ANSWER time of ventricular activity, including both depolarization and repolarization [Show Less]
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CRAT Exam 38 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Exam 38 Questions with Verified Answers Pericardium - CORRECT ANSWER Outer protective double-layered sac surrounding the heart. Epicardium - COR... [Show More] RECT ANSWER Thin outermost layer of the heart, contains coronary arteries. Myocardium - CORRECT ANSWER Middle muscular layer of the heart, contains electrical system. Endocardium - CORRECT ANSWER Inner most layer of the heart, lines chambers and valves. Blood flow through the heart - CORRECT ANSWER Venules --> Veins --> Superior/Inferior VC --> Rt atria --> Tricuspid Valve --> Rt ventricle --> Pulmonary valve --> Pulmonary Artery --> Lungs --> Pulmonary Veins --> Lt atria --> Bicuspid/Mitral valve --> Lt ventricle --> Aortic Valve --> Aorta --> Arteries --> Arterioles --> Capillaries --> Body Deoxygenated blood(left side of heart) - CORRECT ANSWER Venules --> Veins --> Superior/Inferior VC --> Rt atria --> Tricuspid Valve --> Rt ventricle --> Pulmonary valve --> Pulmonary Artery Oxygenated blood(right side of heart) - CORRECT ANSWER Pulmonary Veins --> Lt atria --> Bicuspid/Mitral valve --> Lt ventricle --> Aortic Valve --> Aorta --> Arteries --> Arterioles --> Capillaries Atrioventricular Valves(diastole) - CORRECT ANSWER Valves between the atria and ventricles. Tricuspid, Bicuspid/Mitral. Regulates blood flow IN the heart. Semilunar Valves(systole) - CORRECT ANSWER Pulmonary and Aortic valves separates Ventricles from corresponding artery. Regulates blood flow OUT of the heart. sinoatrial node (SA node) - CORRECT ANSWER Primary pacemaker, 60-100bpm intrinsic rate atrioventricular node (AV) node - CORRECT ANSWER 2nd pacemaker, 40-60bpm intrinsic rate Bundle of His - CORRECT ANSWER normal connection between atria and ventricles bundle branches - CORRECT ANSWER Branches off the Bundle of His that conduct impulses to the left and right ventricles Purkinje fibers - CORRECT ANSWER conduction system terminates Automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER The ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own. Excitability - CORRECT ANSWER ability of cardiac cell to respond to an impulse Conductivity - CORRECT ANSWER The ability of cardiac cell to conduct/transmit an impulse. Contractility - CORRECT ANSWER ability of cardiac cell to contract/pump in response to an electrical impulse. Depolarization - CORRECT ANSWER contraction Repolarization - CORRECT ANSWER relaxation Waveform - CORRECT ANSWER P wave --> PR Interval --> QRS Complex --> J Joint --> ST Segment --> T wave P wave - CORRECT ANSWER atrial depolarization PR interval - CORRECT ANSWER Period of time from beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization. Delay of AV node to allow filling of ventricles. 0.12-0.20sec. QRS complex - CORRECT ANSWER ventricular depolarization J joint - CORRECT ANSWER the point where the QRS meets the ST segment. ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER early ventricular repolarization Vertical line on EKG - CORRECT ANSWER voltage Horizontal line on EKG - CORRECT ANSWER time T wave - CORRECT ANSWER ventricular repolarization Small box on ECG - CORRECT ANSWER 1mm or 0.04sec. Vertically = 0.1mV Large box on EKG - CORRECT ANSWER 5mm or 0.20sec. Vertically = 0.5mV 1500 method - CORRECT ANSWER Most accurate for use of regular rhythms. Count the number of small boxes between two R waves, them divide by 1500. R-R Interval/300 method - CORRECT ANSWER Less accurate method, count number of LARGE boxes between R waves and divide by 300 300 method for counting rate - CORRECT ANSWER 1 = 300, 2 = 150, 3 = 100, 4 = 75, 5 = 60, 6 = 50, 7 = 43, 8 = 38, 9 = 33, 10 = 30 sinus rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100bpm. P wave = present/upright. Normal heartbeat triggered by the SA node. Sinus Tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER >100 bpm. P wave= present/upright Sinus Bradycardia - CORRECT ANSWER <60 bpm. P wave= present/upright Sinus Arrhythmia - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100bpm. P wave = present/upright.. IRREGULAR [Show Less]
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CRAT exam 53 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT exam 53 Questions with Verified Answers The first negative deflection noted in the QRS complex - CORRECT ANSWER Q wave Atrial fibrillation with ... [Show More] a slow ventricular response has an - CORRECT ANSWER ventricular rate less than 60 BPM Patient education in self-monitoring includes with of the following: - CORRECT ANSWER - when to disconnect the device - what to do when the device emits an alert sound - what type of symptoms to record during the monitoring period x who to call in case of an emergency x how to wear the device while driving Which of the following rhythms may be characterized by regular P-P and regular R-R intervals at different rates? - CORRECT ANSWER complete heart block While conducting a routine transtelephonic pacemaker check, the patient states he is short of breath, and atrial fibrillation is noted in the presenting rhythm strip. The technician's next step should be to: - CORRECT ANSWER Put the patient on hold and call his cardiologist What is the best method for obtaining a good recording from a handheld, ambulatory, post event cardiac monitor? - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure two of the four electrodes are pressed gently to the left of the sternum Which valves prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles during diastole? - CORRECT ANSWER semilunar A patient with a TTM suddenly begins slurring his words and complaining that he has tingling in his left arm. What is the most appropriate action? - CORRECT ANSWER activate EMS The relationship between the conducted P waves and the QRS complexes in a sinus arrhythmia is - CORRECT ANSWER one P wave per QRS complex The p wave on the electrocardiogram represents an electrical impulse that spreads through the - CORRECT ANSWER atria During sinus rhythm, an early narrow complex beat without a P wave preceding it would be interpreted as - CORRECT ANSWER PJC Which of the following are types of artifact that need to be recognized during rhythm analysis. Choose four reponses - CORRECT ANSWER - somatic tremor - AC interference - junctional baseline - paced interference - wandering baseline - interrupted baseline The patient requires a 30-day cardiac monitoring device. Which of the following items would be the least important education related to the patients self-monitoring? - CORRECT ANSWER what type of cardiac monitoring device is in use In the absense of a release form, a patient's health information may be shared with the patient's ___ without committing a HIPAA violation - CORRECT ANSWER physician Which of the following BEST describes idioventricular rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER heart rate 20-40 BPM, almost always regular, no P waves preceding a wide QRS Which of the following items would be considered standard instructions when placing a 24h monitoring device on a pateint in a clinical setting? - CORRECT ANSWER - explain the importance of not getting the monitor wet - encourage teh patient to leave the monitor on the entire time - inform the patient of physical limitations while the monitor is worn First degree AV block is determined by teh measurement of the - CORRECT ANSWER PR interval The normal gain setting for ECG acquisition is ___ mm/mV - CORRECT ANSWER 10 The conduction system terminates with the - CORRECT ANSWER Purkinje network Atrial fibrillation is best defined as - CORRECT ANSWER chaotic, asynchronous electrical activity in atrial tissue What should be done when a patient reports that their demographic information is incorrect? - CORRECT ANSWER Follow the organizational procedure and correct the error immediately What process is used to clean monitoring equipment between patient use - CORRECT ANSWER Disinfecting Which of the following essential tools are required to begin remote cardiac device monitoring? - CORRECT ANSWER - batteries - electrodes - adhesive tape - cardiac device An in-hospital telemetry technician arrives for his shift and notices that the report for the prior shift has not been completed. The telemetry technician should - CORRECT ANSWER notify the supervisor or senior technician of the situation to seek advice on how to proceed ECG preliminary findings are most frequently recorded by the - CORRECT ANSWER technician After completion of ECGs, the equipment must be - CORRECT ANSWER cleaned and secured per facility guidelines On standard ECG paper the horizontal lines are a measurements - CORRECT ANSWER voltage A Parkinsonian tremor will typicall manifest itself on an ECG tracing as - CORRECT ANSWER an erratic baseline During a monitoring period which symptoms would be most appropriate for a patient to record? - CORRECT ANSWER - dizziness - chest pain - out of breath A regular rhythm with a rate of 158 BPM and with a narrow QRS complex is best described as - CORRECT ANSWER supraventricular tachycardia Where is the most appropriate location ot place a "patch cardiac monitor"? - CORRECT ANSWER center of chest mid sternum A characteristic of third deg AV block is - CORRECT ANSWER the conduction of the atrial impulse failing to reach the ventricle What occurs when a ventricle pacemaker senses electrical current from sources other than the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER oversensing Which waveform represents ventricular repolarization on an ECG strip? - CORRECT ANSWER T wave In a normal sinus rhythm, the sinus node fires at a rate of - CORRECT ANSWER 61-100 BPM Which of these rates could be considered a junctional tachy - CORRECT ANSWER 130 BPM (>100 BPM) A PVC that occurs during the relative refractory period is referred to as - CORRECT ANSWER R-on-T phenomenon A regular rhythm with a narrow QRS complex with no noted P waves and a rate between 40-60 BPM is nown as - CORRECT ANSWER junctional escape rhythm What is sinus bradycardia? - CORRECT ANSWER HR < 60 bpm In standard calibration ECG graph paper, a deflection of the tracing upward or downward by one large box, from baseline represents - CORRECT ANSWER 0.5 mV What method can you use to calculate the ventriuclar rate of a cardiac rhythm when the R-R interval is regular? - CORRECT ANSWER Divide the number of large boxes between 2 R waves ino 300 Atrial tachycardia is - CORRECT ANSWER a rapid arrhythmia which is irregular and occurs paroxysmally What is the proper procedure if your patient has a seizure during the ECG? - CORRECT ANSWER repeat ECG after the seizure is over Supraventricular tachycardia is - CORRECT ANSWER narrow compelxed tachycardia greater than 150 BPM Which cardiac chamber contains most of the muscle mass of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER left ventricle Which rhythm is characterized by P waves with three or more different morhpologies - CORRECT ANSWER wandering atrial pacemaker An ECG caliper measurement of peak to peak flutter waves is five small boxes. What is the atrial rate for this rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER 300 BPM What must be done promptly after recording an ECG rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER provide to the interpreting practitioner Where should the ECG tracing be placed after it has been obtained - CORRECT ANSWER per facility guidelines and protocols On an ECG strip pacemaker spikes without P waves or QRS complexes are seen. This is - CORRECT ANSWER loss of caputure If a dual chamber pacemaker's ventricular lead senses a non-cardiac signal, what is most likely to occur? - CORRECT ANSWER failure to capture ventricle What best describes asystole on an ECG - CORRECT ANSWER a flat line tracing Normal sinus rhythm HR ranges from - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100 BPM [Show Less]
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CRAT Review Exam 101 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Review Exam 101 Questions with Verified Answers Transtelephonic Monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER Transmitted over phone to a LICENSED practitioner to re... [Show More] ad (magnetic tape), Patients use up to 30 days Digital Monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER Transmitted over a computer where report is verified by a licensed practitioner Telemedicine monitoring is usually used to evaluate_____________ - CORRECT ANSWER Artificial Pacemaker Functioning Ambulatory Monitor - CORRECT ANSWER Most common type is holter monitor (continuous or intermittent-only records when patient has symptoms. Used for dysrhythmias, evaluation cardic meds, and checking pacemakers-24-48 hrs-up to 30 days Procedure for applying ambulatory monitor (holter) - CORRECT ANSWER Educate patient, equipment gathered and prepared, electrodes placed on chest, equipment hooked up Procedure for removing - CORRECT ANSWER before removing, diary must be complete by patient, then turn off recording, remove electrodes, clean skin, report results *process is based on type of equipment uses Functions of common ECG machine - CORRECT ANSWER 3 basic functions are input, signal processing, output display. Sensors in ECG machine serve as receiving devices for the electrical activity of the heart. INPUT-Electrode placed on patients skin direct impulses to ECG instrument, providing the input. Signal processing happens in ECG machine, output display is the result of processing and is shown on screen (known as oscilloscope) and/or on ECG tracings. Electronic output is quickly becoming most common choice for ECG tracings. ECG machine controls - CORRECT ANSWER # most common are speed, gain, artifact filter. also have these controls: LCD display, heart rate limits, standardization, and lead section Speed control - CORRECT ANSWER regulates how fast or slow the paper or data run during procedure. MOST COMMONLY USED: 25 mm/sec *increasing the speed for example to 50mm/sec will make wave forms appear wider and is useful if patient heart rate is very fast. if you change the speed you must note on tracing by circling the setting on tracing and notify the healthcare provider *speed in measure on a horizontial axis Gain - CORRECT ANSWER control on ECG machine that increases or decreases size of ECG tracing. Normal setting is 10mm/mV. 20mm/V will double size and 5mm/V will reduce size by half * NEED TO KNOW mV is a millivolt-unit of measurement to indicate voltage- Voltage is measures on a vertical axis Artifact Filter - CORRECT ANSWER unwanted marks on ECG tracing caused by something other than heart activity *Normal settings is between 40-150Hz, 40 Hz can be used to reduce artifact 3 most common causes of artifact are: - CORRECT ANSWER Somatic tremor, wandering baseline, and AC interference History of ECG - CORRECT ANSWER 1903-Wilhelm Einthoven ECG graph paper - CORRECT ANSWER Boxes are 5mm by 5mm and indicate .04 seconds in time horizontally and .1 mV in voltage vertically How many seconds are between 3 tick marks on top of ecg paper? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 seconds EGC PAPER provides measurement for both______ - CORRECT ANSWER time and voltage. smallest box =.04 second in time and 1mm or .1mV in voltage 2 large boxes =10mm, which equals 1cm for vertical measurement. ECG machines must be calibrated - CORRECT ANSWER so that 1cm=1mV Center for disease control & Prevention has 2 levels of precautions which are_________ - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Standard-Hand Hygiene/gloves for blood/body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes. For standard wash hands and use gloves 2.Isolation precautions-airborne, droplet, contact For Isolation wash hands, use gloves, and use personal protective equipment Ethics - CORRECT ANSWER standards of behavior/right vs wrong Laws - CORRECT ANSWER established by government Illegal acts are always unethical but unethical acts are not always illegal Chapter 1 HIPPA - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act established in response to information being transmitted electronically Established 1996 past into law 2003. Patient info can only be shared for patients care. This includes patient address and phone number. Fines if violate law. For HIPPA questions keep in mind: - CORRECT ANSWER HIPPA was enacted to protect the patient, you need two forms of identification to be sure you have right patient, you need an order to do test, connect supervisor or follow organization's procedure are usually correct ansers. Age to have a routine ECG - CORRECT ANSWER 40 Troubleshooting consent when patient cannot read and/or write - CORRECT ANSWER Explain procedure to family member and have them and patient sign or explain the procedure with a witness present and have witness sign and have patient place an X on form Steps to do an ECG - CORRECT ANSWER Clearly explain procedure, answer all questions, confident friendly manner, Patient will be cooperative if they trust you. Cardiac Anatomy - CORRECT ANSWER Heart is in center of chest under sternum and in between lungs. 2/3 is left of sternum. Heart is divided into 4 chambers, 2 atria, 2 ventricles. Think of heart as a double pump. Right heart - CORRECT ANSWER job is to pump deoxygenated blood to lungs where it exchanges carbon dioxide for oxygen Left heart - CORRECT ANSWER After blood picks up oxygen in lungs it is passed into left heart and pumped to body via aorta Heart receives blood from body via which 2 veins? - CORRECT ANSWER Superior Vena Cava and Inferior Vena Cava, both into right atrium Blood going into right heart - CORRECT ANSWER just delivered oxygen and nutrients to the body Semilunar valve - CORRECT ANSWER A valve with a half moon shaped cusp that opens and close to allow blood to travel only one way. Aortic and pulmonary valves are semilunar. Separate ventricles from arteries leading to lungs and body. Send blood to body and lungs. Aortic Valve or Aortic semilunar - CORRECT ANSWER A Semilunar valve that is located between left ventricle and aorta. Pushes blood to body. REMEMBER LEFT VENRICLE->AORTA This is a Blood flow control valve Aorta - CORRECT ANSWER Large artery of the body who's job it is to transport oxygenated blood from left ventricle to the rest of body. Pulmonary Valve or pulmonary Semilunar - CORRECT ANSWER Semilunar valve located between right ventricle and pulmonary artery. pushes blood through pulmonary truck to lungs. REMEMBER RIGHT VENTRICLE -> PULMONARY ARTERY. This is a Blood flow control valve Pulmonary artery - CORRECT ANSWER Large artery that transports blood from right ventricle to the lungs. ONLY artery in body that carries deoxygenated blood. Tricuspid Valve - CORRECT ANSWER Atrioventricular valve that separates the right atrium and right ventricle. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium. Atria contracts when? - CORRECT ANSWER After the Mitral valve and Tricuspid valve opens causing ventricles to fill with blood. Mitral Valve (also known as Bicuspid valve) - CORRECT ANSWER Atrioventricular valve that separates the left atrium and left ventricle. Prevents back flow of blood to left atrium Valves prevent what? - CORRECT ANSWER The back flow of blood How to heart valves function? - CORRECT ANSWER As the heart muscle contracts and relaxes, the valves open and shut letting blood flow into the ventricles and atria at alternate times. Step by step to valve function in left ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER After the left ventricle contracts, aortic valve closes and the mitral valve opens, allowing blood flow from left atrium to the left ventricle, as the left atruim contracts, more blood flows into left ventricle. When the left ventricle contracts again, the mitral valve closes and the aortic valve opens, so blood flows into the aorta Conduction system of the heart - CORRECT ANSWER Heartbeat originates in the sinoatrial (SA)node and travels thru the intermodal pathways to the atrioventricular (AV) node. The impulse then passing in to the AV bundle/the Bundle of HIS to the interventricular septum where it is divided between the right and left bundle branches where it travels to the apex of the heart ending in the Purkinje fibers in the right and left ventricles causing them to contract. Electrical part of heart.... - CORRECT ANSWER tells the mechanical part when to work. AV node - CORRECT ANSWER Gatekeeper who's job is to slow down electrical activity, delays the electrical impulse to allow the atria to complete contraction Tissue around AV Node is known as? - CORRECT ANSWER Junctional SA node - CORRECT ANSWER Area of specialized cells in upper right atrium. Considered the normal pacemaker of the heart. Initiates the heart beat Bundle branches - CORRECT ANSWER Conducts electrical impulses down both sides of the interventricular septum Right Atrium - CORRECT ANSWER Right upper chamber of heart which receives blood from body Left Atrium - CORRECT ANSWER Left upper chamber of heart which receives blood from the lungs Right Ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER Right lower chamber of heart which pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs Left Ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER Lower left chamber that pumps oxygenated blood to the body. Biggest and strongest chamber of the heart. Work horse of the heart Interventricular septum - CORRECT ANSWER Wall (septum) that divides the right and left ventricles Major blood vessels of heart are: - CORRECT ANSWER Venae cavae, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, and aorta Vena Cava - CORRECT ANSWER Largest veins in the body that carries deoxygenated blood on its return to the heart. Superior is upper body/arms/ head and inferior is lower body/legs Coronary circulation - CORRECT ANSWER transportation of blood to and from heart Pulmonary circulation - CORRECT ANSWER transportation of blood to and from lungs Papillary Muscles - CORRECT ANSWER Pull down Valve and open it up (Mitral Valve) located in ventricles. Chordae Tendinae - CORRECT ANSWER are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid valve and the mitral valve in the heart. Septum - CORRECT ANSWER Muscular wall that divides right and left side of heart Heart valves - CORRECT ANSWER Function as the heart muscle contracts and relaxes, opening and shutting valves at alternate times passing blood on a one way trip. Each valve is 3 flaps except mitral valve which is two Automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER Ability of heart to initiate an electrical pulse w/o being stimulated by an outside source. Heart tissue has its own innate ability to initiate an electrical impulse 3 places you have automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER SA node, Junctional Tissue, ventricular Myocardial - CORRECT ANSWER Heart muscle Myo=muscle cardi=heart Conductivity - CORRECT ANSWER ability of heart muscle cells to receive and transmit electrical impulses Contractility - CORRECT ANSWER ability of heart muscles to shorten or contract, the contraction produces the heartbeat or pumping of heart Excitability - CORRECT ANSWER Ability to respond to impulses, w/o which the heart could not react to the electrical impulses Polarization - CORRECT ANSWER heart cells are at their peak resting energy. The inside of the cell is negatively charged and the outside is positively charged. the "ready rest stage of the heart". Depolarization - CORRECT ANSWER the state of cellular stimulation that proceeds contraction, the electrical charge is reversed and the inside becomes positive. most important electrical event in the heart as it cause the heart to contract and pump the blood. REMEMBER D. DEPOLARIZATION=ELECTRICAL DISCHARGE Repolarization - CORRECT ANSWER follows contraction when the heart returns to neutral and the heart relaxes allow the chambers to refill REMEMBER R. REPOLARIZATION=REST & RECOVERY The EGC waveform - CORRECT ANSWER the recorded electrical activity produced during depolarization and repolarization isoelectric line - CORRECT ANSWER period of no electrical activity, also known as the baseline P-wave - CORRECT ANSWER represents atrial depolarization with the resulting atrial contraction. SA node. ATRIAL DEPOLARIZATION Normal=less than .10 Anything to do with p-waves is atrium PR Segment - CORRECT ANSWER Delay at AV node PR interval - CORRECT ANSWER represents time from when electrical impulse is initiated until the ventricles are simulated (another words, how long it was held in AV node) Normal=.12-.20, measure by counting small boxes from beginning of p wave to beginning of QRS and multiple this number by .04 QRS - CORRECT ANSWER represents ventricular depolarization with the resulting ventricular contraction, the time it takes the electrical impulse to travel through AV node down the bundle branches to the purkinje fibers. this is the heart beat you feel or hear. VENTRICULAR DEPOLARIZATION Normal=.04-.10 Q-wave - CORRECT ANSWER if there it is the first negative deflection before R wave. Normal q wave is 1/4 height of R-wave. Pathologic Q waves (deeper) are a sign of previous myocardial infarction R-wave - CORRECT ANSWER first positive wave, represents conduction of electrical activity to left ventricle. Area of heart=bundle branches bicuspid and tricuspid valve closes. ventricular excitement complete, Purkinje fibers S-wave - CORRECT ANSWER first negative deflection after R wave, represents electrical conduction thru both ventricles ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER measured from end of s wave to beginning of T wave. Normal is on the isoelectric line. if elevated or depressed it could reflect ischemia Ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER lack of blood supply to an area of tissue due to blockage in circulation to the area T-wave - CORRECT ANSWER represents ventricular repolarization, ventricles relax and semilunar valve close. (Aortic and pulmonary valves) U-wave - CORRECT ANSWER represents VENTRICULAR REPOLARIZATION having a U wave could mean low potassium J point - CORRECT ANSWER junction of QRS and ST interval Atrial repolarization - CORRECT ANSWER hidden in QRS do not se on ECG one small box= - CORRECT ANSWER .04 seconds or 40 milliseconds one large box= - CORRECT ANSWER .20 seconds or 200 milliseconds five large boxes= - CORRECT ANSWER 1.0 second or 1000 miliseconds 15 large boxes= - CORRECT ANSWER 3 seconds, there are marks every three seconds on bottom of pink ECG paper 3 common ways to measure heart rate - CORRECT ANSWER R-R (300) method (semi accurate), 6 second method (generic), and the 1500 method (most accurate) measuring heart rate with small boxes formula (1500 method) - CORRECT ANSWER 1500 divided by number of small boxes between one QRS or p-wave to the next measuring heart rate quick method (6 second method) - CORRECT ANSWER count number of QRS in six second strip and times by ten Measuring heart rate with big box formula (300 method) - CORRECT ANSWER count large boxes and divide the total into 300 Calculating heart rate with measurement of the R-R Interval - CORRECT ANSWER 1 box between=300bpm & .2 seconds between beats 2 box between=150bpm & .4 seconds between beats 3 box between=100bpm & .6 seconds between beats 4 box between=75bpm & .8 seconds between beats 5 box between=60bpm & 1.0 seconds between beats 6 box between=50bpm & 1.2 seconds between beats measuring pauses - CORRECT ANSWER count number of small boxes between 2 QRS and times by .04 Precordial leads - CORRECT ANSWER The chest leads, located in front of heart (pre-in front, cordial-heart) Each chest lead begins with letter V (V1, V2, V3,V4, V5, V6) And record activity between 6 points in the heart. unipolar leads because they measure in one direction only Correct order for analyzing ECG strip is - CORRECT ANSWER Rhythm (is it regular?) Rate, P-waves, PRI, then QRS. Now you can give Interpretation Bipolar leads - CORRECT ANSWER Measure flow of electrical current in two directions at same time. Are the Standard limb leads, I (records tracing from right arm to left arm), II (records from right arm to left leg), and III (records tracing from left arm to left leg). Forms a triangle known as Einthoven triangle Augmented leads (called this because ECG machine increases tracing size so it is readable) - CORRECT ANSWER aVR, aVl, and aVF, record midway between points of Einthoven triangle. Unipolar leads because they measure between one electrode on body in one direction What word represents a "slightly irregular" rhythm (usually caused by respiration? - CORRECT ANSWER Arrhythmia Key point to differentiating between supraventricular and ventricular: - CORRECT ANSWER Supraventricular complexes and rhythms have a normal QRS duration (.06-.10 secs) Ventricular complexes and rhythms have a wide QRS duration .12 sec or greater - CORRECT ANSWER [Show Less]
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CRAT Study Guide Exam 38 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Study Guide Exam 38 Questions with Verified Answers Normal PRI interval - CORRECT ANSWER 0.12-0.20 Normal QRS interval - CORRECT ANSWER 0.11 or ... [Show More] less What does the P wave represent? - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial depolarization What does the QRS complex represent? - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial repolarization and ventricular depolarization Q wave indicates what? - CORRECT ANSWER Dead myocardial tissue. Always a negative deflection What is the natural pacemaker of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER SA node 3 types of pacemakers - CORRECT ANSWER 1) single (either RA or RV) 2) dual chamber (RA and LV) 3) bi-ventricular (RV and LV --> Congestive Heart Failure) Which HB would you NOT need a pacemaker for? - CORRECT ANSWER First-degree AV block (prolonged PRI >0.20 seconds) Define intrinsic beats - CORRECT ANSWER The patient's own heart beat What is sensing? - CORRECT ANSWER The ability for the heart to sense and respond to the electrical activity of the heart What is capture? - CORRECT ANSWER The pacemaker sends a stimulus to the heart which causes the heart to depolarize Failure to sense - CORRECT ANSWER Lack of pacemaker spikes where they should have been. Battery can be dead. Failure to capture (loss of capture) - CORRECT ANSWER No P or QRS after the pacemaker spike Undersensing - CORRECT ANSWER Pacemaker spikes in areas where they should not be (i.e. in the T wave, an ST segment, or on top of another QRS) Cardioversion vs. Defibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER Cardioversion: to change the heart rhythm (usually from SVT to sinus) Defibrillation: only used for pulseless VT and v-fib Pacemaker inhibition - CORRECT ANSWER Pacemaker doesn't work because it senses the heart is beating at or above the programmed rate A-V sequential pacing - CORRECT ANSWER When the pacemaker paces both the atrium and the ventricle No pacemaker spikes is... - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to sense Pacemaker spikes with no P wave or QRS following it... - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to capture Causes of wandering baseline - CORRECT ANSWER Respiration or by lotion/sweat on the skin interfering with the signal Causes of 60-cycle interference - CORRECT ANSWER Electrodes not properly applied, EKG machine not properly grounded, r by too many electrical devices nearby. How to fix 60-cycle interference - CORRECT ANSWER Unplug and re-plug somewhere else. What does 60-cycle interference look like? - CORRECT ANSWER Fat highlighter marks on baseline Causes of somatic tremor artifact - CORRECT ANSWER Patient keeps moving, Parkinson's disease How to fix somatic tremor artifact - CORRECT ANSWER Make sure leads are not placed over muscle and instead placed on bone, help patient relax, give a blanket. What causes leads reversed? - CORRECT ANSWER When the leads are placed on opposite limbs (i.e. left arm and right arm are switched) Lead I connects what? - CORRECT ANSWER Right arm to left arm Lead II connects what? - CORRECT ANSWER Right arm to left leg Lead III connects what? - CORRECT ANSWER Left arm to left leg Lead I, II, and III are what kind of leads? - CORRECT ANSWER Bipolar (also frontal because they only show the front of the heart) What makes Einthoven's Triangle? - CORRECT ANSWER Connecting leads I, II, and III at their ends Memory method for calculating heart rate - CORRECT ANSWER 300-150-100-75-60-50-43-37-33-30 Length of time for one small box - CORRECT ANSWER 0.04 seconds Amplitude for one small box - CORRECT ANSWER ? Chart speed - CORRECT ANSWER 25 mm/s Gain - CORRECT ANSWER Normally set to 1 While in the resting state, myocytes are polarized and the interior of the cell becomes ________-ly charged - CORRECT ANSWER Negative When cells contract, they become _______. (Negative or positive) - CORRECT ANSWER Positive [Show Less]
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CCI CRAT Exam Practice Test 2|67 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CCI CRAT Exam Practice Test 2|67 Questions with Verified Answers When the technician is performing a 12 lead EKG, how many electrodes are used to record... [Show More] the 12 views of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 When the technician is performing a 12 lead EKG, there would be 10 electrodes used to record the 12 leads or views of the heart. Twelve leads doesn't necessarily mean 12 electrodes. Segments and waveforms on an ECG would include all but which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER TB wave Segments and waveforms on an ECG would include:PR interval QRS complexQT intervalP waveST segmentU waveT wave The parasympathetic nervous system would do which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above The parasympathetic nervous system would:Slow the patient's heart rateEnhance digestionDecrease the patient's blood pressureIs mediated by acetylcholine If the contact on a electrode is not conducting well or the placement is wrong, which of the following could occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Wandering baseline If the contact on a electrode is not conducting well or the placement is wrong, it could cause a wandering baseline. The wandering baseline can also be caused by chest wall during respiration. When interpreting a cardiac rhythm strip, all of the following would be considered steps except? - CORRECT ANSWER Determining the age of the patient When interpreting a cardiac rhythm strip, there are 5 steps: Examine all of the components and the shape of the waveforms. Check the position of the P wave. Determine if all the complexes are alike. Determine the rate of the rhythm and if it is normal or abnormal. Evaluate if the rhythm is regular or irregular. Which of the following is the typical maximum length for a PR interval? - CORRECT ANSWER 0.20 seconds is the typical maximum length for PR interval. This of course can vary with heart rate from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. Which of the following artifact results from electrical equipment, mobile telephones, and electrical power lines? - CORRECT ANSWER Electromagnetic interference, also known as 60 cycle interference, is artifact caused by electrical equipment, mobile telephones, and electrical power lines. To minimize 60 cycle interference (or 60 Hz pickup), the technician should set the diagnostic mode of the 12-lead electrocardiogram monitor to 0.05-40 Hz. With the low frequency/high pass filter set to 0.05 the monitor should produce accurate ST-segments. In the 1,500 method for calculating atrial rate, the technician should count which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Squares between two consecutive P waves To calculate atrial rate with the 1,500 method, the technician would tally the little squares between two consecutive P waves and then divide 1,500 by that amount. There are 1,500 small squares in a one minute rhythm strip. Which of the following would not be considered a patient area of education? - CORRECT ANSWER Providing financial counseling There are 4 areas of patient education: 1.Restoration of health 2.Maintenance and promotion 3.Coping with new illness or impairment 4.Prevention of illness and injury All of the following medications could cause bradycardia except? - CORRECT ANSWER NSAIDs Bradycardia can be caused by the following medications: Beta-adrenergic blockers Digoxin Calcium channel blockers Lithium Antiarrhythmics (sotalol, amiodarone, propafenone, and quinidine) Generally, the chest leads are oriented through which of the following to project through the patient's back? - CORRECT ANSWER AV node The chest leads should be oriented through the AV node to project through the patient's back, which is a negative charge to the leads positive charge. The plane of the chest leads is called the horizontal plane and it effectively separates the patient's body into top and bottom halves. When setting up limb leads and placing them in equal distances from the heart, it is typically known as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Einthoven's triangle When setting up limb leads and placing them in equal distances from the heart, it is typically known at Einthoven's triangle. The leads will form a equilateral triangle with the right arm electrode being negative. Standards of conduct or behavior as defined by your profession and place of employment are known as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Code of ethics A code of ethics is a set of standards of conduct or behavior as defined by a professional group. A healthcare professional must follow the code of ethics set forth by their place of employment and profession. The left atria and which of the following would be considered a chamber of the human heart? - CORRECT ANSWER Right atria The human heart consist of four chambers: Left atria Left ventricle Right atria Right ventricle When evaluating pacemaker function, the evidence seen when viewing the cardiac tracing on the heart monitor is known as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Electrical capture When evaluating pacemaker function, the word capture is used to mean two different things. Electrical capture is the evidence we see when viewing the cardiac tracing on the heart monitor or ECG. Mechanical capture is the heart's ability to respond to the electrical impulses that are being delivered to the heart. Report a problem with this question When three or more PVC's happen in a row, it's considered which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular tachycardia When three or more PVC's happen in a row, it's considered ventricular tachycardia.This type of arrhythmia can cause ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following is the ECG equivalent of asystole? - CORRECT ANSWER Flat line Patient education objectives could include all of the following except? - CORRECT ANSWER Decrease the patient's quality of care Patient education objectives could include: Prevention Increasing patient satisfaction Empowerment Improving the outcome and/or health of the patient Enhancing the quality of care Reducing the risk of malpractice Lower utilization of the healthcare services When performing a 12 lead EKG on a patient using a portable machine, the technician sees a red line appearing at the bottom of the EKG paper. Which of the following would be considered the appropriate intervention for the technician to do? - CORRECT ANSWER Replace the EKG paper once the test is completed. When performing an EKG, if there is a red line which appears on the bottom of the paper, it indicates that the machine is running out of paper. Typically there is enough paper left to complete the test, so it should be completed but the paper should be replaced before performing the next EKG. Of the following, which person typically monitors and test a patient's cardiovascular performance using ECG equipment? - CORRECT ANSWER Electrocardiogram technician The electrocardiogram technician (ECG technician) monitors and test a patient's cardiovascular performance using ECG equipment. The technician then provides this information to the physician for later analysis. The ECG is considered to be one of the fastest and simplest ways to evaluate a patient's heart. Which of the following would be considered a good intervention after the ECG is recorded? - CORRECT ANSWER Compare to prior reading. Always follow the policies and procedures for the facility for filing the ECG recording. Once the recording is completed, the technician should visually compare it to any prior recordings that have been done. An irregular rhythm caused by an extra beat occurring before the regular beat is which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Premature junctional contraction Premature junctional contraction (PJC) is an extra beat that causes the irregular rhythm because it happens before the regular beat. When the PJC produces these beats it depolarizes the atria in retrograde. Which of the following happens when the ventricles are in diastole and the aortic valve is closed? - CORRECT ANSWER Coronary arteries fill Coronary arteries fill when the ventricles are in diastole and the aortic valve is closed. At this point the aortic valve is no longer blocking the coronary ostium, so the blood can flow through it. Report a problem with this question In which of the following circumstances might sinus tachycardia be considered normal? - CORRECT ANSWER Both A and B There are certain circumstances when sinus tachycardia might be considered normal. One of these is if the patient is highly stressed and another would be if the patient is exercising. In a 12 lead ECG, which of the following is the number of limb leads there are? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 In a 12 lead ECG there are 3 bipolar limb leads and 3 unipolar limb leads. According to OSHA standards, the use of which of the following is necessary in performing an ECG procedure safely? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above According to OSHA standards, technicians must follow the following guidelines while performing an ECG procedure: Body mechanics- the use of movements that maintain proper posture and avoid muscle and bone injuries Standard precautions- procedures like hand hygiene, wearing gloves, wearing gowns, etc that are employed with all patients and are in place to prevent the spread of infection Isolation precautions- a second level of procedures that are employed to prevent the spread of infection when a specific infection is suspected or known. IE. Separating infected patients from others, personal protective equipment A tract of tissue that extends into the ventricles next to the interventricular septum is known as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER His bundle The His bundle is a tract of tissue that extends into the ventricles next to the interventricular septum and resumes the rapid conduction of the electrical impulse through the ventricles. The bundle eventually divides into the right and left bundle branches. The heart's ability to stretch is known as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Contractility Contractility is the heart's ability to stretch. The ability of muscle cells to contract following depolarization is an example of the heart's contractility. Contractility depends on the amount the muscle fibers are stretched at the end of diastole. If the EKG technician has extra training and can apply a Holter monitor for a patient, which of the following would be considered the first thing they should do? - CORRECT ANSWER Educate the patient If an EKG technician has extra training and can apply a Holter monitor for a patient, they would educate the patient first. Once the education is completed, they should gather the equipment and prepare it, place the electrodes on the chest, and then hook the equipment up. The most important action required for patient care in a medical facility is which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Communication Communication is the most important action required for patient care in a medical facility. The patient must communicate with health care providers about their history, symptoms, medications, allergies, etc. The communication between health care providers is equally as important. Nurses, technicians, and physicians must properly communicate in order to provide appropriate care. Lead 2 would be considered a combination of which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER aVR and aVF Lead 1 would be a combination of aVR and aVL. Lead 2 would be considered a combination of aVR and aVF. Lead 3 would be a combination of aVL and aVF. One small box on the above graph paper that is used for cardiac rhythms would equal ______ seconds? - CORRECT ANSWER 0.04 One small box on the above graph paper that is used for cardiac rhythms would equal 0.04 seconds. 1500 small boxes would equal 60 seconds. Of the following statements, which would not be considered correct regarding a pacemaker? - CORRECT ANSWER A pacemaker can only be external. The following statements would be considered correct regarding a pacemaker: A pacemaker can be internal or external.An internal pacemaker must be placed in surgery. A pacemaker generates an impulse from a power source which is transmitted to the heart muscle. In an emergency situation, a temporary pacemaker can be inserted at the bedside or ER. Dyspnea would be best described as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Shortness of breath Cardiology is considered the study of the heart. Pulmonary refers to the lungs A sudden drop in the blood flow through a patient's body which causes the circulatory system to be unable to maintain an adequate blood flow would be considered shock. Dyspnea is considered to be shortness of breath. Artifact that occurs when the tracing drifts away from the center of the graph paper is known as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Wandering baseline Wandering baseline, or baseline shift, is artifact that happens when the tracing drifts away from the center of the graph paper. Wandering baseline can have multiple causes, most commonly improper electrode application. Which of the following does the Q wave represent? - CORRECT ANSWER Initial negative pulse of ventricle depolarization The Q wave represents the initial negative pulse of ventricle depolarization.This is the beginning of the QRS complex When there is no electrical activity occurring or there is too little activity, the waveform resembles a straight line and is called which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Isoelectric waveform An isoelectric waveform resembles a straight line. The ECG is not sensing proper electrical activity. The activity may be non-existent or just to weak to sense. Of the following, which would be considered the appropriate term for an individual that helps the patient seek information and resources? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient advocate A patient advocate would be considered an individual that helps the patient seek information and resources. This can be done either formally or informally. They also can help to resolve issues with the health-care system. With an EKG, the voltage may be considered which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Negative With an EKG, the voltage may be considered: Positive Negative Isoelectric When would sinus tachycardia not be considered normal for a patient? - CORRECT ANSWER When sleeping Sinus tachycardia would be considered normal with the patient that is in the process of a stress test or exercising.Sinus tachycardia would have a rate of 100-150 beats per minute. Leads I and AVL are called which of the following because each has a positive electrode positioned on the left arm? - CORRECT ANSWER Lateral leads Leads I and AVL are called lateral leads due to both leads being positive electrodes located laterally on the left arm. Leads II, III, and AVF are called the inferior leads due to each of these leads having a positive electrode located inferiorly on the left foot. The PR interval is measured on the ________ axis of the electrocardiogram? - CORRECT ANSWER Horizontal The PR interval is measured on the horizontal axis of the electrocardiogram. The PR interval is normally measured from the start of the P wave until the start of the adjacent QRS interval. The PR interval tracks the atrial impulse from the atria through the AV node, bundle of His, and right and left bundle branches. When assessing a rhythm strip for junctional tachycardia, the technician should look for a rate of which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER 100-200 bpm Junctional tachycardia has a rate of 100-200 bpm. The rhythm strip will show an inverted P wave that can occur prior to, during, or following the QRS complex. Report a problem with this question Which of the following pacemaker complications leads to the pacemaker sending current to the heart during relaxation phase? - CORRECT ANSWER Malsensing Malsensing is when the pacemaker does not sense the patient's own intrinsic rate. The pacemaker might send current to the heart during repolarization (relaxation phase). This is known as pacemaker competition with the patient's own heart. Once patient education is completed, which of the following would be considered the next step in the process? - CORRECT ANSWER Document Once patient education is completed, the next step in the process would be documentation. If the education isn't documented, then legally, it wasn't done. Always take credit for your work, even if it took only a few minutes. Prior to performing an ECG examination, the technician should do which of the following first? - CORRECT ANSWER Verify the physicians orders The first step the ECG technician should take is to verify the physicians orders for the exam. The orders should be evaluated for any information about the patient that may be crucial knowledge for the exam such as if the patient has a pacemaker. The space that is between two waves would be considered a ___________? - CORRECT ANSWER Segment The space that is between two waves would be considered a segment. An example of a segment would be considered the PR segment that starts after the P wave and then ends at the beginning of the QRS complex. If one idioventricular beat happens at a time, they are referred to as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular Escape beat If one idioventricular beat happens at a time, they are referred to as a ventricular escape beat.These appear late in the conduction cycle if the rate drops to 40 bpm or below. The lateral leads would be considered which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER I The high lateral leads would be considered the following: I aVL V5 V6 Which of the following causes the most cases of sudden cardiac death in people outside of a hospital? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation, also known as V-fib, causes the most cases of sudden cardiac death in people outside of a hospital. Ventricular fibrillation is an extremely chaotic form of electrical activity in the ventricles during which electrical impulses originate from numerous different foci. The lethal aspect of this arrhythmia is that it produces no effective muscular contraction and no cardiac output. Prior to calling a physician, the ECG technician should be well prepared for any questions. All but which of the following would be correct for information they should know prior to calling? - CORRECT ANSWER The patient's insurance type Prior to calling the physician, the ECG technician should be well prepared to answer questions.They should have information gathered such as: Know the admitting diagnosis. Have all information available prior to calling the physician. Review the chart to determine the correct physician to call. Assess the patientRead the most recent progress note. Have these items available: Allergies Meds IV fluids Labs/results Chart Chest lead electrodes are always which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Positive The electrodes for chest leads are always positive. Chest lead electrodes are positive and are positioned to go through the AV node to the patients back, which is negative. An essential part of patient care that is a major HIPAA standard is which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Confidentiality The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was formed to provide patients with security for their medical data. Confidentiality is an essential part of patient care and is a basic right of every patient. Patient information should not be made public or shared with anyone who is not responsible for the patients care. If the physician prescribes in writing or in an electronic health record for a patient, it would be considered which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Physician orders When physician prescribes in writing or in an electronic health record for a patient, it would be considered physician orders.These orders can also be written by the nurse or any party that has privileges to write these orders for the physician. This would always depend on the policies and procedures of each facility. When evaluating a QRS complex the technician should concentrate on the duration and which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Configuration Configuration and duration are the primary mechanisms to concentrate on when evaluating a QRS complex. A normal QRS complex has the following duration and configuration: Duration-0.06 to 0.12 second or about half the PR Interval. Configuration-consists of the Q wave, the R wave, and the S wave. All three waves may not always be evident on the ECG Ventricular depolarization begins at the lining of the ventricles and moves toward which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Epicardium Ventricular depolarization begins at the lining of the ventricles and moves toward the outside surface, called the epicardium. The Purkinje fibers branch and subdivide just under the endocardial lining, however, they do no penetrate into the myocardium. The T wave generally resembles which of the following on an ECG? - CORRECT ANSWER A short, broad hump The T wave generally resembles a short, broad hump. It's shape aside, it represents the rapid phase of ventricular repolarization. Repolarization of the ventricles begins right after the QRS complex and persists until the end of the T wave. Which of the following is required for the heart to pump? - CORRECT ANSWER All of the above All of the following would be required for the heart to pump: Electrical impulse Automaticity Excitability Contractility Conductivity Of the following, which would be considered unipolar leads? - CORRECT ANSWER aVL The unipolar leads would include: aVL aVR aVF Which of the following distinguishes atrial fibrillation on an EKG strip? - CORRECT ANSWER Irregular ventricular response and an absence of p waves Irregular ventricular response and an absence of p waves distinguish atrial fibrillation on an EKG strip. The AV node will filter some of the impulses blocking them from the ventricles. Which of the following might be considered the most common legal claim that could be brought against a healthcare provider? - CORRECT ANSWER Correct Answer:Negligence The most common legal claim that could be brought against a healthcare provider would be considered negligence. This would be considered to be correct for when a person fails to use the degree of care that would be appropriate to the circumstances that results in an unintended injury to another. In regards to a temporary pacemaker, which of the following would not be considered correct? - CORRECT ANSWER Is implanted into the patient's chest In regards to a temporary pacemaker, the following would be considered correct: Is powered by an alkaline batteryIs connected to lead wires which are inserted into the heart of the patientIs a small exterior box A temporary pacemaker is typically placed during an emergency. This is a small exterior box which is powered by alkaline batteries. The lead wires are placed into the heart of the patient or can potentially be used with electrode pads that are placed on the patient's chest (sometimes not as effective). Which of the following houses a battery, electronic circuitry for pacemaker settings, and a lead connector? - CORRECT ANSWER Pulse generator The pulse generator is part of the pacemaker system that houses a battery, electronic circuitry for pacemaker settings, and a lead connector. The other part of a pacemaker system is the pacing lead. Report a problem with this question From the start of the QRS to the finishing of the T wave would be considered which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER QT interval From the start of the QRS to the finishing of the T wave would be considered the QT interval. The measurement would start where the Q wave first starts and then is finished when the T wave stops. This represents the ventricular activity. On the rhythm strip, if there is a early beat showing randomly but most of the strip shows normal sinus rhythm, it is called which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER PJC On the rhythm strip if there is a early beat showing randomly but most of the strip shows normal sinus rhythm, it is called premature junctional contraction (PJC). This starts in the AV junction which is what normally acts as the pacemaker for the heart. Of the following, which supplies the most blood to the SA node? - CORRECT ANSWER Right coronary arteries The right coronary arteries supply approximately 60-70% of the blood to the SA node. The SA node is supplied blood by the SA node artery which is supplied blood by the following coronary arteries: The right coronary arteries (approximately 60-70%) The left circumflex arteries (approximately 20-30%) Of the following, which would be considered the most serious of the heart blocks? - CORRECT ANSWER Third degree The third degree heart block (complete heart block) would be considered the most serious of all the heart blocks. It can be considered life threatening and can lead to cardiac arrest if not treated immediately. [Show Less]
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CRAT prep test #1|51 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT prep test #1|51 Questions with Verified Answers Which of the following has enhanced a patient's right to control his or her own health information,... [Show More] making it necessary to handle ECG tracings confidentially? - CORRECT ANSWER HIPAA (Hospitality insurance portability accountability act) Electrical safety is maintained while performing an ECG by all of the following except: - CORRECT ANSWER removing any electrical equipment from the patient's body. After completing the ECG procedure, which of the following tasks is not included in the ECG technician's responsibly? - CORRECT ANSWER Interpret the ECG and explain the results to the patient. Which of the following is least likely to help the ECG technician maintain infection control while performing an ECG procedure? - CORRECT ANSWER Be sure the patient is not touching the bed frame. You are about to record an ECG on a patient who has Parkinson's disease. What measures can you take to prevent somatic tremors from being recorded on the ECG recording? - CORRECT ANSWER Have the patient put his or her hands, palms down, under the buttocks. What must you always check prior to performing any procedure on a patient? - CORRECT ANSWER The patient's name and identification number. What is the term for an oppressive pain or pressure in the chest when the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen due to partial or complete blockage of a coronary artery? - CORRECT ANSWER Angina Which of the following is an instrument that records the electrical activity of the heart during a patient's normal daily activities? - CORRECT ANSWER Ambulatory monitor What is somatic tremor - CORRECT ANSWER What is wandering baseline - CORRECT ANSWER What is AC interference? - CORRECT ANSWER It is an artifact caused by electrical interference When you have completed a routine ECG how should you report the results? - CORRECT ANSWER Use the method required by the facility where you are working continuous ECG monitoring done in a hospital setting is known as? - CORRECT ANSWER telemetry monitoring HIPPA stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act which of the following is not implied consent? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient signing a consent form for a treadmill stress test who should sign the consent form if a patient cannot read or write? - CORRECT ANSWER a family member of the patient you have a patient that can only sign an "X" on the consent form you need to: - CORRECT ANSWER explain the procedure to the patient with a witness present have the patient place a "X" on the form and have the witness sign the form also. which device recognizes an abnormal rhythm and deliver an electric shock to the heart if necessary? - CORRECT ANSWER AED the single most important thing you can do to prevent the spread of infection while performing ecgs is to: - CORRECT ANSWER perform proper hygiiene patients with permanent pacemakers may require monitoring for 30 days or more. what type of ambulatory monitoring is most commonly used in these patients? - CORRECT ANSWER transtelephonic monitoring which type of ambulatory monitoring is performed in a hospital? - CORRECT ANSWER telemetry monitoring which of the following instructions would be given to a patient scheduled for ambulatory monitoring? - CORRECT ANSWER wear a loose fitting shirt preferably one that buttons down the front, and you will be more comfortable during the procedure for telemetry monitoring, why is it recommended tghat chest hair should be clipped not shaved? - CORRECT ANSWER clipping reduces the chance that the patient will scratch the skin causing an artifact on the tracing while you are preparing mrs. trevor for ambulatory monitoring, she asks you a question that you cannot answer. what should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER ask your supervisor or the licensed practitioner what does ambulating mean? - CORRECT ANSWER walking what does the electrocardiogram or ecg study? - CORRECT ANSWER the electrical activity of the heart what devices enables lay rescuers to help a patient with a sudden cardiac arrest - CORRECT ANSWER automatic external defibrillator(AED) your patient states "i do not want that electricity going through me!" as you are getting ready to perform an ecg on him. the best response is to: - CORRECT ANSWER explain that the ecg machine is not harmful and does not produce electricity an electrocardigraph is - CORRECT ANSWER instrument used to record a tracing of the heart's electrical activity which of the following is not a basic function of electrocardiograph? - CORRECT ANSWER Analysis signal prcocessing which occurs inside the ecg - CORRECT ANSWER amplifies the electrical impulse which type of electrode is most commonly used to perform an ecg - CORRECT ANSWER disposable what is the difference between continuous cardia monitoring and a routing ecg - CORRECT ANSWER placement of the electrodes is different how many leads re attatched to a patient's chest with ambulatory monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER 3-5 leads which iof the following is not a reason to use an ambulatory monitor - CORRECT ANSWER to evaluate oxygen utilization by the mycardium what are the two most common types of ambulatory monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER continuous and intermittent which type of monitoring requires the patient to activate the monitoring when experiencing symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER transtelephonic postsymptom event monitor which of the following devices should a patient avoid while wearing an ambulatory monitor - CORRECT ANSWER electric blankets what is normal PRI? - CORRECT ANSWER 0.12-0.20 seconds normal QT interval - CORRECT ANSWER 0.36-0.44 qrs complex - CORRECT ANSWER 0.06-0.12 what is myocardium? - CORRECT ANSWER middle layer of the heart, composed of muscle tissue what is angina? - CORRECT ANSWER pain around the heart caused by lack of oxygen myocardial infarction is - CORRECT ANSWER heart attack speed(control) is - CORRECT ANSWER controls how fast the machine records input is - CORRECT ANSWER the data that are entered into the ecg machine signal processing - CORRECT ANSWER it amplifies the electrical impulse output display - CORRECT ANSWER displays the tracing for the electrical activity what type of valve is mitral/bicuspid and tricuspid? - CORRECT ANSWER av valves where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER between the L atria /ventricle Aortic and pulmonary ? - CORRECT ANSWER semilunar valves [Show Less]
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CRAT Prep Exam 289 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Prep Exam 289 Questions with Verified Answers 1. In addition to recording the ECG and preparing the report, an ECG technician must be able to: A... [Show More] . Determine if the tracing is accurate and recognize if interference causes abnormalities during the recording process. B. Evaluate tracing, recognize abnormal heart rhythms, and report abnormalities to the appropriate health care professionals. C. Maintain patient records and evaluate tracings. D. Perform ultrasounds on blood vessels and assist with angioplasty. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Determine if the tracing is accurate and recognize if interference causes abnormalities during the recording process. 2. Monitor technicians record an ECG tracing and place it into the patient record, but they must perform which of the following? A. Assist the physician with angioplasty. B. Perform an ultrasound of blood vessels. C. Prepare an ECG report. D. Evaluate the tracing and recognize abnormal rhythms. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Evaluate the tracing and recognize abnormal rhythms. 3. Which of the following employees assists the physician with invasive cardiovascular diagnostic tests such as angioplasty, heart surgery, or implantation of artificial pacemakers? A. ECG technician B. Cardiovascular technologist C. Medical assistant D. Monitor technician - CORRECT ANSWER B. Cardiovascular technologist 4. Which of the following is considered an unethical act but is not necessarily illegal? A. Reporting blood pressure results of a stress test incorrectly, resulting in a heart attach to the patient. B. Taking a break when you are required to be viewing multiple patient's heart rhythms. C. Deciding to keep a $10 bill you find on the patient's bedside table. D. Keeping the door open to the patient's room when you expose his or her body to perform an ECG. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Keeping the door open to the patient's room when you expose his or her body to perform an ECG. 5. Which of these is the responsibility of an ECG technician? A. Evaluating electrical tracings on a monitor. B. Recording the ECG and preparing the report for the physician. C. Assisting with invasive procedures. D. Evaluating the rhythm. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Recording the ECG and preparing the report for the physician. 6. Which of the following BEST describes the universal and standards precautions? A. Universal precautions are practiced on patients in isolation and standard precautions are practiced on all patients. B. Universal precautions are practiced on all patients with or without an identified infection and stand precautions are only practiced on isolated patients. C. Universal precautions and standard precautions are the same. D. Standard precautions combine universal precautions and body substance isolation. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Standard precautions combine universal precautions and body substance isolation. 7. What type of ECG procedure is being performed? - Patient is laying down with leads placed on him while the technician records. A. Telemetry monitoring B. Treadmill ECG stress test C. Transtelephonic ECG monitoring D. 12-lead ECG - CORRECT ANSWER D. 12-lead ECG 8. A photo features the first ECG machine, which weighed about 600 lbs and took 6 people to operate. Which scientist won the Nobel prize for this invention? A. Augusta D. Waller B. Wilhelm Einthoven C. Sir Thomas Lewis D. James B. Herrick - CORRECT ANSWER B. Wilhelm Einthoven 9. Which of the following ECG procedures is almost ALWAYS performed in a hospital or in-patient facility? A. Continuous Monitoring B. Ambulatory monitoring C. Treadmill stress test D. Transtelephonic monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER A. Continuous Monitoring 10. Which of the following is preformed as a routine procedure or during an emergency in the hospital setting? A. Treadmill stress test B. 12-lead ECG C. Ambulatory monitoring D. Telemetry monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER B. 12-lead ECG 11. Based on the American Heart Association's recommendations for reduction or prevention of heart disease and stroke, which patient has done the most to reduce his risk? A. Paul Thomas stopped smoking 15 years ago and has maintained a healthy weight by exercising at least 30 minutes every day and eating a well-balanced diet. B. James Jones has never smoked, he has a sedentary job that has him in the office 6 days a week. Because his work schedule, he gets almost no exercise and east fast food frequently. C. Carlton Castle stopped smoking last week, but has not increased his physical activity because he becomes short of breath easily. He lives alone and tends to snack rather than eat regular meals. D. Jack Zeus walks every day and east a fairly well-balanced diet. He has reduced his smoking from one pack per day to a half-pack of low tar cigarettes per day. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Paul Thomas stopped smoking 15 years ago and has maintained a healthy weight by exercising at least 30 minutes every day and eating a well-balanced diet. 12. Which of the following enables lay rescuers to help a person in sudden cardiac arrest? A. Automatic External Defibrillator (AED) B. Holter monitor C. ECG monitor with defibrillator D. Transtelephonic monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER A. Automatic External Defibrillator (AED) 13. Document clear and complete information to provide continuity of care and protect yourself legally. Which is NOT proper documentation in the patient's medical record? A. The ECG was performed at 10:00am and Mr. Smith tolerated the procedure well. B. Mr. Janes complained of check pain during the ECG. Dr. Jackson was notified. C. I did not perform the ECG because Mr. Harris is an old drunk and is nasty and dirty. D. The ECG was ordered because Mr. Henderson complained of shortness of breath and check pain. - CORRECT ANSWER C. I did not perform the ECG because Mr. Harris is an old drunk and is nasty and dirty. 14. The ECG tracing provides critical information about the patient and misdiagnosis could result if the tracing is: A. Too long B. Inaccurate C. Filed in the correct patient record D. Ordered to be run STAT - CORRECT ANSWER B. Inaccurate 15. Which of the following is an unethical act that is also illegal? A. Acting unprofessionally and being disrespectful towards a patient or co-worker. B. Reporting the blood pressure results of a stress test incorrectly and resulting in a myocardial infarction to the patient. C. Exposing the patient's body when preforming any procedure? D. Skipping a mandatory continuing education class. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Reporting the blood pressure results of a stress test incorrectly and resulting in a myocardial infarction to the patient. 16. You perform an ECG on a patient in contact isolation. You removed the gloves and gown when you left the room. What other actions should you take? A. No other actions are needed. B. You should wash your hands. C. Wash your hands and decontaminate your ECG machine. D. Wash your hands and put on a clean gown and gloves. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Wash your hands and decontaminate your ECG machine. 17. Of the following health care employees, which is LEAST likely to perform a 12-lead ECG? A. Respiratory therapist B. Physician C. Physical therapist D. Specially trained nursing assistant - CORRECT ANSWER C. Physical therapist 18. Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an ECG? A. To diagnose changed in the heart rhythm. B. To monitor people with heart conditions. C. To check for problems with the flow of blood through the heart. D. To evaluate the effectiveness of cardiac medications. - CORRECT ANSWER C. To check for problems with the flow of blood through the heart. 19. What is the best source of information regarding the specific type of ECG machine you are using? A. Your supervisor B. Manufacturer's directions C. Your co-worker D. The procedure manual - CORRECT ANSWER B. Manufacturer's directions 20. Identify AED in pictures. - CORRECT ANSWER D 21. Telemedicine monitoring is generally used to evaluate which of the following? A. ECG tracing over a 24-48 hour period of normal activity. B. Artificial pacemaker functioning C. Heart rhythm during a Code Blue emergency D. Heart rhythm during exercise - CORRECT ANSWER B. Artificial pacemaker functioning 22. Which type of test is being performed? - Patient is walking on a treadmill while an ECG is being performed. A. Telemetry monitoring B. Holter monitoring C. Treadmill stress test D. 12-lead ECG - CORRECT ANSWER C. Treadmill stress test 23. What can you do to make the ECG a positive experience for the anxious patient? A. There is nothing you can do if the patient is anxious B. Clearly explain the procedure and answer the patient's questions. C. Instruct the patient to discuss the procedure with their physician. D. Have the nurse tell the patient to cooperate. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Clearly explain the procedure and answer the patient's questions. 24. An abnormal rhythm such as ventricular fibrillation is a medical emergency that needs immediate treatment. In addition to administration of CPR and cardiac medications, the patient will require the use of the: A. Holter monitor B. 12-lead ECG C. Telemetry monitoring D. Defibrillator - CORRECT ANSWER D. Defibrillator 25. Which might you be required to perform a "STAT" ECG? A. During telemetry monitoring B. Early in the morning before surgery C. During a code red emergency D. When a patient has check pain or changes in their cardiac rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER D. When a patient has check pain or changes in their cardiac rhythm 26. When should you wash your hands? A. Between patient contacts B. Before putting on gloves but not between patients C. After removing gloves but not between patients D. After removing gloves but not before putting them on - CORRECT ANSWER A. Between patient contacts 27. ECG are obtained in many locations. At what type of facility is the ECG procedure in this photo being performed? - Patient in hospital gown on a bed. A. Doctor's office B. Patient's home C. Acute care hospital D. Emergency vehicle - CORRECT ANSWER C. Acute care hospital 28. At what age should an individual begin to have an ECG done as part of a complete physical? A. 35 B. 40 C. 65 D. 50 - CORRECT ANSWER B. 40 29. Which statement below is correct? A. Unethical acts are always illegal, but illegal acts are not always unethical. B. Illegal acts are always unethical, but unethical acts are not always illegal. C. Illegal acts are always unethical, but ethical acts are always illegal. D. Illegal acts are always unethical, but unethical acts are not always illegal. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Illegal acts are always unethical, but unethical acts are not always illegal. 30. What type of ECG monitoring system is attached to the patient in this photo in what type of facility is it most commonly applied and removed? - Patient has electrodes placed with the device hooked to their pants. A. Treadmill test monitor; in a medical office B. Holter (ambulatory) monitor; in medical office or out-patient setting C. Telemetry monitor; in medical office D. Holter (ambulatory) monitor; in a hospital - CORRECT ANSWER B. Holter (ambulatory) monitor; in medical office or out-patient setting 31. The study of electrical activity of the heart is known as: A. Electrocardiologist B. Cardiology C. Electrocardiogram D. Electrocardiology - CORRECT ANSWER D. Electrocardiology 32. Telemedicine enables physicians to see ECG tracings from patients who live in remote areas via the machine pictured here. What type of monitor is this? - Patient is in an in-home setting with the monitor being hooked up to a landline. A. Telemetry monitor B. 12-lead ECG monitor C. Transtelephonic monitor D. Holter monitor - CORRECT ANSWER C. Transtelephonic monitor 33. What is the single most important procedure to perform to adhere to universal precautions and prevent the spread of infection? A. Gloving B. Isolation procedures C. Wearing a mask D. Hand washing - CORRECT ANSWER D. Hand washing 34. Which of the following describes "contractibility"? A. The ability of the heart muscle cells to shorten in response to an electrical stimulus. B. The ability of the heart cells to receive and transmit an electrical impulse. C. The ability of the heart to initiate an electrical impulse without being stimulated by another source. D. The ability of the heart muscle cells to respond to an impulse or stimulus. - CORRECT ANSWER A. The ability of the heart muscle cells to shorten in response to an electrical stimulus. 35. Which of the following is the outside, thin layer of the heart, containing the coronary arteries? A. Epicardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Endocardium - CORRECT ANSWER A. Epicardium 36. On the ECG waveform, what is the beginning of the atrial depolarization to the beginning of the ventricular depolarization, or the time it takes the impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node? A. QT interval B. QRS complex C. PR interval D. P wave - CORRECT ANSWER C. PR interval 37. In addition to automaticity, what involuntary system controls the heartbeat? A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Central nervous system D. Autonomic nervous system - CORRECT ANSWER D. Autonomic nervous system 38. What is the J point and why is it used? A. Ventricular depolarization and resulting ventricular contraction; used to measure the heart rate. B. The end of the QRS complex and ventricular depolarization; used to interpret ECG tracings. C. Repolarization of the bundle of HIS and purkinje fibers; used to interpret ECG tracings. D. Period of time from the start of the ventricular depolarization to the end of the ventricular repolarization. - CORRECT ANSWER B. The end of the QRS complex and ventricular depolarization; used to interpret ECG tracings. 39. What does the isoelectric line of the ECG tracing indicate? A. Positive electrical deflections B. Depolarization C. No electrical activity D. Negative electrical deflections - CORRECT ANSWER C. No electrical activity 40. Which of the following statements is MOST correct regarding pulmonary circulation? A. Pulmonary circulation is the transportation of blood between the heart and the entire body, excluding the lungs. B. Pulmonary circulation is the transportation of blood to and from the lungs. Blood is oxygenated in the lungs during pulmonary circulation. C. Pulmonary circulation is the transportation of blood to and from the lungs. Blood is deoxygenated in the lungs during pulmonary circulation. D. Pulmonary circulation is the transportation of blood between the heart and the entire body. Blood is oxygenated in the lungs during pulmonary circulation. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Pulmonary circulation is the transportation of blood to and from the lungs. Blood is oxygenated in the lungs during pulmonary circulation. 41. What is the state of cellular stimulation in the heart that causes it to contract? A. Depolarization B. Repolarization C. Polarization D. Cardiac conduction - CORRECT ANSWER A. Depolarization 42. Which of the following statements BEST describes coronary circulation? A. Circulation of blood to and from the body B. Circulation of blood to and from the lungs C. Circulation of blood to and from the heart muscle D. Circulation of oxygen throughout the body - CORRECT ANSWER C. Circulation of blood to and from the heart muscle 43. Which of the following sequences correctly identifies the pathways for conduction through the heart? A. AV node, SA node, bundle of HIS, bundle branches, purkinje fibers B. SA node, AV node, bundle branches, bundle of HIS, purkinje fibers C. SA node, AV node, bundle of HIS, purkinje fibers, bundle braches D. SA node, AV node, bundle of HIS, bundle branches, purkinje fibers - CORRECT ANSWER D. SA node, AV node, bundle of HIS, bundle branches, purkinje fibers On the ECG waveform, what represents atrial depolarization with resulting atrial contraction? A. Q wave B. T wave C. R wave D. P wave - CORRECT ANSWER D. P wave 45. On the ECG waveform, what is the ventricular repolarization? A. S wave B. P wave C. Q wave D. T wave - CORRECT ANSWER D. T wave 46. Which of the following parts of the conduction system conducts the impulses down both sides of the interventricular septum? A. Bundle branches B. Purkinje fibers C. Bundle of HIS D. AV node - CORRECT ANSWER A. Bundle branches 47. What occurs in the heart during systole and diastole? A. Systole allows blood to flow into the heart and diastole forces blood out of the heart. B. Systole forces blood out of the heart and the relaxation of the heart during diastole allows blood into the heart chambers. C. The heart contracts during both diastole and systole. D. The heart relaxes during both systole and diastole. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Systole forces blood out of the heart and the relaxation of the heart during diastole allows blood into the heart chambers. 48. On the ECG waveform, what represents the repolarization of the bundle of HIS and purkinje fibers? A. Q wave B. U wave C. P wave D. S wave - CORRECT ANSWER B. U wave 49: Structure that pumps blood into the aorta to travel through the entire body. A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER D. Left ventricle 50. On the ECG waveform, what is the period of time from the start of the ventricular depolarization to the end of ventricular repolarization? A. QT interval B. U wave C. QRS complex D. ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER A. QT interval 51. What is the term for the ability of the heart cells to receive and transmit an electrical impulse? A. Automaticity B. Excitability C. Conductivity D. Contractibility - CORRECT ANSWER C. Conductivity 52. What structure is responsible for the transporting of blood to the lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary veins D. Superior vena cava - CORRECT ANSWER B. Pulmonary artery On the waveform, what does the QRS complex represent? A. Atrial depolarization B. Ventricular depolarization and the resulting ventricular contraction C. Ventricular repolarization D. Beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization - CORRECT ANSWER B. Ventricular depolarization and the resulting ventricular contraction 54. Who labeled the waves of the ECG waveform? A. Lewis B. Waller C. Herrick D. Einthoven - CORRECT ANSWER D. Einthoven 55. Identify the bicuspid valve - CORRECT ANSWER Between the left atrium and the left ventricle. 56. Which of the following is the BEST definition for "automaticity"? A. The ability of the heart to initiate an electrical impulse without being stimulated by another source. B. The ability of the heart cells to receive and transmit an electrical impulse. C. The ability of the heart muscle to shorten in response to an electrical stimulus. D. The ability of the heart muscle cells to respond to an impulse or stimulus. - CORRECT ANSWER A. The ability of the heart to initiate an electrical impulse without being stimulated by another source. 57. Which statement best describes what is happening in the picture? - blood flow within the heart. A. The heart muscle contracts, creating pressure to open the pulmonary and aortic valves. B. Oxygenated blood from the left ventricle travels through the aorta to the coronary arteries. C. The pumping cycle of the heart muscle is controlled by electrical impulses that are initiated and transmitted through the heart. D. Blood from the body returns to the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Blood from the body returns to the heart via the superior and inferior vena cava. 58. What are the phases of the cardiac conduction system, and what action occurs in the heart during each phase? A. Systole- relaxation; diastole- contraction B. Conduction- contraction; circulation- relaxation C. Systole- contraction; diastole- relaxation D. Relaxation- heart resting; contraction- heart contracting - CORRECT ANSWER C. Systole- contraction; diastole- relaxation 59. Which of the following BEST describes "excitability"? A. The ability of the heart muscle cells to shorten in response to an electrical impulse. B. The ability of the heart muscle cells to respond to an impulse or stimulus. C. The ability of the heart cells to receive and transmit an electrical impulse. D. The ability of the heart to initiate an electrical impulse without being stimulated by another source. - CORRECT ANSWER B. The ability of the heart muscle cells to respond to an impulse or stimulus. 60. What is the function of the heart? A. Circulate blood to and from tissues B. Supply nutrients C. Remove carbon dioxide and waste D. Supply oxygen - CORRECT ANSWER A. Circulate blood to and from tissues 61. What is the average heart rate for an adult? A. 100-110 bpm B. 40-60 bpm C. 50-60 bpm D. 60-100 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER D. 60-100 bpm 62. Which of the following statements if TRUE regarding the role of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) in controlling the heartbeat? A. The ANS is involuntary. The sympathetic division increases the heart rate and the parasympathetic division decreases the heart rate. B. The ANS in voluntary. The sympathetic division increases the heart rate and the parasympathetic division decreases the heart rate. C. The ANS is involuntary. The sympathetic division decreases the heart rate and the parasympathetic division increases the heart rate. D. The ANS is voluntary. The sympathetic division decreases the heart rate and the parasympathetic division increases the heart rate. - CORRECT ANSWER A. The ANS is involuntary. The sympathetic division increases the heart rate and the parasympathetic division decreases the heart rate. 63. Which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart? A. AV node B. SA node C. Bundle of HIS D. Purkinje fibers - CORRECT ANSWER B. SA node 64. Trace the pathway for the transport of the blood during systemic circulation, starting with oxygenated blood from the lungs. A. Superior and inferior vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, and left atrium. B. Left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, aorta, through the body, superior and inferior vena cava. C. Left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, pulmonary artery, through the body, pulmonary vein, superior and inferior vena cava D. Right atrium, mitral valve, right ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, aorta, through the body, superior and inferior vena cava. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, aorta, through the body, superior and inferior vena cava. 65. On the ECG waveform, what is the period of time between ventricular depolarization and the beginning of ventricular repolarization? A. QT interval B. PR interval C. ST segment D. QRS complex - CORRECT ANSWER C. ST segment 66. Each heartbeat consists of the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscle. What is this called? A. The cardiac cycle B. Systole C. Diastole D. Deoxygenation - CORRECT ANSWER A. The cardiac cycle 67. Which of the following methods could you use to estimate the heart rate of a patient with a regular rhythm when the ECG is run at 25 mm/sec? A. Count the number of complete complexes on a 6 second tracing and divide by 10. B. Count the number of large boxes between two R waves and divide that number into 300. C. Count the number of boxes on a 6 second strip and divide by 300. D. Count the number of complexes between the two R waves and divide into 300. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Count the number of large boxes between two R waves and divide that number into 300. 68. What occurs during signal processing inside the ECG machine? A. The electrical impulse is recorded and printed. B. The electrical impulse is sent to the oscilloscope. C. There is no signal processing inside the ECG machine. D. The electrical impulse is amplified and converted into mechanical actions on the display. - CORRECT ANSWER D. The electrical impulse is amplified and converted into mechanical actions on the display. 69. Using the 1500 method, you counted 22 small squares between two R waves. What is the patient's heart rate? A. 60 B. 82 C. 50 D. 68 - CORRECT ANSWER D. 68 1500/22 70. How are lead wires coded? A. Color and letter B. Color only C. Letter and number D. Color and number - CORRECT ANSWER A. Color and letter 71. What are the small sensors that are placed on the skin the receive the electrical activity from the heart called? A. Leads B. Augmented leads C. ECG wires D. Electrodes - CORRECT ANSWER D. Electrodes 72. What is the most common output for a 12-lead ECG? A. Printed format B. Oscilloscope C. Computer screen D. Sensors - CORRECT ANSWER A. Printed format 73. Which two types of leads are unipolar? (measure electrical activity in one direction only). A. Standard and augmented leads B. Chest and augmented leads C. Chest and standard leads D. Check and precordial leads - CORRECT ANSWER A. Standard and augmented leads 74. When calculating heart rates, which method is the only one to use for irregular? A. R-R method B. 1500 method C. 6 second method D. 300 method - CORRECT ANSWER C. 6 second method 75. What are three types of leads used for the 12-lead ECG? A. Standard, limb, and chest leads B. Limb, augmented, and bipolar leads C. Standard, augmented, and chest leads D. Standard, chest, and bipolar leads - CORRECT ANSWER C. Standard, augmented, and chest leads 76. When placed correctly, standard limb leads form the Einthoven triangle. These leads are also known as what type of lead? A. Augmented B. Unipolar C. Negative D. Bipolar - CORRECT ANSWER D. Bipolar 77. What of the following is the correct label for the augmented lead that usually produces a negative deflection? A. aVR B. aVL C. aVF D. aVC - CORRECT ANSWER A. aVR 78. On the ECG graph paper, what do the two large boxes represent in voltage? A. 1 millivolt B. 1 centimeter C. 0.1 millivolt D. 0.5 millivolt - CORRECT ANSWER A. 1 millivolt 79. Which of the following methods should you use to determine the approximate heart rate of a patient with an irregular rhythm when the ECG is run at 25 mm/sec? A. Count the number of large boxes between two R waves and divide into 300. B. Count the number of complete complexes on a 6 second tracing and multiply by 10. C. Count the number of boxes on a 6 second strip and divide by 300. D. Count the number of complex between two R waves and divide by 300. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Count the number of complete complexes on a 6 second tracing and multiply by 10. 80. What is the main difference between single and multi-channel ECG machines? A. The single-channel ECG machine is able to record more than one lead tracing at a time. B. The multi-channel ECG machine is used mostly in physician's offices. C. The multi-channel ECG machine is able to record more than one lead tracing at a time. D. The multi-channel tracing is always mounted. - CORRECT ANSWER C. The multi-channel ECG machine is able to record more than one lead tracing at a time. 81. At the normal paper speed, how much time do the "five heavy lines" on the ECG paper represent? A. 0.04 seconds B. 1 minute C. 25 mm D. 1 second - CORRECT ANSWER D. 1 second 82. At the normal paper speed of 25 mm/sec, what does the smallest box on the ECG paper represent in time and voltage? A. 0.04 seconds, 0.1 mV B. 0.20 seconds, 0.5 mV C. 5 seconds, 1 mV D. 0.5 seconds, 0.5 mV - CORRECT ANSWER A. 0.04 seconds, 0.1 mV 83. What is the advantage of using standard grid ECG paper? A. Standard grid paper is more expensive than dot matrix. B. Standard grid paper requires less ink. C. Standard grid paper is easier to read. D. Standard grid paper produces sharper photocopies. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Standard grid paper produces sharper photocopies. 84. There are three important guidelines to follow for proper use of disposable electrodes. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for using disposable electrodes? A. Keep unused electrodes in a sealed plastic bag to prevent them from drying out. B. Check the expiration date on the package before use. C. Be certain to use the same amount of gel on each electrode during the tracing. D. Use disposable electrodes for only one ECG, with few exceptions. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Be certain to use the same amount of gel on each electrode during the tracing. 85. How many lead wires are used to record a 12-lead ECG? A. 12 B. 10 C. 6 D. 4 - CORRECT ANSWER B. 10 86. What does the ECG machine measure? A. Blood flow through the heart B. Electrical impulses produced by the heart's conduction system. C. Electrical impulses produced by the brain and transmitted to the heart D. Blood flow to the coronary arteries - CORRECT ANSWER B. Electrical impulses produced by the heart's conduction system. 87. Which control on the ECG machine regulates how fast or slow the paper runs during the procedure? A. Artifact filter B. Gain control C. LCD display D. Speed control - CORRECT ANSWER D. Speed control 88. Which method (s) of calculating the heart rate can you used for a patient with an irregular rhythm? A. R-R method B. Either the 6 second method or the 1500 method C. Only the 6 second method D. Only the 1500 method - CORRECT ANSWER B. Either the 6 second method or the 1500 method 89. What do the horizontal and vertical lines represent on the ECG graph paper? A. Horizontal= PR interval; vertical= voltage B. Horizontal= voltage; vertical= time C. Horizontal= time; vertical= QRS interval D. Horizontal= time, vertical= voltage - CORRECT ANSWER D. Horizontal= time, vertical= voltage 90. Which of the following is NOT a function of the ECG machine? A. Computerized measurement and analysis of the tracing. B. Validation of ECG interpretation C. Interpretation and storage of ECG results D. Printing the ECG tracing - CORRECT ANSWER B. Validation of ECG interpretation 91. What is the usual setting for the artifact filter to reduce artifact due to muscle tremor? A. 25 mm/sec B. 150 Hz C. 40 Hz D. 50 mm/sec - CORRECT ANSWER C. 40 Hz 92. The ECG report is part of the patient's medical record and must be maintained for how many years? A. Seven years B. Ten years C. Three years D. Fifteen years - CORRECT ANSWER A. Seven years 93. What part of the ECG machine serves as receiving device for the input function? A. Transistors B. Oscilloscpope C. Sensors D. Resistors - CORRECT ANSWER C. Sensors 94. Which control on the ECG machine regulates the output or height of the ECG waveform? A. LCD display B. Gain control C. Speed control D. Artifact filter - CORRECT ANSWER B. Gain control 95. Which of the following is NOT a consideration for handling and storing printed ECGs? A. They are heat and pressure sensitive B. They require no special handling and can be stored for up to 50 years. C. Marks on the ECG tracing make it difficult to read. D. They should be stored away from substances such as alcohol, plastic, sunlight, and x-ray film. - CORRECT ANSWER B. They require no special handling and can be stored for up to 50 years. 96. What type of electrode is most commonly used for an ECG? A. Disposable B. Reusable C. Silver D. Gels and pastes - CORRECT ANSWER A. Disposable 97. Augmented leads are unipolar. Why are they called augmented leads? A. They measure current toward only one electrode B. The ECG machine increases the size of the tracing C. They measure current toward two electrodes D. They are named for Augmen Lewis, who discovered them - CORRECT ANSWER B. The ECG machine increases the size of the tracing 98. What is the standard rate for the data run during the ECG procedure? A. 50 mm/sec B. 25 mm/sec C. 40 mm/sec D. 20 mm/sec - CORRECT ANSWER B. 25 mm/sec 99. Where are the precordial leads located? A. Three on the chest, two on the arms B. On the arms and legs C. On the arms and lower abdomen D. On the chest - CORRECT ANSWER D. On the chest 100. You just performed a "STAT" ECG on Mrs. Stephenson. What should you do with the results? A. Give it directly to your supervisor or other licensed practitioner or place it on the chart and inform them that it has been completed. B. Place it directly on the chart and take a second copy back to the ECG lab. C. Place it in a box at the nursing station and inform your supervisor that it has been completed. D. Place it in the consulting physician's box and inform him or her htat it has been completed. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Give it directly to your supervisor or other licensed practitioner or place it on the chart and inform them that it has been completed. 101. What is the most important consideration when performing an ECG on a patient two days in a row? A. Keep the electrodes at the same site by leaving them in place after the first ECG. B. The electrodes should be places at the same site or as close as possible in order for the tracings to be evaluated correctly. C. Use the same ECG machine for each ECG in order for them to be evaluated correctly. D. The lead wire cables and electrodes should remain attached overnight so the tracing will be accurate. - CORRECT ANSWER B. The electrodes should be places at the same site or as close as possible in order for the tracings to be evaluated correctly. 102. If you were performing an ECG on a patient who has had his left lower leg amputated, where should you put the leg electrodes? A. Place both the left and right electrodes on the lower abdomen. B. Place the left electrode on the upper left and the right leg electrode on the lower leg. C. Place both the left and right electrodes on the upper legs close to the trunk. D. Place both electrodes on the chest below the chest electrodes. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Place both the left and right electrodes on the upper legs close to the trunk. 103. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the room or machine used for an ECG? A. The room should be away from electrical equipment and x-ray machines; electrical equipment should be turned off. B. The machine should be placed directly beside other electrical equipment to avoid interference. C. All electrical equipment should be turned off and the room should be closed to other diagnostic rooms. D. The room should always be away from electrical and all electrical equipment should be turned on. - CORRECT ANSWER A. The room should be away from electrical equipment and x-ray machines; electrical equipment should be turned off. 104. If all required information is not on the form, what should you do? A. Refuse to perform the ECG. B. Ask the patient or obtain the information from the medical record. C. Call the physician to obtain the information. D. Ask the patient's visitor for the information. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Ask the patient or obtain the information from the medical record. 105. Your patient, Mrs. Ling, has had a mastectomy. How will this affect the ECG procedure? A. The leads should be placed on the opposite side of the chest and the change should be recorded on the report. B. The results may be altered due to the mastectomy, so place the leads on the back if necessary. C. No changes need to be made to the ECG procedure; a mastectomy will not alter the results. D. No changes need to be made to the ECG procedure; just note that the patient has had a mastectomy on the report. - CORRECT ANSWER D. No changes need to be made to the ECG procedure; just note that the patient has had a mastectomy on the report. 106. You must locate the angle of Louis and the second rib that is adjacent to this landmark when placing the chest electrodes. Then count down to the 4th intercostal space. Which lead do you place on the left sternal border? A. V2 B. V1 C. V4 D. V3 - CORRECT ANSWER A. V2 107. The baseline for the ECG you just performed is drifting off center. This is called wandering baseline. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this type of artifact? A. Tension on the electrode lead wires. B. Adequate electrode gel. C. Dirty electrodes. D. Poor skin preparation. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Adequate electrode gel. 108. Which of the following MOST accurately describes the placement of the V6 electrode? A. Fourth intercostal space at the right of the sternal border. B. Fifth intercostal space on the left midclavicular line. C. On the left anterior axillary line. D. On the midaxillary in line with V4 - CORRECT ANSWER D. On the midaxillary in line with V4 109. If the chest of the pediatric patient is too small to accommodate all the leads for an ECG, what should you do? A. Remove the lead for V3 and note it on the ECG report. B. Move lead V2 to the right side of the chest at the same location as V3. C. Move lead V2 to the right side of the chest at the same location as the left. D. Move lead V3 to the right side of the chest at the same location as the left. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Move lead V3 to the right side of the chest at the same location as the left. 110. What is the most frequent problem that can occur during an ECG and what is it's cause? A. Unwanted marks known as artifact, caused by activity other than electrical activity. B. Unwanted marks on the ECG known as somatic tremors, caused by another source of electrical activity. C. Unwanted marks known as artifact, caused by another source of activity or electrical activity. D. Unwanted marks on the ECG known as AC interference, caused by the electrical activity of the heart. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Unwanted marks known as artifact, caused by another source of activity or electrical activity. [Show Less]
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CRAT Practice Test 24 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Practice Test 24 Questions with Verified Answers A nursing home calls a cardiology office requesting that a transtelephonic pacemaker check be cond... [Show More] ucted on a new admission to the facility. The technician finds no medical record indicating that the patient has been followed by the practice. What is the technician's next step? - CORRECT ANSWER Contact the primary care physician's office to obtain a prescription for transtelephonic monitoring What should be done when a patient reports that his or her demographic information is incorrect? - CORRECT ANSWER Follow the organizational procedure and correct the error immediately In the absence of a release form, a patient's health information may be shared with the patient's __________ without committing a HIPAA violation. - CORRECT ANSWER physician In addition to the patient identification process EXCEPT the patient's ____________ - CORRECT ANSWER room number When is the appropriate to contact a patient's family member? - CORRECT ANSWER only if the patient has signed a HIPAA form giving permission What is the benefit to the clinician from explaining planned services or pending procedures clearly to patients? - CORRECT ANSWER no legal action Ensuring that the electrocardiograph is properly grounded reduces the risk of _______________ - CORRECT ANSWER 60-cycle electrical interference Which cardiac chamber contains MOST of the muscle mass of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER left ventricle A monitor technician in a pediatric cardiology office offers to deliver event monitor electrode patches, which are less likely to cause skin irritation to a patient's home after work. What is this an example of? - CORRECT ANSWER occupational safety violation A technician has been ordered to obtain an ECG from an unconscious patient. The technician should ___________ - CORRECT ANSWER explain procedure to the family in the room An in-hospital telemetry technician arrives for his shift and notices that the report for the prior shift has not been completed. The telemetry technician should ______________ - CORRECT ANSWER Notify the supervisor or senior technician of the situation to seek advice on how to proceed A patient with a transtelephonic monitor suddenly begins slurring his words and complaining that he has a tingling in his left arm. What is the MOST appropriate action? - CORRECT ANSWER Activate EMS A patient with an event monitor calls the service to submit his recordings. What is the BEST approach for recording the patient's symptoms? - CORRECT ANSWER use the patient's verbiage A primary care technician office calls the cardiology office. For a diagnosis of syncope, she orders a 48-hour Holter monitor to be placed on a patient new to the cardiology office. The cardiology office is unable to contact the patient by phone within the following 24 hours to schedule the patient's testing. What is the next step when arranging for this patient's - CORRECT ANSWER Call the primary physician's office to verify contact information A testing facility is ordered to send a mobile cardiovascular telemetry monitor to a patient. The testing facility notifies the cardiology office that the patient's primary care physician for palpitations. An appropriate next step would be to - CORRECT ANSWER Contact the primary care physician's office and explain the issue regarding coverage, offering a different type monitor that would be covered by the patient's insurance The transtelephonic technicians responsible for checking pacemakers in a cardiology office note that a particular demographic area of their patient population has more problems with unpredictable disconnections during transmissions than other locations. What is MOST APPROPRIATE next step for the technicians to take? - CORRECT ANSWER create a list of patients who have had a problem with disconnections The MOST effective ECG analysis requires following which sequence of steps? - CORRECT ANSWER Regularity, rate, P wave, PR interval and QRS complex n - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following has enhanced a patientʻs right to control her own health information, making it necessary to handle ECG tracings confidentially? A. OSHA B. HIPAA C. CDC D. AHA - CORRECT ANSWER Electrical safety is maintained while performing an ECG by all the following except? A) removing the plug from the electrical by pulling it out by the prong connection. B) ensuring that the bed or examination table is not touching the wall or any electrical equipment. C) Checking the insulation of the electrical cord for cracks for frays. D)Removing any electrical equipment from the patientʻs body - CORRECT ANSWER A) removing the plug from the electrical by pulling it out by the prong connection. B) ensuring that the bed or examination table is not touching the wall or any electrical equipment. C) Checking the insulation of the electrical cord for cracks for frays. NOT D)Removing any electrical equipment from the patientʻs body After completing the ECG procedure, which of the following tasks is not included in the ECG technicianʻs responsibilities? A) Assist the patient into a comfortable position. B) Allow the patient to dress or cover his/her body appropriately. C) Clean the lead wires, leads, and ECG machine. D) Interpret the ECG and explain the results to the patient - CORRECT ANSWER D) Interpret the ECG and explain the results to the patient Which of the following is least likely to help the ECG technician maintain infection control while performing an ECG procedure? A) Use standard precautions B) Wash hands prior to the procedure. C) Wear gloves if there is a risk of exposure to the patientʻs blood or other body fluids. D) Be sure the patient is not touching the bed frame. - CORRECT ANSWER D) Interpret the ECG and explain the results to the patient. You are about to record an ECG on a patient who has Parkinson's disease. What measures can you take to prevent somatic tremors from being recorded on the ECG recording? A) Have the patient put his hands, palms down, under the buttocks. B) Remove the tension from the lead wires. C) Apply electrodes securely. D) Move the patientʻs bed away from the wall. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Have the patient put his hands, palms down, under the buttocks. What must your always check prior to performing any procedure on a patient? A) The patientʻs name and identification number B) The method of payment for the procedure C) Whether the patient is wearing any jewelry that must be removed - CORRECT ANSWER A) The patientʻs name and identification number [Show Less]
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CRAT exam 1|100 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT exam 1|100 Questions with Verified Answers 1. When the technician is performing a 12 lead EKG, how many electrodes are used to record the 12 views ... [Show More] of the heart? A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 24 - CORRECT ANSWER B.10 2. Segments and waveforms on an ECG would include all but which of the following? A. PR interval B. QRS complex C. TB wave D. QT interval - CORRECT ANSWER C. TB wave 3. In measuring ventricular regularity if there is no R wave what could be measured instead? A. P wave B. Q wave C. The Q and S wave junction D. S wave - CORRECT ANSWER Q and S wave junction 4. The parasympathetic nervous system would do which of the following? A. Slows is the patient's heart rate B. enhanced digestion C. Decreases the patient's blood pressure D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. All of the above 5. Which of the following protects the ventricles from the 400 through 600 erratic atrial impulses that occur during the atrial fibrillation? A. SA node B. Muscle tissue around the AV node C. AV node D. Muscle tissue on the SA node - CORRECT ANSWER C. AV node 6. Generally, there is no treatment necessary for bradycardia unless the patient shows symptoms of which of the following? A. Decreased cardiac output B. Excessive output C. Non-existing cardiac output D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A. Decreasing cardiac output 7. Which of the following types of permanent pacing requires cardiac surgery to place wires? A. Transcutaneous pacing B. Epicardial pacing C. Transvenous pacing D. Defibrillator pacing - CORRECT ANSWER B. Epicardial pacing 8. If the contact on an electrode is not conducting well or the placement is wrong which of the following could occur? A. Arrhythmia B. Electric shock C. Bradycardia D.wandering baseline - CORRECT ANSWER D. Wandering baseline 9. Which of the following is most common ECG electrode misconnection or reversal? A. Arm/leg reversal B. Right arm/left arm C. Left leg/right leg D. Left arm/left leg - CORRECT ANSWER B. Right arm, left arm 10. When interpreting a cardiac rhythm strip, all of the following would be considered steps except? A. Checking the position of the P wave B. Determining the rate of the rhythm and if it's normal or abnormal C. Determining the age of the patient D. Evaluating if the rhythm is regular or irregular - CORRECT ANSWER C. Determining the patient's age 11. Accelerated junctional rhythm is only significant if the patient is showing signs of which of the following? A. Decreasing cardiac output B. Sinus arrest C. Increasing urine output D. Hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER A . Decreasing cardiac output 12. Sinus rhythm is the pacemaker action from which of the following? A. Junctional tissue B. SA node C. Purkinje fibers D. AV node - CORRECT ANSWER B. SA node 13. Which of the following is a typical maximum length of a PR interval? A. .12 sec B. .20 sec C. .24 sec D. .30sec - CORRECT ANSWER B. .20 sec 14. A pediatric patient will have shorter PR interval which of the following reasons? A. Children have lower metabolic needs B. Children have smaller ventricular size C. Children's heartbeats slower D. Children's PR interval's are measured differently - CORRECT ANSWER B. Children have a smaller ventricular size 15. Which of the following is represented in the above rhythm strip? A. Atrial tachycardia B. Sinus rhythm C. Junctional tachycardia D. Ventricular fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER C. Junctional tachycardia 16. Which of the following or artifact results from electrical equipment, mobile telephones, and electric power lines? A. Somatic Tremors B. Alternating current interference C. Electromagnetic interference D. Wandering baseline - CORRECT ANSWER C. Electromagnetic interference 17. And the 1500 method of calculating atrial rates, The technician should count which of the following? A. P-wave B. Squares between two waves C. R waves D. Squares between two consecutive R waves - CORRECT ANSWER D. Squares between two consecutive P waves 18. Resulting from the blood volume in the ventricles at the end of the diastole the passive stretching of the muscle fibers in the ventricle is called which of the following? A. Systole B. Preload C. After load D. Contractility - CORRECT ANSWER B. Preload 19. Which of the following would not be considered a patient area of education? A. Restoration of health B. Maintenance and promotions C. Coping with new illness D. Providing financial counseling - CORRECT ANSWER D. Providing financial counseling 20. A. Beta- adrenergic blockers B. Digoxin C. Amiodarone D. NSAIDs - CORRECT ANSWER D. NSAIDs 21. Generally, the chest leads are oriented through which of the following to protect through the patients back? A. SA node B. Ventricles C. Chest D. AV node - CORRECT ANSWER D. AV node 22. Which of the following acts as a safety net to prevent the ventricles from going into stand still? A. Idioventricular rhythms B. Premature ventricular contraction C. Ventricular arrhythmias D. Junctional arrhythmias - CORRECT ANSWER A. Idioventricular rhythms 23. When setting up limp leads and placing them an equal distance from the heart, it is typically known as which of the following? A. Einstein Rosin bridge B. Schrodinger's Square C. Eindhoven's triangle D. Ohms laws - CORRECT ANSWER C. Eindhoven's triangle 24. Standards of conduct or behave as defined by your Professor and place of employment are known as which of the following? A. Code of ethics B. Legalities C. Regulations D. Rules - CORRECT ANSWER A. Code of ethics 25. Sinus tachycardia occurs in approximately what percentage of patients following an acute myocardial infarction? A. 50% B. 40% C. 30% D. 20% - CORRECT ANSWER C. 30% 26. Which of the following types of sinoatrial does not appear on a rhythm strip? A. First degree B. Second-degree type 1 C. Second- degree type 2 D. Third- degree - CORRECT ANSWER A. First degree 27. If the above is observed by the ECG technician, which of the following would be considered correct? A. Inferior MI B. Anterior MI C. Lateral MI D. Septal MI - CORRECT ANSWER A. Inferior MI 28. The left atria in which of the following would be considered a chamber of the human heart? A. Right atria B. Right intrinsic C. Left intrinsic D. Left direct - CORRECT ANSWER A. Right atria 29. When evaluating pacemaker functions, the evidence seen when viewing the cardiac tracing on the heart monitor is known as which of the following? A. Electrical capture B. Pacing spike C. Mechanical capture D. Pacemaker rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER A. Electrical capture 30. When three or more PVC's happen in a row, it's considered a which of the following? A. Premature Ventricular contraction B. Ventricular escape beat C. Ventricular arrhythmias D. Ventricular tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER D. Ventricular tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER B. Sinus arrhythmia 32. Prolonged PR intervals are associated with which of the following? A. Conduction arrhythmia B. Conduction delays C. Pre-excitation syndrome's D. Speeding through the atria - CORRECT ANSWER B. Conduction delays 33. Short PR interval rules are associated with which of the following? A. Digoxin toxicity B. Heart block C. Pre- excitation syndromes D. Myocardial ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER C. Pre- excitation syndromes 34. Which of the following is the ECG equivalent of asystole? A. Missing the QRS complex B. Missing the PR interval C. Missing the T wave D. Flat line - CORRECT ANSWER B.flat line 35. Patient education objectives could include all of the following except? A. Decreasing the patient's quality of care B. Prevention C. Increasing patient satisfaction D. Empowerment - CORRECT ANSWER A. Decrease the patient quality of care 36. When performing a 12 lead EKG on a patient using a portable machine, the technician sees a red line appear on the bottom of the EKG paper. Which of the following would be considered the appropriate invention for the technician to do? A. Call a code blue B. Replace the EKG paper once the test is completed C. Send a machine for repair D. Re-calibrate the machine immediately and repeat the test - CORRECT ANSWER B. Replace the EKG paper once the test is completed 37. Add the following, which person typically monitors the test a patient's cardiac-vascular Performance using ECG equipment? A. Scrub nurse B. Certified nurse aide C. Electrocardiogram technician D. Director of nursing - CORRECT ANSWER C. Electrocardiogram technician 38. How many different types of electrical tachycardia are there? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four - CORRECT ANSWER C. Three 39. Atrial flutter, multi focal atrial tachycardia, and Junctional tachycardia are examples of which of the following? A. Sinus arrest B. Supra ventricular tachycardia C. Sinus arrhythmia D. Sinus Pause - CORRECT ANSWER B. Supra ventricular tachycardia 40. Which of the following would be considered correct for the syndrome in which the sinus node isn't properly functioning? A. Junctional tachycardia B. Sick sinus syndrome C. Atrial fibrillation D. Asystole - CORRECT ANSWER B. Sick sinus syndrome 41. A patient with a re-current junctional tachycardia may be treated with which of the following? A. Temporary pacemaker B. Drug therapy C. Surgery D. Ablation therapy - CORRECT ANSWER D. Ablation therapy 42. The ECG is considered to be one of the fastest and simple ways to evaluate a patient's heart. Which of the following would be considered a good intervention after the ECG is recorded? A. Place in the medication section of the patient's chart B. Compared to prior reading C. Throw it in the secretary bin to file D. Place in the nurse manager box - CORRECT ANSWER B. Compared to prior reading 43. Which of the following might be indicated if a Q wave is deep and wide? A. Myocardial infarction B. Arrhythmias C. Electric shock D. Bradycardia - CORRECT ANSWER A. Myocardial infarction 44. Which of the following is represented on the above rhythm strip? A. Sinus arrest B. Asystole C. Sinus pause D. Fine ventricular fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER B. Asystole 45. A. Atrial flutter B. Junctional arrhythmias C. Atrial fibrillation D. Premature junctional contraction - CORRECT ANSWER D. Premature Junctional contraction 46. SCD stands for which of the following? A. Sudden cardiac death B. Symptoms of cardiac disease C. Society of circulatory diseases D. Sessions of circumference death - CORRECT ANSWER A. Sudden cardiac death 47. Which of the following is not one of the causes of permanent atrioventricular blocks? A. Changes associated with aging B. Myocardial infarction C. Digoxin toxicity D. Cardiac surgery - CORRECT ANSWER C. Digoxin toxicity 48. Which of the following happens when the ventricles are in a diastole and the aortic valve is closed? A. Atrial diastole B. Coronary arteries fill C. Ventricular systole D. Myocardial infarction - CORRECT ANSWER B. Coronary arteries fill 49. Which of the following circumstances might sinus tachycardia be considered normal? A. If the patient is exercising B. If the patient is high stressed C. If the patient is sleeping D. Both A & B - CORRECT ANSWER D. Both A & B 50. In an 12 lead ECG, which of the following is the number of limb leads there are? A. 7 B. 6 C. 5 D. 3 - CORRECT ANSWER D. 3 51. According to OSHA standards, the use of which of the following is necessary in performing in ECG procedure safely? A. Body mechanics B. Standard precautions C. Isolation precautions D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. All of the above 52.A tract of tissue that extends into the ventricles next to the inter-ventricular septum is known as which of the following? A. Bundles branches B. HIS bundle C. Purkinje fibers D. Internodal tract - CORRECT ANSWER B. HIS bundle 53. The heart ability to stretch is known as which of the following? A. Elasticity B. Plasticity C. Contractility D. Mobility - CORRECT ANSWER C. Contractility 54. If the EKG technician has extra training and can be apply a Holter monitor for a patient, which of the following would be considered the first thing they should do? A. Connect the electrodes B. Educate the patient C. Go to the equipment D. Enter coding for procedure - CORRECT ANSWER B. Educate the patient 55. How would a compensatory pause be defined? A. If the technician is unable to identify the beats, they consider it a compensatory pause B. If the patient is experiencing brachycardia, but is asymptomatic C. There is not a pause that considered compensatory pause D. When the interval that is between normal beats contains premature ventricular contraction which is as large as to normal beats - CORRECT ANSWER D. When the interval is between normal beats contains a premature ventricular Contraction which is as large as to normal beats 56. The most Porten activity required for patient care in a medical facility is which of the following? A. Admitting B. Billing C. Communication D. Testing - CORRECT ANSWER C. Communication 57. Lied to would be considered a combination of which of the following? A. A, V4 B. 3 and V3 C. AVR and AVF D. 3 and AVR - CORRECT ANSWER C. AVR and AVF 58. One small box on the graph paper that is used for cardiac rhythms would equal ______ seconds? A. 0.04 B. 0.50 C. 0.10 D. 0.01 - CORRECT ANSWER A. 0.04 59. Of the following statements, which would not be considered "regarding a pacemaker" A. A pacemaker can be interval or external B. Pacemaker can only be external C. A interval pacemaker must be placed in surgery D. A pacemaker generates an impulse from a power source which is transmitted to the heart muscle - CORRECT ANSWER B. Pacemaker can only external 60. Dyspnea would be best described as which of the following? A. The Study of cardiology B. Shortness of breath C. Refers to the lungs D. A sudden drop in blood flow through a patient's body which causes the circulatory System to be unable to maintain an adequate blood flow - CORRECT ANSWER B. Shortness of breath 61. Artifact that occurs when the tracing drifts away from the center of the graph paper is known as which of the following? A. Somatic Tremors B. Wandering baseline C. Alternating current interference D. Interrupting baseline - CORRECT ANSWER B. Wandering baseline 62. Which of the following does the Q wave represent? A. Negative pulse of the atrial depolarization B. A lead that is off and up right chest C. The SA node is malfunctioning D. Initial negative pulse of ventricular depolarization - CORRECT ANSWER D. Initial negative pulse of ventricular depolarization 63. When there is no electrical activity occurring or there is too little activity, the waveform resembles a straight line and is called which of the following? A. Baseline B. Intrinsic waveform C. Straight line D. Isoelectric waveforms - CORRECT ANSWER D. Isoelectric waveforms 64. Which of the following is represented in the above rhythm strip? A. Atrial fibrillation B. B. Supra-ventricular tachycardia C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Atrial flutter - CORRECT ANSWER B. Supra-ventricular tachycardia 65. Of the following, which would be considered the appropriate term for individual that helps the patient seek information and resources? A. Nurses aide B. Nurse practitioner C. Nurse manager D. Patient advocate - CORRECT ANSWER D. Patient advocate 66. Which of the following might be considered predisposing factors for junctional rhythms? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Lupus erythematous C. Liver failure D. Uncommon factors - CORRECT ANSWER D. Uncommon factors 67. With the EKG, the voltage may be considered which of the following? A. Deflected B. Indirect C. Negative D. Posterior - CORRECT ANSWER C. Negative 68. Of the following which would not be considered a disease? A. Angina B. Diabetes mellitus C. Peripheral artery disease D. Osteoporosis - CORRECT ANSWER A. Angina 69. When would sinus tachycardia not be considered normal for patient? A. When exercising B. During a stress test C. When sleeping D. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C. When sleeping 70. Leads one and aVL are called which of the following because each has A positive electrode positioned on their left arm? A. Inferior leads B. Lateral leads C. Horizontal leads D. Positive leads - CORRECT ANSWER B. Lateral leads 71. The PR interval rules is measured on the _______ axis of electrocardiogram? A. Radial B. Vertical C. Horizontal D. Diagonal - CORRECT ANSWER C. Horizontal 72. Which of the following is not possible cause of wondering pacemaker? A. Increase vagal tone B. Digoxin toxicity C. Organic heart disease D. Lack of exercise - CORRECT ANSWER D. Lack of exercise 73. When assessing a rhythm strip for junctional tachycardia, the technician should look for a rate of which of the following? A. 60-80 B. 100-150 C. 100-200 D. 200-300 - CORRECT ANSWER C. 100-200 74. Which of the following pacemakers complications leads to pacemaker sending current to the heart during relaxation phase? A. Malfunctioning B. Malsensing C. Loss of capture D. Under sensing - CORRECT ANSWER B. Malsensing 75. Once patient education is complete, which of the following would be considered the next step in the process? A. Take a lunch break B. Quiz the other staff C. Document D. Notify the physician - CORRECT ANSWER C. Document 76. Prior to performing the ECG examination, the technician should do which of the following first? A. Verify physician orders B. greet the patient C. Set up equipment D. Take a break - CORRECT ANSWER A. Verify physician's orders 77. Which of the following may develop if the patient is spontaneous atrial activity leading to VVI pacemaker to not synchronize the ventricular activity with it? A. Myocardial infarction B. Asystole C. Bradycardia D. Tricuspid regurgitation - CORRECT ANSWER D. Tricuspid regurgitation 78. The space that is between two ways would be considered a? A. Square B. Waves C. Segment D. Complexes - CORRECT ANSWER C. Segment 79. If one idioventricular beat happens at a time, they are referred to as which of the following? A. Premature idioventricular contraction B. Ventricular escape beat C. Ventricular arrhythmias D. Junctional arrhythmias - CORRECT ANSWER B. Ventricular escape best 80. The lateral leads would be considered which of the following? A. 3 B. AVF C. 1 D. V2 - CORRECT ANSWER C. I 81. Which of the following causes the most cases of sudden cardiac death in people outside of hospital? A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Sinus arrest C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Torsades de pointes - CORRECT ANSWER C. Ventricular fibrillation 82. Prior to calling a physician, the ECG technician should be well prepared for any questions. All but which of the following would be correct for information they should know prior to calling? A. Know in the admitting diagnosis B. The patient insurance type C. Having all information available prior to calling the physician D. Reviewing the chart to determine the correct physician to call - CORRECT ANSWER B. The patient insurance type 83. Chess leads electrodes are always which of the following? A. Negative B. Neutral C. Positive D. Horizontal - CORRECT ANSWER C. Positive 84. An essential part of the patient care that is major IHPAA standard is which of the following? A. Empathy B. Confidentiality C. Respect D. Dignity - CORRECT ANSWER B. Confidentiality 85. If the physician presubscribes in Reading or in a electric health record for a patient, it would be considered which of the following? A. Lab results B. Nursing assessment C. Billing and coding D. Physician orders - CORRECT ANSWER D. Physician orders 86. When evaluating a QRS complex the technician should concentrate on the duration in which of the following? A. Location B. Amplitude C. Confidentiality D. Deflection - CORRECT ANSWER C. Confidentiality 87. Ventricular depolarization begins at the lining of ventricles and moves towards which of the following? A. Epicardium B. Endocardium C. Myocardium D. Ventricarduim - CORRECT ANSWER A. Epicardium 88. The T wave generally resembles which of the following on an ECG? A. A Tall spike B. A short spike C. A tall, broad hump D. A short, broad hump - CORRECT ANSWER D. A short, broad hump 89. Which of the following is not one of the causes of temporary atrioventricular blocks A. Myocardial infarction B. Cardiomyopathy C. Acute myocarditis D. Cardiac surgery - CORRECT ANSWER B. Cardiomyopathy 90. Which of the following is required for the heart to pump? A. Automaticity B. Excitability C. Contractility D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. All of the above 91. Which of the following is the term that refers to a wide spectrum of SA node abnormalities that are caused by disturbances in the way impulses are generated or the inability to conduct impulses to the atrium? A. Sinus arrest B. Sinus pause C. Sick sinus syndrome D. Sinus arrhythmia - CORRECT ANSWER C. Sick sinus syndrome 92. Of the following, which would consider unipolar leads? A. V3 B. 3 C. V1 D. Avl - CORRECT ANSWER D. AVL 93. Which of the following distinguishes atrial fibrillation on an EKG strip? A. Irregular ventricular respond and an absence of P waves B. Normal with him with a pronounced did you wave C. Inverted QRS complex and missing U wave D. Flatline - CORRECT ANSWER A. Irregular ventricular respond and an absence of P waves 94. Which of the following might be considered the most common legal claim that could be brought against a healthcare provider? A. Battery B. Slander C. Negligence D. Libel - CORRECT ANSWER C. Negligence 95. In regards to a temporary pacemaker, which of the following would be not considered correct? A. is powered by an alkaline battery B. Is implanted into the patient's chest C. Is connected to the lead wires which are inserted into the heart of the patient D. Is a small exterior box - CORRECT ANSWER B. Is implanted into the patients chest 96. Which of the following house is a battery, electronic circuitry for pacemaker settings, and a lead connector? A. Pacing Lead B. Pulse generator C. Single chamber D. Pacemaker spike - CORRECT ANSWER B. Pulse generator 97. From the start of the QRS to the finishing of the T-wave would be considered which of the following? A. PR interval B. QRS complex C. ST segment D. QT interval - CORRECT ANSWER D. QT interval 98. On the rhythm strip if there is a early beat showing randomly but most of the strip shows normal sinus rhythm, it is called which of the following? A. ECG B. ECHO C. P wave D. PJC - CORRECT ANSWER D. PJC 99. Of the following which supplies the most blood to the SA node? A. Right coronary artery B. Left coronary artery C. LAD D. The posterior descending artery - CORRECT ANSWER A. Right coronary artery 100. Of the following, which would be considered the most series of the heart blocks? A. First degree B. Second degree C. Weckebach D. Third- degree - CORRECT ANSWER D. Third degree [Show Less]
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CRAT Exam 150 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Exam 150 Questions with Verified Answers What pacemaker complications involves irregular pacemaker intervals with slower that set rate impulses and... [Show More] no visual packer spike? - CORRECT ANSWER Malfuctioning Potassium and __________ are needed in order for the heart to function normally - CORRECT ANSWER Calcium Premature atrial contractions are rarely dangerous but with what condition could this be an early sign of heart failure or electrolyte imbalance? - CORRECT ANSWER Acute myocardial infarction As an electrical current travels toward the negative pole on an ecg, the waveform defects in which direction? - CORRECT ANSWER Downward late ventricular depolarization is represented by? - CORRECT ANSWER S wave Why is the left side of the heart thicker than the right? - CORRECT ANSWER It pumps blood back to all the parts of the body What starts at the beginning of the p wave and stops at the begging of the QRS complex? - CORRECT ANSWER PR interval A common cause of artificial on a cardiac rhythm strip would be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER Somatic tremors How many leads does a 24 hour holter monitor have? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 If there is a preconfigured group of orders which are commonly ordered together for a specific diagnosis or condition would be? - CORRECT ANSWER Order set A single chamber pacemaker has one lead inserted into either the right atrium or? - CORRECT ANSWER Right ventricle If a patient is experiencing ventricular fibrillation where in the heart would the electrical impulses come from? - CORRECT ANSWER Many different foci What condition would be a biventricualr pacer typically be used for? - CORRECT ANSWER Pre cardiac transplant patients The heart activity that begins with atrial depolarization and ends with the start of ventricular depolarization is know as? - CORRECT ANSWER PR interval If the T wave is bumpy instead of smooth what might it indicate? - CORRECT ANSWER Hidden p wave paroxysmal atrial tachycardia commonly follows? - CORRECT ANSWER Premature atrial contractions Atrial standstill is called________ if only one or two beats are not formed - CORRECT ANSWER Sinus pause True or False SA node failure could cause sinus arrest - CORRECT ANSWER True What acts as a safety mechanism to protect the heart from ventricular standstill? - CORRECT ANSWER Idioventricular rhythms What can occur with coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy, cor pulmonale, and pulmonary embolism? - CORRECT ANSWER Right bundle branch block What color is the chest lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Brown What could be administered to a patient to correct a junctional escape rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER Atropine Impulses causing depolarization twice in a row in a faster than normal rate are referred to as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER Re-entry events vagal maneuvers and medications such as which of the following can be employed to slow the heart rate on symptomatic junctional tachycardia patients? - CORRECT ANSWER Adenosine If the Q wave is absent, the QRS complex should be measured from the beginning of which wave? - CORRECT ANSWER R What artifact setting is commonly used to reduced artifact due to muscle tremor and slight patient movement? - CORRECT ANSWER 40 Hz What would you see on an ekg when looking for 2nd degree type 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Occasionally dropped beat with normal AV node conduction When interpreting a rhythm which one should always be irregular - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial fibrillation The semilunar valves are called such because the cusps on these caves resemble? - CORRECT ANSWER Half moons The data that is entered into an EKG machine would be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER Input In the pacemaker codes the first letter represents what? - CORRECT ANSWER The heart chamber being paced The type of AV block that could cause cardiovascular collapse would be? - CORRECT ANSWER Complete heart block (3rd degree) The left bundle branch splits into two branches known as? - CORRECT ANSWER Fasciculi What is it called when there is lack of electrical activity in the atrium? - CORRECT ANSWER Sinus arrest What does WAP stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Wondering atrial pacemaker What is the largest artery in the body? - CORRECT ANSWER Ascending aorta Systolic and ______best describes the physiologic movements of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER Diastolic When would a patient typically have a U wave? - CORRECT ANSWER When the patient has very low potassium In the cardiac conduction system, why can't impulses flow backwards through the system? - CORRECT ANSWER Cells can't respond to another stimulus directly following depolarization The atria relax and fill with blood during? - CORRECT ANSWER Diastole If a patient is diagnosed with a differential diagnosis of junctional tachycardia, they should be treated with? - CORRECT ANSWER Ablation therapy and a permanent pacemaker What are symptoms of 3rd degree av block? - CORRECT ANSWER Severe fatigue,chest pain, pulmary edema Sinus Tachycardia is characterized by heart rate above? - CORRECT ANSWER 100 bpm What chamber of the heart has the thickest walls? - CORRECT ANSWER Left ventricular If the bundle of His becomes blocked, what can be activated as a pacemaker? - CORRECT ANSWER Purkinje fibers If the patient is experiencing hypokalemia, what might be seen on an EKG? - CORRECT ANSWER U wave Originating above the ventricles, what will cause the heart to beat between 150 and 250 bpm? - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial tachycardia What is the thin layer that covers the myocardium? - CORRECT ANSWER Epicardium When applying the 10 times method to calculate the ventricular rate, which waves do you count on the rhythm strip? - CORRECT ANSWER R wave What should also be checked in addition to the three methods of calculating atrial or ventricular heart rate? - CORRECT ANSWER Patient pulse In measuring ventricular regularity if there is no R wave what could be measured instead? - CORRECT ANSWER The Q and S wave junction True or False The SA node protects the ventricles from the 400-609 erratic atrial impulses that occur during atrial fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER False The AV Node Generally there's no treatment necessary for bradycardia unless the patient shows symptoms of——- - CORRECT ANSWER Decrease cardiac output If the contact on an electrode is not conducting well or placement is wrong, what can occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Wondering baseline sinus rhythm is the pacemaker action for? - CORRECT ANSWER SA node A pediatric patient will have a shorter PR interval because? - CORRECT ANSWER Children have smaller ventricular size Generally, the chest leads are oriented through_____to project through the patients back - CORRECT ANSWER AV node What acts as a safety net to prevent the ventricles from going into standstill? - CORRECT ANSWER Idioventricular rhythm When setting up limb leads and placing them in equal distances from the heart, it is typically known as? - CORRECT ANSWER Eithoven's triangle Sinus tachycardia occurs in approximately what percentage of patients following an acute myocardial infarction? - CORRECT ANSWER 30% When three or more PVCs happen in a row, it's considered what? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular tachycardia Prolonged PR intervals are associated with? - CORRECT ANSWER Conduction delays Short PR intervals are associated with? - CORRECT ANSWER Pre-excitation syndromes and junctional arrhythmias How many different types of atrial tachycardia are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 3 Atrial tachycardia with block Mutifocal atrial tachycardia Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia Atrial flutter, multi focal atrial tachycardia, and junctional tachycardia are all examples of? - CORRECT ANSWER Supraventricular tachycardia What syndrome in which the sinus node isn't properly functioning? - CORRECT ANSWER Sick sinus node What might be indicated if the Q wave is deep and wide? - CORRECT ANSWER Myocardial infarction What is an extra beat that causes the irregular rhythm because it happens before the regular beat? - CORRECT ANSWER Premature junctional contractions What does SCD stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER sudden cardiac death Not a heart attack but can be caused by V-tach or V-fib In a 12 lead ECG how many limb leads are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 How would a compensatory pause be defined? - CORRECT ANSWER When the interval that is between normal beats contains a premature ventricular contraction which is as large as two normal beats Lead 2 would be considered a combination of which leads? - CORRECT ANSWER aVR and aVF Dyspnea is best described as? - CORRECT ANSWER Shortness of breath Artifact that occurs when the tracing drifts away from the center of the graph paper is known as? - CORRECT ANSWER Wandering baseline What does the W wave represent? - CORRECT ANSWER Initial negative pulse of ventricular depolarization When there is no electrical activity occurring or there is too little activity, the wave resembles a straight line and is called? - CORRECT ANSWER Isoelectric waveform When would sinus tachycardia not be considered normal? - CORRECT ANSWER When sleeping The PR interval is measured on the ________ axis of the electrocardiogram - CORRECT ANSWER Horizontal What is the normal rate for a junctional tachycardia rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER 100-200 bpm What would it be if the pacemaker is sending current to the heart during relaxation phase? - CORRECT ANSWER Malsensing What if the patient has spontaneous atrial activity leading the VVI pacemaker to not synchronize the ventricle activity with it? - CORRECT ANSWER There are will be no relationship between the P and paced QRS complex. Tricuspid and mitral regurgitation can develop The space between two waves would be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER A segment If one idioventricular beat happens at a time it is referred to as? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular escape beat In most cases of sudden cardiac death in people outside the hospital what is the cause? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular fibrillation Describe what the T wave looks like on an EKG - CORRECT ANSWER A short broad hump It represents the rapid phase of ventricular repolarization What is it called when theres a wide spectrum of SA node abnormalities that are caused by disturbance sleep in the way impulses are generated or the inability to conduct impulses to the atrium - CORRECT ANSWER Sick sinus syndrome From the start of the QRS to the finishing of the T wave what is that considered? - CORRECT ANSWER QT interval Which part of the heart supplies the most blood to the SA node? - CORRECT ANSWER Right coronary arteries Of the heart blocks which is considered the most serious? - CORRECT ANSWER 3rd degree It is life threatening and can lead to cardiac arrest if not treated immediately If a premature ventricular contraction comes from different foci what kind of Premature ventricular contraction would it be? - CORRECT ANSWER Multifocal PVC What does the term detrocardia mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Right sided heart It's a rare congenital condition when the apex of the heart is actually on the right side of the body What is the normal o2saturation of the blood in the right atrium? - CORRECT ANSWER 60-75% This is deoxygenated blood that returns to the body so it has a high concentration of C02 Deoxygenated blood returns to the heart through the inferior and superior vena cava and empties into? - CORRECT ANSWER Right atrium The stretching of the muscle fibers in the ventricles is known as? - CORRECT ANSWER Preload If the cardiac output falls and compensatory mechanisms fail a tachycardia patient may experience? - CORRECT ANSWER Hypotension,syncope,blurted vision,chest pain, palpitations, nervousness or anxiety The circumflex coronary artery feed which potion of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER Lateral walls of the left ventricle The R wave represents what on an ECG? - CORRECT ANSWER The electrical flow of the signal through the muscle in the ventricles is What contributes to approximately 30% of the cardiac output? - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial kick How much does the average human heart weigh? - CORRECT ANSWER 6-11oz Where do junctional arrhythmias originate? - CORRECT ANSWER Atrioventricular junction What is the normal speed for a junctional escape rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER 40-60 bpm If the ST segment is elevated what might that indicate? - CORRECT ANSWER Myocardial infarction The AV node normally generates how many impulses in a minute? - CORRECT ANSWER 40-60 What regulates the blood flow in the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER Valves From the beginning of the QRS complex to the highest point in the T wave what would that be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER The absolute refactory period If a patient is in ventricular fibrillation what would be the the preferred treatment - CORRECT ANSWER Defibrillation What carries the cell to cell condition of depolarization through the myocardium? - CORRECT ANSWER Sodium ions The right ventricle pumps blood through what valve into the pulmonary arteries? - CORRECT ANSWER Pulmonic valve The ectopic impulses fire at what rate ranges in atrial fibrillation? - CORRECT ANSWER 400-600 times/min What might be considered a sign of hyperkalemia on an EKG? - CORRECT ANSWER A peaked T wave In the QRS complex what does the S Wave represent? - CORRECT ANSWER Conduction of the electrical impulses through both ventricles What rhythm has an effect on the respiratory cycle and causing the heart rate to increase and decrease - CORRECT ANSWER Sinus arrhythmia Sinus arrest occurs when the SA node fails to generate an impulse which can be caused by? - CORRECT ANSWER Heart disease The ventricles relax, the atria contracts, and the blood is forced through the open tricuspid and mitral valves during________ - CORRECT ANSWER Diastole In atrial fibrillation how many times does it fire a minute? - CORRECT ANSWER 400-600 bpm What is the receiving chamber of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER Left atrium ____________is caused by an irritable focus in the AV junction that speeds up to take over as the hearts pacemaker - CORRECT ANSWER Accelerated junctional rhythm Sinus tachycardia can worsen myocardial ischemia by increasing the hearts demand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Oxygen Each time the heart beats the amount of blood that is ejected from the ventricles would be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER Stroke volume ______________is described as chaotic, asynchronous, electrical activity in the atrial tissue - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial fibrillation A compensatory pause may cause what on an EKG strip? - CORRECT ANSWER A PVC that is equal to 2 sinus intervals The atria and ventricles beat independently in 3rd degree AV block and what else? - CORRECT ANSWER Complete AV dissociation If a patients shock has been caused by a cardiac tamponade it would be considered _______ shock - CORRECT ANSWER Cardiogenic A string of beats that occur after a conduction delay from the atria is________ - CORRECT ANSWER Junctional escape rhythm What rhythm is less than 60bpm but the measurements are within normal range? - CORRECT ANSWER Sinus bradycardia The magnitude in millimeters of upward or downward deflection in an EKG is known as? - CORRECT ANSWER Amplitude Atrial diastole occurs in which phase of the cardiac cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Isovolumetric relaxation What is the rhythm that would be included in the algorithms for adult cardiac arrest? - CORRECT ANSWER Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) What is considered a normal volume of pericardial fluid around the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 to 20 ml When the AV node delays an impulse from the SA node a little longer it would be? - CORRECT ANSWER Type 1 second degree AV block ___________blocks the conduction of some of the atrial impulses if the atrial beats are conducted only periodically - CORRECT ANSWER AV node In a cardiac complex what would be considered the first wave that is seen? - CORRECT ANSWER P wave The P wave will come after the QRS complex if what happens? - CORRECT ANSWER The ventricles depolarize first Nodal tissue itself does not have a pacemaker cells but the tissue surround it which is called? - CORRECT ANSWER Junctional tissue The initial phase of ventricular repolarization is know as? - CORRECT ANSWER Plateau phase The ______wave on the cardiac complex correspond with septum depolarization Q - CORRECT ANSWER ________controls increases or decreases of the EKG tracings on the rhythm paper - CORRECT ANSWER Gain Sinus tachycardia can reduce cardiac output by lowering? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular refilling time Ventricular repolarization is represented by which cardiac complex? - CORRECT ANSWER T wave _________is a condition where the heart cannot meet the demands of the body - CORRECT ANSWER Congestive heart failure What are the two entrance cables of the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER Tricuspid and bicuspid valves What is the approximate diameter of the coronary arteries? - CORRECT ANSWER 1/8 inch The _______brings blood from below the diaphragm - CORRECT ANSWER Inferior vena cava ___________is the only vein that carries high oxygen blood - CORRECT ANSWER Pulmonary vein What is the main cause of sinus arrhythmia in adults? - CORRECT ANSWER Respirations Supaventricular tachycardia has _______complexes and a rate of_________ - CORRECT ANSWER Narrow, 150 A first degree atrial ventricular block is determined by measurement of the __________ - CORRECT ANSWER PR interval (.21 or greater) A PVC that occurs during the relative refractory periods and can cause a patient go into VTACH is referred to as? - CORRECT ANSWER R on T phenomenon Another name for second degree AV block type 1 is? - CORRECT ANSWER Wenckehbach or mobitz type 1 The steps to most effectively analyze an EKG are? - CORRECT ANSWER Regularity, Rate, P wave, PR interval, and QRS complex [Show Less]
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CRAT pt care 36 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT pt care 36 Questions with Verified Answers Verify that you have the correct pt - CORRECT ANSWER name, dob, id/mrn or ssn Introduce - CORRECT ANS... [Show More] WER your name, title, ordering physician, test that will performed and duration Give the pt time for - CORRECT ANSWER questions on the procedure or questions Pts permission to patient health information - CORRECT ANSWER always make sure you have permission to disclose information to family members HIPPA - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Consequences of breaking HIPPA - CORRECT ANSWER Penalty, fine, disciplinary action/ termination of employment, possible jail time HIPPA regulations - CORRECT ANSWER 2 forms of identification for pts, report HIPPA violations. Under HIPPA the pt has the right to receive notice of privacy practices, copies . consent - CORRECT ANSWER allows the PHI to be used for treatment, payments or business operations. Authorization - CORRECT ANSWER allows for PHI to be disclosed outside of treatment, payments or business operations Vital signs include - CORRECT ANSWER temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure pain assessment most appropriate place to patch cardiac monitor - CORRECT ANSWER center of chest mid sternum When using an ambulatory post event make sure to - CORRECT ANSWER ensure all 4 electrodes pressed firmly center of the sternum contact precations - CORRECT ANSWER wear gloves and gowns prepare pt for electrode placement - CORRECT ANSWER shave hair from electrode site, rub alcohol swab, dry , snap side up medical professional liability - CORRECT ANSWER healthcare professionals are legally responsible for their performance Libel - CORRECT ANSWER written defamation Slander - CORRECT ANSWER spoken defamation implied consent - CORRECT ANSWER says yes verbally to doctor obtaining consent when patient cannot write - CORRECT ANSWER pt has to mark an X on the signature line. There must be a witness CDC 2 levels of precaution - CORRECT ANSWER standard precautions and isolation precautions Nails must be - CORRECT ANSWER 1/4" or shorter; avoid artificial nails airbone precautions - CORRECT ANSWER air handling vents, respiratory protection Doplet - CORRECT ANSWER mucous membrane protection (goggles and mask) If pt is sedated - CORRECT ANSWER explain procedure to family members with out disclosing any medical information about the pt Occupational safety violation example - CORRECT ANSWER technician offers to deliver new electrode patches to a pt's home after work exercise stress test - CORRECT ANSWER 40w women - 15 w increase, 50w men -15-30 w how long should a stress be performed for - CORRECT ANSWER 7 to 10 to receive 85% of maximum HR how long must the ecg be part of medical record - CORRECT ANSWER 7 years what time of monitor is used/required for 30 days? - CORRECT ANSWER transtelephonic monitoring term ambulating mean - CORRECT ANSWER Walking When applying chest electrodes on pt with large breast you must : - CORRECT ANSWER lift the breast and place the electrodes in the closest position possible What information should be included in the ecg requisition - CORRECT ANSWER Location, date, time of recording Patients should avoid when using ambulatory monitor - CORRECT ANSWER Electric blankets and getting x-rays done ICD-10 code - CORRECT ANSWER diagnostic code used by the billing department The single most important thing you can do to prevent spread infection while performing ecg - CORRECT ANSWER proper hand hygiene Signs and symptoms a pt will have when experiencing ventricular fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER unsconsciousness apnea and no pulse [Show Less]
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EKG CRAT Test 104 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
EKG CRAT Test 104 Questions with Verified Answers HIPPA - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Wandering Baseline - C... [Show More] ORRECT ANSWER Baseline Drifting Continuous ECG monitoring done in a hospital setting is known as: a. Holter Monitor b. Telemetry Monitor c. Echocardiography - CORRECT ANSWER b How long does an ambulatory monitor typically record and ECG: a. 12 hours b. 24 to 48 hours - CORRECT ANSWER b. 24 to 48 hours What artifact is caused by Improperly applied electrodes or poor skin preparation - CORRECT ANSWER Wandering Baseline After completing he ECG procedure, which of the following tasks is NOT included in the ECH Techs responsibilities: a. Assist the patient in to a comfortable position b. Clean the lead wires, leads, and ECG machine c. Interpret the ECG and explain the results to the patient - CORRECT ANSWER c. Interpret the ECG and explain the results to the patient Artifact caused by lead wires crossed and not pointed towards the hands and feet - CORRECT ANSWER AC interference Which device recognizes an abnormal rhythm and can deliver and electric shock to the heart if necessary a. ECG b. CAD C. AED - CORRECT ANSWER C. AED Patients with permanent pacemakers may require monitoring for 30 days or more. What type of ambulatory monitoring is most commonly used in these patients? a. telemetry monitoring b. 24 ambulatory monitoring c. transtelephonic monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER c. transtelephonic monitoring Artifact caused by involuntary movement / patient talking during procedure - CORRECT ANSWER Somatic tremor What type of ambulatory monitoring is performed in a hospital? - CORRECT ANSWER Telemetry monitoring Ambulating a. performing daily activities b. breathing c. walking - CORRECT ANSWER c. walking NOT a basic function of the electrocardiograph a. input b. analysis c. signal processing - CORRECT ANSWER b. analysis signal processing, which occurs in side the ECG machine, a. amplifies the electrical impulse b. directs impulses to the ECG instrument c. notifies the operator of input errors - CORRECT ANSWER a. amplifies the electrical impulse HOw many leads are attached to a patients chest with ambulatory monitoring? a. 2 leads b. 3-5 leads c. 10 leads - CORRECT ANSWER b. 3-5 leads Post-symptom event monitors are used primarily to document what type of dysrhythmias ? a. occasional PVCs b. Heart murmurs c. Sv tachycardias, atrial fibrillation, and atrial flutter - CORRECT ANSWER c. Sv tachycardias, atrial fibrillation, and atrial flutter Angina - CORRECT ANSWER Pain in the heart region caused by lack of oxygen Ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER Lack of oxygen to the muscle tissue QT interval time frame - CORRECT ANSWER .36 - .44 secs Gain - CORRECT ANSWER Changes the height of ECG training Separates the left ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER Interventricular septum Conducts the impulse for the left side of the interventricular septum - CORRECT ANSWER Left bundle branch Normal conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles - CORRECT ANSWER Bundle of HIS Tip or point of the heart - CORRECT ANSWER Apex Helps relay impulse to the left atria - CORRECT ANSWER Bachman Connection between the SA node and the AV noce - CORRECT ANSWER Internodal paths The gain control is normally set at: a. 20mm/mv b. 25mm/mv c. 10mm/mv - CORRECT ANSWER c. 10mm/mv Which of the following is not a basic function of the electrocardiograph? a. analysis b. signal processing c. output display - CORRECT ANSWER a. analysis the most common setting for standard speed rate on the ECG machine is: a. 10mm/sec b. 25mm/sec c. 50 mm/sec - CORRECT ANSWER b. 25mm/sec Often difficult to read the ECG tracing if a patients rate is fast. Where should you set the speed control to be able to interpret the ECG tracing more easily? a. 25mm/sec b.100mm/sec c.50mm/sec - CORRECT ANSWER c. 50mm/sec the usual setting for the artifact filter is: a. 10 to 20hz b. 100 to 250 hz c. 40 to 150 hz - CORRECT ANSWER c. 40 to 150hz how many boxes per minutes with 25mm/sec paper speed a. 450 boxes per min b. 300 boxes per min c. 150 boxes per min - CORRECT ANSWER b. 300 boxes per min What does retrograde mean: a. horizontal b. backward c. flattended - CORRECT ANSWER b. Backward You have performed an ECG on a patient at the walk-in clinic. The ECG tracing shows that the patient is in 3D. What is your FIRST responsibility to this patient? a. mount and identify the rhythm strips for documentation b. initiate emergency procedures if needed c. observe the patient for symptoms of low cardiac output - CORRECT ANSWER c. observe the patient for symptoms of low cardiac output Which of the following actions occurs during systole? a. the tricuspid and mitral valves open b. the pulmonary and aortic valves open c. the heart muscle relaxes - CORRECT ANSWER b. the pulmonary and aortic valves open the average volume of blood pumped each minute sin a normal heart is: a. 3 liters b. 1 liter c. 5 liters - CORRECT ANSWER c. 5 liters Blood that leaves the right ventricle is considered a. visceral b. systemic c. deoxygenated - CORRECT ANSWER c. deoxygenated Largest vein - CORRECT ANSWER Vena Cave P wave represents: a. atrial relaxation b. ventricular contraction c. atrial contraction - CORRECT ANSWER c. atrial contraction What pacemaker complication occurs when the pacemaker does not sense the patients inherent cardiac electrical activity? a. malfunctioning b. oversensing c. malsensing - CORRECT ANSWER c. malsensing which of the following statements about the bundle branch block is true? a. bundle branch block overrides the patients underlying heart rhythm b. bundle branch block is a life threatening condition c. any sinus, atrial, or junctional rhythm can be affected by bundle branch block - CORRECT ANSWER c. any sinus, atrial, or junctional rhythm can be affected by bundle branch block Which of the following terms describe what happens when a pacemaker fails to detect any cardiac electrical activity and fires? a. oversensing b. triggering c. undersensing - CORRECT ANSWER When malsesning occurs, a pacemaker may send impulses to the heart during the relaxation phase. What condition may the patient experience if malsensing occurs in aventricular pacemaker? a. Idioventricular rhythm b. premature junctional complexes c. Ventricular fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER c. ventricular fibrillation A bundle branch blocks has which of the following characteristics: a. delayed conduction through the ventricles due to a blockage which causes a widened QRS complex b. it causes narrowed QRS complexes to appear on the ECG c. it causes a prolonged PR interval - CORRECT ANSWER a. delayed conduction through the ventricles due to a blockage which causes a widened QRS complex The patient on which you are about to perform an ECG tells you that she sometimes feels a thumping in her chest. Which of the following might you expect to see on the ECG training? a. idioventricular rhythm b. ventricular fibrillation c. PVCs - CORRECT ANSWER c. PVCs Which factor is least important regarding crash carts? a. the crash cart must be nearby and ready to go b. the crash cart must be well stocked with emergency supplies c. a list of currently stocked emergency medications must be present on the cart - CORRECT ANSWER c. a list of currently stocked emergency medications must be present on the cart in whcih ventricular dysrhythmia are the ventricles in a continous contraction-relaxation pattern with no period of delay between depolarizations? a. ventricular tachycardia b. ventricular fibrillation c. accelerated idioventricular rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER a. ventricular tachycardia What heart block is known as classical heart block? a. Third-Degree AV Block b. Second-Degree AV Block, Mobitz type II c. Second-Degree AV Block, Mobitz type I - CORRECT ANSWER b. Second-Degree AV Block, Mobitz type II What is the typical heart rate with accelerated idioventricular rhythm? a. less than 20bpm b. 20 to 40bpm c. 100 to 150bpm d. 40 to 100bpm - CORRECT ANSWER d. 40 to 100 bpm After you report a second degree AV block, mobitz type II, to a licensed practitioner Second-Degree AV Block, Mobitz type I, what should you do? a. an ambulatory monitor and an echocardiogram b. an angiogram and laboratory tests c. continue to monitor the patient until a licensed practitioner arrives - CORRECT ANSWER c. continue to monitor the patient until a licensed practitioner arrives What is the term for a fast, irregular heartbeat sensation felt by a patient? a. palpitation b. palpation c. paresthesia - CORRECT ANSWER a. Palpitation What is the origin point of an SVT? a. Left ventricle b. atria or junctional region c. purkinjee fibers - CORRECT ANSWER b. atria or junctional region What type of heart rate is characteristic of a patient who has junctional escape rhythm? a. normal b. faster than normal c. slower than normal - CORRECT ANSWER c. slower than normal What is the ventricular heart rate range for accelerated junctionka rhythm? a. 60 to 100 bpm b. 40 to 60 bpm c. 20 to 40 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER a. 60 to 100bpm if ectopic impulses are occurring in the heart at a rate that us faster than the SA node a. the SA node impulses control the atria and the ectopic impulses control the ventricles b. the rate at which the SA node fires controls the ectopic rate c. the ectopic impulses override the SA nose and causes the atria and ventricles to depolarize - CORRECT ANSWER c. the ectopic impulses override the SA nose and causes the atria and ventricles to depolarize Which rhythm is often a transient dysrhythmia that will lead to a more serious atrial dysthymia if not treated? a. Wandering atrial pacemaker (WAP) b. Multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT) c. Atrial flutter - CORRECT ANSWER c. Atrial flutter What caused the different P waves morphologies in an ECG tracing that shows wandering atrial pacemaker? a. the rate at which the ectopic impulses are generated b. the varying sites of the ectopic impulses c. the variable strength of the atrial contraction caused by each impulse - CORRECT ANSWER c. the variable strength of the atrial contraction caused by each impulse Which portion of the ECG tracing is primarily affected by atrial dysthymias? a. T waves b. ST Segment c. P Waves - CORRECT ANSWER C. P Waves Some patients can tolerate the loss of atrial kick if the heart remains between a. 60 to 100bpm b. 100 to 150 bpm c. 150 to 250 bpm - CORRECT ANSWER a 60 to 100 bpm What occurs immediately prior to ventricular systole when blood is ejected from the atria into the ventricles? a. contractility b. atrial kick c. automaticty - CORRECT ANSWER b. atrial kick Pacemiker spikes without P waves or QRS complexes are seen. a. Oversensing b. Loss of capture c. Failure to pace - CORRECT ANSWER b. Loss of capture Which valves prevent the back flow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles during diastole? a. semilunar b. sinoatrial c. eustachian - CORRECT ANSWER a. semilunar Another name for second degree AV block type 1 is a. thorell b. einthoven c. wenckenbach - CORRECT ANSWER c. wenckenbach A characteristic of a third degree av block is a. an aberrant pathway in the left atrium b. an aberrant neuro pathway in the right atrium c. the conduction of the atrial impulses failing to reach the ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER c. the conduction of the atrial impulses failing to reach the ventricle in standard calibration ECG Graph paper, a deflection of the tracing upward or downward by one large ox (outlined by thick, dark lines) from the baseline represents a. 0.25 millivolt b. 0.5 milivolt c. millivolt d. volt - CORRECT ANSWER b. 0.5 millivolt Which of the following rhythms be characterized by regular P-P and R-R intervals occuring at different rates? a. wenckebach b. atrial fibrillation c. complete heart block - CORRECT ANSWER c. complete heart block The relationship between the conducted P waves and the QRS complexes in a sinus arrhythmia is a. not discernable b. one p wave per qrs complex c. displaying varying conduction patterns - CORRECT ANSWER b. one p wave per qrs complex a patient with a transtelephonic monitor suddenly begins his words and complaining that he has tingling in his left arm. What is the most appropriate action? a. Activate EMS b. Drive to the hospital c. call the referring doctor - CORRECT ANSWER a. Activate EMS The normal gain setting for ECG acquisition is ____ mm/mV a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 - CORRECT ANSWER b. 10 a regular rythm with a rate of 158 bpm and with a narrow qrs complex is best described as a. ventricular tacycardia b. supraventricular tachycardia c. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER b. supraventricular tachycardia A regular rhythm with a narrow qrs complex with no noted p waves and rate between 40 - 60 bpm is known as a. junctional escape rhythm b. accerlated junctional rhythm c. premature ventricular contractions - CORRECT ANSWER a. junctional escape rhythm During sinus rhythm, an early narrow complex beat without a p wave preceding it would be interpreted as a a. first degree AV block b. premature atrial contraction c. premature junctional contraction d. premature ventricular contraction - CORRECT ANSWER c. premature junctional contraction where is the most appropirate location to place a '"patch cardiac monitor" a. right upper chest b. left side mid axilla c. center of chest mid sternum d. left side under the diaphragm - CORRECT ANSWER c. center of chest mid sternum If a dual chamber pacemaker's ventricular lead senses a non-cardiac signal, what is most likely to occur? a. atrial under sensing b. failure to ventricular pace c. failure to capture ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER b. failure to ventricular pace A PVC that occurs during the relative period is referred to as a. bigeminy b. a couplet c. bundle branch block d. R-on-T Phenomenon - CORRECT ANSWER d. R-on-T Phenomenon atrial fibrillation with a slow ventriular response has a(n) a. atrial rate less than 60bpm b. ventricular rate less than 60 bpm c. junctional rate greater than 60bpm - CORRECT ANSWER b. ventricular rate less than 60 bpm What occurs when a ventricular pacemaker senses electrical current from a source other than the heart? a. oversensing b. failure to capture c. pacemaker turns off d. increasing pacing rate - CORRECT ANSWER a. oversensing Sinus Rhythm rate - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100 Sinus Bradycardia Rate - CORRECT ANSWER less than 60 bpm Sinus Tachycardia rate - CORRECT ANSWER >100 bpm ATV - CORRECT ANSWER > 1 p wave per qrs; p map; 100-200 A beat that occurs earlier than expected and disrupts the normal rhythms regularity The beat originates ina n irritable, ectopic pacemaker site. - CORRECT ANSWER Premature beat A beat that originates some place other than the SA node. An abnormal hear beat - CORRECT ANSWER Ectopy Sudden, witnessed onset/offset of arrhythmia - CORRECT ANSWER Paroxysmal abnormal conduction - CORRECT ANSWER Aberrant An ectopic/irritable site in the atrium fire before the next SA node impulse is due causing an early beat - CORRECT ANSWER PAC True / False The morphology of the QRS complex of the PAC is like that of the underlying rythm - CORRECT ANSWER True True / False The P Wave morphology will appear the same as Sinus P Wave. - CORRECT ANSWER False: The P wave morphology will appear different from the Sinus P Wave Atrial Run is a run of a. 2-5 PACs b. 3-5 PACs c. >5 PACs - CORRECT ANSWER b. 3-5 PACs Atrial Bigeminy - CORRECT ANSWER PAC every other beat Occurs when an ectopic site in the atria initiates a very early electrical impulse and that impulse fails to reach the ventricles a. NCPAC b. Trigeminy PAC c. PAT - CORRECT ANSWER a. NCPAC Originating above the ventricles a. PVT b. SVT c. WAP - CORRECT ANSWER b. SVT SVT rate: - CORRECT ANSWER 150-250BPM True / False P Wave in SVT is retrograde - CORRECT ANSWER False: P wave in SVT is hidden True/False: At higher rates, sustained SVT will require a notification to the doctor - CORRECT ANSWER True True/False PSVT is sudden, rapid, and regular and 6 or more PACs - CORRECT ANSWER True Occurs when an ectopic site in the atria takes over as the pacemaker and rapidly fires, causing the atria to beat too quickly. Survival tool for the heart to maintain cardiac output. BPM? - CORRECT ANSWER ATV 101-200 Atrial rhythms - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial Flutter, Atrial Fibrillation, AVT, SVT True / False AF can have ABR - CORRECT ANSWER True If electrical impulse occurs high u in the AV junction the atria depolarize first, The P wave will appear? - CORRECT ANSWER The P wave will appear before the QRS and wil be inverted Junctional Rhythm: 1) Rate 2) Reg/irr 3) Nomenclature - CORRECT ANSWER 1) 40-59.9 2) Regular 3) JR Accelerated Junctional Rhythm 1) Rate 2) Reg/irr 3) Nomenclature - CORRECT ANSWER 1) 60-99.9 2) Regular 3) AJR Junctional Tachycardia 1) Rate 2) Reg/irr 3) Nomenclature - CORRECT ANSWER 1)100-149.9 2) Reg 3) JT True/False Junctional Rhythm QRS is narrow - CORRECT ANSWER True [Show Less]
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CRAT - CCI Exam 164 Questions with Verified Answers 2023,100% CORRECT
CRAT - CCI Exam 164 Questions with Verified Answers 2023 Potassium and calcium - CORRECT ANSWER the two electrolytes needed in order for the heart to ... [Show More] function normally Acute myocardial infarction - CORRECT ANSWER PACs are rarely dangerous, but in a patient with this condition, it can serve as an early sign or heart failure or electrolyte imbalance. Downward - CORRECT ANSWER as an electrical current travels to a negative pole on an ECG, the waveform deflects in which direction? late ventricular depolarization - CORRECT ANSWER what does the S wave represent on the ECG tracing? 5 - CORRECT ANSWER how many leads does a 24 hour holter monitor have? right atrium OR right ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER a single chamber pacemaker has one lead into which of the two chambers of the heart? many different foci - CORRECT ANSWER the patient is experiencing VFIB, where do the electrical impulses come from? lead II, III, AVF - CORRECT ANSWER on a 12 lead ECG, where would we look when trying to assess for AJR? pre-cardiac transplant patient - CORRECT ANSWER When is a biventricular pacer used? PR interval - CORRECT ANSWER What part of the ECG tracing starts with the atrial depolarization and ends with ventricular depolarization? 0.36-0.44 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER what is the normal QT interval length? medical history, meds, patient id, diagnostic results, date and time of test, symptoms and reason for test, informed consent docs, patient instructions - CORRECT ANSWER what should the ECG tech include in the patients chart entry? hyperkalemia, deep relaxation, increased intracranial pressure, valsalva maneuver, hypothyroidism, hypothermia, sleep, glaucoma, carotid sinus massage, vomiting, cardiac disease, certain drugs. - CORRECT ANSWER bradycardia can be caused by? sinus pause - CORRECT ANSWER If 1 or 2 beats are not formed in Atrial Standstill, its called? SA Node Failure - CORRECT ANSWER what would cause sinus arrest? anterior mi, CAD, PE, Cor Pulmonale, Rate Related BBB - CORRECT ANSWER what diseases cause Right Bundle Branch Block? brown - CORRECT ANSWER what color are the chest leads? atropine and temporary or permanent pacemaker - CORRECT ANSWER treatments for a junctional escape rhythm are? saw tooth waves, no pwave, regular ventricular rate, decrease cardiac output by 20-30% - CORRECT ANSWER signs associated with atrial flutter are? aortic stenosis, degenerative conduction system changes, CAD, hypertensive heart disease, QRS greater than 0.12 - CORRECT ANSWER causes and identifiers of Left Bundle Branch Block automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER cardiac cells ability to start impulses on their own is called? med effect, dysphonia, altered mental status, speech ability, foreign language, time constraint, inability to meet face to face, illness, racial/cultural differences, CVA, psychological illness. NOT SERUM GLUCOSE LEVEL - CORRECT ANSWER what are the barriers in patient-doctor communication? 40 Hz - CORRECT ANSWER what is the artifact filter used to reduce movement/tremors? use tech when appropriate, determine best learning style, include family, attempt to stimulate interest, consider strengths and weaknesses of patient. - CORRECT ANSWER tips for provide good patient education are? - location-before QRS - duration <0.12 - amplitude <0.25mV -configuration - upright/rounded -deflection - upright in lead I,II,AVp,V6 - CORRECT ANSWER characteristics of a PWAVE are? fasciculi - CORRECT ANSWER left bundle branch splits into two branches known as? ventricular depolarization is normal at this rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER what causes AJR to appear normal? sinus arrest - CORRECT ANSWER lack of electrical activity in the atrium causes? Right Bundle Branch Block - CORRECT ANSWER Letter M on QRS complex known as? V1-V6 - CORRECT ANSWER what are the 3D leads? ascending aorta - CORRECT ANSWER what is the largest artery in the human body? atrial systole, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation, ventricular filling - CORRECT ANSWER 5 steps of the cardiac cycle CHF, vagal stimulation, sick sinus syndrome, digoxin toxicity, electrolyte imbalance, rheumatic disease, inferior wall MI - CORRECT ANSWER common causes of junctional escape rhythm very low potassium level - CORRECT ANSWER U wave is present when there is a ? 1/1 - CORRECT ANSWER when an ECG is calibrated it is set to? ablation and/or permanent pacemaker - CORRECT ANSWER treatments for JT include? 10 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER at minimum how long of a measurement is used to determine if a pwave is occurring regularly or irregularly? U wave, flat T wave, long QT - CORRECT ANSWER hypokalemia causes ? epicardium - CORRECT ANSWER the layer that covers the myocardium? vertical axis - CORRECT ANSWER what axis is voltage measured? contractility - CORRECT ANSWER the hearts ability to stretch is known as? communication - CORRECT ANSWER the most important action required for patient care in a medical facility is? uncommon factors and heart damage - CORRECT ANSWER what are the predisposing factors of junctional rhythms? positive, negative, isoelectric - CORRECT ANSWER with an ECG, the voltage may be considered what? malsensing - CORRECT ANSWER what pacemaker complication causes the pacemaker to send currents to the heart during the relaxation phase? tricuspid regurgitation - CORRECT ANSWER what may develop if the patient has spontaneous atrial activity leading the VVI pacemaker to not synchronize the ventricular activity with it? V Fib - CORRECT ANSWER what causes the most cases of sudden cardiac death outside of the hospital? duration and configuration - CORRECT ANSWER when analyzing the QRS complex, you should concentrate on? cardiac surgery, acute myocarditis, calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, MI, digoxin toxicity - CORRECT ANSWER temporary AV blocks causes? avL, avF, avR - CORRECT ANSWER the unipolar leads are? implanted in the chest - CORRECT ANSWER temporary pacemakers are never what? customer service - CORRECT ANSWER a monitor tech @ a peds office offers to deliver an event monitor electrode patches which are less likely to cause skin irritation to a patients house after work, this is an example of? 60-75% - CORRECT ANSWER O2 saturation of blood in the right atrium? ask full name, check arm band and ask date of birth - CORRECT ANSWER examples of patient identifiers are? aorta - CORRECT ANSWER the aortic valve permits blood-flow to which structure? -standard -extended -expidited - CORRECT ANSWER what are the 3 forms of grievance? I, II, II AVF, AVL, AVR - CORRECT ANSWER What are the limb leads? contracility - CORRECT ANSWER the ability for the heart muscle to contract after it receives an electrical impulse is called? AV Block - CORRECT ANSWER AAI pacemakers are not used for patients with? potential risks - CORRECT ANSWER what is it called when there is a situation that could cause hard to the patient? hypotension syncope blurred vision chest pain palpitations nervousness anxiety NEVER hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER when cardiac output falls and compensatory mechanisms fail, a tachycardia patient may experience what? opposite deflection from normal QRS - CORRECT ANSWER what is unique about the Twave on a rhythm strip of VT? angle of Louis - CORRECT ANSWER what should be used to avoid mistakes in counting intercostal spaces? lateral wall of left ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER circumflex artery feeds what part of the heart? cardiomyopathy - CORRECT ANSWER what is not a cause of temporary AV Block? may have to shave hair - CORRECT ANSWER what might the ECG tech have to tell the patient before placing their leads on? restoration of normal function - CORRECT ANSWER what does repair of the ischemia in the AV node result in? 1 second - CORRECT ANSWER 25 mm is equal to what increment of time? resting negative charge - CORRECT ANSWER repolarization occurs so that the ventricular myocytes may recover their interior what? atrial kick - CORRECT ANSWER what contributes to 30% of cardiac output? right arm/left arm - CORRECT ANSWER the most common ecg lead misconnection/reversal occurs in which leads? changes in aging cardiomyopathy MI congenital abnormalities cardiac surgery - CORRECT ANSWER causes of permanent AV Block are? pins fitting electrolyte paste/gel clinging cracks damage to wires never teeth sharpness - CORRECT ANSWER alligator clips should be check for what? 0.13 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER approximate delay in seconds between atria and ventricle is? depending on monitor computer to find problem if patient DOES NOT keep a diary interfering factors uncooperative 4/10% likelyhood of capture of arrhythmia electrode contact interruption - CORRECT ANSWER what are the holter monitor limitations? semilunar valves aortic and pulmonic - CORRECT ANSWER cardiac valves with half moon shapes? programability versitility ability to mimic normal physiological cycle and maintain av synchrony ability to automatically change modes sense and pace ventricals - CORRECT ANSWER DDD pacemaker advantages are? AVR, AVL, AVF - CORRECT ANSWER what are the augmented limb leads? I, II, III - CORRECT ANSWER AVL, AVF, AVR use the same leads as? hypersensitive carotid sinus - CORRECT ANSWER what is the stimulation of the carotid sinus that causes episodes of asystole resulting in recurrent syncope? 400-600 times - CORRECT ANSWER in AFIB the atria will fire how many times? enhanced automaticity re-entry afterdepolarization - CORRECT ANSWER atrial arrhythmias result from these three mechanisms myocardial infarction - CORRECT ANSWER what might a deep and wide q wave represent? at w/ block MAT PAT - CORRECT ANSWER what are the 3 kinds of AT electrical capture - CORRECT ANSWER when evaluation pacemaker function, the evidence seen when viewing the cardiac tracing on the heart monitor is known as? first degree - CORRECT ANSWER what SA block is not seen in the rhythm strip? av node - CORRECT ANSWER usually the chest leads are oriented through this location to project through the patients back? preload - CORRECT ANSWER resulting from the blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole the passive stretching of the muscle fibers in the ventricles is called? coronary arteries fill - CORRECT ANSWER what happens when the ventricles are in diastole and the aortic valve is closed? malfunctioning - CORRECT ANSWER which pacemaker complication involves irregular pacemaker interval with slower than set rate impulses and no visual pacemaker spikes? digoxin toxicity - CORRECT ANSWER whats the most common cause of AT? diastole - CORRECT ANSWER the ventricles relax and the atria contract. The blood is forced through the open tricuspid valve and mitral valves during? heart disease infection vagal stimulation sick sinus syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER sinus arrest occurs when the SA node fails to generate an impulse which may be caused by what? conduction of electrical impulses through both ventricles - CORRECT ANSWER in the QRS complex what does the S wave represent? the stretch that is between 2 electrodes - CORRECT ANSWER what best describes a cardiac lead? peaked t wave - CORRECT ANSWER hyperkalemia can show what twave abnormality 400-600 times per minute - CORRECT ANSWER ectopic impulses fire at a rate of what in AFIB? ST segment - CORRECT ANSWER early ventricular repolarization would be indicated in what ECG structure? pulmonic valve - CORRECT ANSWER the right ventricle pumps blood through the _______________ to the pulmonary arteries? congenital defect mi beta blockers cad digoxin toxicity calcium channel blockers surgical injury aging - CORRECT ANSWER 3rd Degree AVB is generally caused by which condition? stroke volume - CORRECT ANSWER Each time the heart beats, the amount of blood that is ejected from the ventricles would be considered which of the following? the heavy black lines between the P waves - CORRECT ANSWER In the sequence method of calculating atrial rate, the technician must memorize a series of numbers to assign to which of the following? the 10 times method - CORRECT ANSWER The method of calculating the atrial rate that is best employed when there is an irregular rate is which of the following? ventricular myocytes - CORRECT ANSWER Purkinje fibers end in minuscule filaments that directly depolarize which of the following? Increased automaticity of the atrial tissue - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial tachycardia with block is caused by which of the following? Apex of the heart - CORRECT ANSWER During the QRS complex, the ventricular contraction proceeds from which of the following to the base of the heart? Isovolumetric relaxation - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial diastole occurs during which phase of the cardiac cycle? 10 to 20 mL - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following would be considered the normal volume of pericardial fluid around the heart? Lead II - CORRECT ANSWER Which ECG limb lead is helpful in detecting changes related to an inferior wall myocardial infarction? AV node - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is blocking the conduction of some of the atrial impulses if the atrial beats are conducted only periodically? Junctional tissue - CORRECT ANSWER Nodal tissue itself does not have pacemaker cells, but the tissue that surrounds it, called which of the following, does? Emergency department - CORRECT ANSWER Hardwire monitoring is generally employed in intensive care units and which of the following? Ventricles - CORRECT ANSWER Normal sinus rhythm records an impulse that begins in the sinus node and ends in which of the following? Plateau phase - CORRECT ANSWER The initial phase of ventricular repolarization is known as which of the following? t wave - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following waves is unidentifiable in atrial flutter on the rhythm strip? drops off CO2 and picks up O2 - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following would be considered correct for when the blood reaches the lungs? An irregularity caused by an early beat - CORRECT ANSWER The PJC's (premature junctional contraction) shows as which of the following on an EKG strip? 1 mm or greater above baseline - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following defines an elevated ST segment? direct-current synchronized carioversion - CORRECT ANSWER Unstable ventricular tachycardia patients with heart rates greater than 150 bpm, and hypotension, shortness of breath, an altered LOC, heart failure, angina, or myocardial infarction are generally treated with which of the following? bachmann's bundle - CORRECT ANSWER In the cardiac conduction system, the impulses travel out from the SA node through the internodal tracts and which of the following before reaching the AV node? A feeling of quickening in the chest or palpitations - CORRECT ANSWER If a patient is admitted with a differential diagnosis of premature junctional contractions, which of the following would the nurse look for? pericarditis - CORRECT ANSWER In an adult, if the T wave is heavily notched or pointed, it could indicate which of the following? t wave - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following would be considered concurrent with the end of ventricular systole? Lead off the chest - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following will cause a wave sign not to be seen at all? libel - CORRECT ANSWER Writing defamatory statements about a patient that could jeopardize their reputation or livelihood is known as which of the following? right ventricle - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following pumps the blood through the pulmonic valve into the pulmonary arteries and then on into the lungs? junctional arrythmias - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following happens when the SA node impulses are suppressed and they come from around the AV Junction? coronary sinus - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following returns blood to the right atrium? Patient needs - CORRECT ANSWER When developing a plan for patient education, which of the following would be the first thing that should be considered? 3, 10x method, 1500 method, sequence method - CORRECT ANSWER How many methods are there for calculating ventricular rate from a rhythm strip? One-on-One - CORRECT ANSWER f the nurse/technician shares information at the patient's bedside or physician's office, it would be considered ______________ discussion? afterload - CORRECT ANSWER The pressure the ventricular muscles must develop to surmount the greater pressure in the aorta to expel the blood out of the heart is known as which of the following? irregular ventricular and atrial rhythms - CORRECT ANSWER When looking for a PAC (premature atrial contraction) on an ECG, the technician should look for which of the following? accelerated junctional rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is caused by an irritable focus that causes the AV junction to take over as the heart's pacemaker and speed up? 1500 method - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following uses the amount of small squares that are on the ECG paper in one minute to calculate the heart rate? conductivity - CORRECT ANSWER When the cardiac cells are able to receive and then transmit the electrical stimulus, it would be considered ________? right to left - CORRECT ANSWER Lead I in an ECG provides a view of the heart that shows the current moving from which of the following directions? written, demonstrative, verbal - CORRECT ANSWER Of the following, which term would best be used to describe patient education instruction? 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Every patient, according to The Joint Commission, must be identified by at least how many forms of identification? atrial fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER The VVI pacemaker is commonly used for patients with a permanent pacemaker who have which of the following? premature ventricular contraction - CORRECT ANSWER Electrical irritability in the ventricular conduction system or muscle tissue is what causes which of the following? automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER As a result of bradycardia, which of the following tends to diminish? lead III - CORRECT ANSWER A small Q wave is typically not seen in which of the following leads on an electrocardiogram? drugs : amiodarone, erythromycin, ibutilide, droperidol, haloperidol, sotalol. electrolyte abnormalities and myocardial ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER The most common causes of Torsades de Pointes is which of the following? calcium channel blockers - CORRECT ANSWER All of the following might be considered a treatment for the patient that is experiencing a peaked "T" wave on their electrocardiogram except? parietal and visceral layer - CORRECT ANSWER Layers of the serous pericardium would include which of the following? sensors - CORRECT ANSWER An accurate word that the technician can use in place of electrodes to keep from instilling fear in the adult patient would be which of the following? first degree - CORRECT ANSWER Which degree of AV block is present if all of the atrial impulses reach the ventricles, with a conduction delay occurring within the AV node? v3,v4 and LAD - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following cardiac leads are typically affected by an anterior wall myocardial infarction? 10 - CORRECT ANSWER How many mm= 1mV 0.04 s - CORRECT ANSWER Who many seconds is 1 small square? 5 - CORRECT ANSWER How many small squares in a large square 5 large squares = 1 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER How many large squares equal 1 second 50 large squares = 10 seconds - CORRECT ANSWER How many large squares = 10 seconds? V1-V2, Septal LAD - CORRECT ANSWER Areas and arteries affected in a septal infarct are? I, aVL, V5, V6 , LCx, diagonals - CORRECT ANSWER Arteries and areas affected by lateral infarct? V3-v4, LAD - CORRECT ANSWER Areas and arteries affected in anterior infarct? II, III, AVF, LCx 15%, RCA 85% - CORRECT ANSWER Areas and arteries affected in inferior wall infarct? V7, V8, V9 posteriorly placed, RCA - CORRECT ANSWER Posterior infarct areas and arteries affected? v1 -v2 proximal LAD - CORRECT ANSWER septal MI leads and artery v5-v6 distal LAD, LCx or RCA - CORRECT ANSWER apical mi leads and artery I, AVL LCx - CORRECT ANSWER lateral wall MI leads and artery II, AVF, III 90% RCA, 10% LCx - CORRECT ANSWER inferior wall mi leads and artery v7, v8, v9 RCA or LCx - CORRECT ANSWER posterolateral mi leads and arteries [Show Less]
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CRAT Exam 16 & 17|25 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Exam 16 & 17|25 Questions with Verified Answers What is a key component when contesting a denial of insurance payment for a specific date? - CORREC... [Show More] T ANSWER The patients testing report A nursing home calls a cardiology office requesting a transtelephonic pacemaker check be conducted on a new admission to the facility. The technician finds no medical record indicating that the patient has been followed by the practice. What is the next step? - CORRECT ANSWER Contact the primary care physician's office to obtain a prescription for transtelephonic monitoring When is it appropriate to contact a patient's family member? - CORRECT ANSWER Only if the patient has signed a HIPPA form giving permission In addition to a patient's medical record number, name name and social security number, can a room number be used as a patient identifier? - CORRECT ANSWER No In the absence of a release form, a patient's health information may be shared with the patients __________ without committing a HIPPA violation? - CORRECT ANSWER Physician What should be done when a patient reports that his/her demographic information is incorrect? - CORRECT ANSWER Follow organizational procedure and correct the error immediately What is the benefit to the clinician from explaining planned services or pending procedures clearly to patients? - CORRECT ANSWER Increased patient compliance Ensuring that the electrocardiograph is properly grounded reduces the risk of? - CORRECT ANSWER Electrical Shock A monitor technician in a pediatric cardiology office offers to deliver event monitor electrode patches, which are less likely to cause skin irritation, to a patient's home after work. What is this an example of? - CORRECT ANSWER HIPPA Violation A technician has been ordered to obtain an ECG from an unconscious patient. The technician should? - CORRECT ANSWER Explain the procedure to the family members in the room An in hospital telemetry technician arrives for his shift and notices that the report for the prior shift has not been completed. The telemetry technician should? - CORRECT ANSWER Notifiy the supervisor or senior technician of the situation to seek advice on how to proceed A patient with a trans telephonic monitor suddenly begins slurring his words and complaining that he has tingling in his left arm. What is the most appropriate action? - CORRECT ANSWER Activate Emergency Medical Services A patient with an event monitor calls the service to submit his recordings. What is the best approach for recording the patient's symptoms? - CORRECT ANSWER Use the patients exact verbiage A primary care physician office calls the cardiology office. For a diagnosis of syncope, she orders a 48-hour Holter monitor to be placed on a patient new to the cardiology office. The cardiology office is unable to contact the patient by phone within the following 24 hours to schedule the patients testing. What is the next step to arranging the patients care? - CORRECT ANSWER Call the primary care physician's office to verify contact information A testing facility is ordered to send a mobile cardiovascular telemetry monitor to a patient. The testing facility notifies the cardiology office that the patient's primary insurance does not cover this type of service. The original order came from the primary care physician for palpitations. An appropriate next step would be? - CORRECT ANSWER Contact the primary care physician's office and explain the issue regarding coverage, offering a different type of monitor that would be covered by the patient's insurance The transtelephonic technicians responsible for checking pacemakers in a cardiology office note that a particular demographic area of their patient population has more problems with unpredictable disconnections during transmissions than other locations. What is the most appropriate next step for the technicians to take? - CORRECT ANSWER Contact their supervisor about discussing the issue with the department responsible for the telephone services 1. On a standard ECG graph paper, a deflection of the tracing upward or downward by one large box from the baseline represents? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 millivolt 2. On an ECG machine, what speed should the recorder be set at for 1mm to equal 400 milliseconds? - CORRECT ANSWER 25 millimeters per second 3. Ensuring that the electrocardiograph is properly grounded reduces the risk of? - CORRECT ANSWER Electrical Shock 4. A technician receives an ECG recording that displays no discernible cardiac information. Which step should be the first step in troubleshooting? - CORRECT ANSWER Check to make sure the leads are properly attached 5. The hospital telemetry monitor tech notes a significant amount of wandering baseline on a newly admitted patients ECG. What is most likely the cause of this? - CORRECT ANSWER Chills of the skin due to a fever 6. What is one way of troubleshooting 60 second cycle ECG interference? - CORRECT ANSWER Move the ECG machines power plug to another outlet 7. The normal gain setting for ECG acquisition is? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 millimeters /milivolt 8. In lead II, what would indicate lead reversal? - CORRECT ANSWER An inverted QRS complex 9. A patient with a trans telephonic monitor suddenly begins slurring his words and complaining that he has tingling in his left arm. What is the most appropriate action? - CORRECT ANSWER Activate Emergency Medical Services [Show Less]
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CRAT 14 Exam 62 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT 14 Exam 62 Questions with Verified Answers ______ helps to correct cardiac rhythm conditions - CORRECT ANSWER radiofrequency abalation how does ... [Show More] abalations help? - CORRECT ANSWER they help by scarring oreven destroying the tissue in the heart that is triggering the abnormal heart rhythm the axes of the 3 bipolar limb leads form a triangle around the heart known as - CORRECT ANSWER einthoven's triangle einthoven triangle - CORRECT ANSWER is the standard positions for limb leads 1,2,and 3 vtach - CORRECT ANSWER no p waves, no pulse, no co, no qrs, only fluttering of the heart asynchronous or fixed rate mode pacemakers - CORRECT ANSWER initiate impulses at a set rate regardless of the pt's intrinsic heart rate accelerated junctional rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER caused by an irritable focus in the AV junction that speeds up to take over as the heart's pacemaker accelerated junctional rate - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100 bmp high voltage artifact potentials are generally interpreted by the heart monitor as qrs complexes and activate the high rate alarm in a monitoring problem known as - CORRECT ANSWER false high rate alarm false high rate alarm is mostly triggered by muscle movements from the pt ? - CORRECT ANSWER turning in bed or moving extremities, or seizure activity a ____ would be considered an isoelectric interval? - CORRECT ANSWER segment a pt with a flutter will have a normal peripheral or apical pulse due to the fact that the pulse reflects ? - CORRECT ANSWER ventricular contractions a tach would be characterized by on the ecg printout? - CORRECT ANSWER greater than 3 successive ectopic atrial beats at 150-250 bmp and malformed p wave if the pt is experiencing consistent bradycardia they might experience - CORRECT ANSWER cold and clammy skin, dizziness, shortness of breath, feeling tired, chest pain, confused, faint the saw-toothed appearance of the waves on the rhythm strip of an atrial flutter pt are known as? - CORRECT ANSWER flutter waves junctional escape rhythm shows _____ on an ekg strip - CORRECT ANSWER inverted p waves on leads 2,3,and afv (less than .12 sec pr) sinus tach can worsen myocardial ischemia by increasing the heart's demand of? - CORRECT ANSWER oxygen 3 types of ekg - CORRECT ANSWER 24 hr holter monitor, 12 lead standard ekg, stress test ekg each time the heart beats, the amount of blood that is ejected from the ventricles would be considered the ? - CORRECT ANSWER stroke volume chaotic, asynchronous, electrical activity in the atrial tissue - CORRECT ANSWER a fib afib - CORRECT ANSWER originates from the firing of a number of impulses in multiple re-entry pathways one of the most important jobs of the ecg tech? - CORRECT ANSWER communicate caused by exaggerative respiratory movements by the pt - CORRECT ANSWER wandering baseline should not be listed in medical records - CORRECT ANSWER religious preferences 3 letter coding system - CORRECT ANSWER more commonly used toprovide a simple description of pacemaker capabilities 3 letter coding system for pacemakers - CORRECT ANSWER 1st letter-chamber the pacemaker that is being paced, 2nd letter-chamber sensed by pacemaker, 3rd letter-pacemakers response to the sensed event most common cause of limb electrode reversal - CORRECT ANSWER right/left confucion in tech in the sequence method of calculating atrial rate, the tech must memorize a series of numbers to assign to ? - CORRECT ANSWER the heavy blacklines between p waves a compensatory pause may cause - CORRECT ANSWER a pvc that is equal to 2 sinus intervals ______ is stimulated by baroreceptors, specialized nerve cells in the aorta, and internal carotid arteries - CORRECT ANSWER vagus nerve what is not considered a primary characteristic of a cardiac cell - CORRECT ANSWER communicatability 4 characteristics of a cardiac cell - CORRECT ANSWER conductivity, automaticity, contractility, excitability the atria and ventricles beat independently in 3rd° av block and ? - CORRECT ANSWER complete av dissociation _____ is not documented on the top of the ecg recording - CORRECT ANSWER pt's religion documented on the ecg recording - CORRECT ANSWER date, time, pt's name, age, sex, pt id number, physician name, initials of tech, pt medication, vital signs, height, weight a pacemaker could be inserted to help a pt maintain a - CORRECT ANSWER steady heart rate when the electrical impulses are generated in the ventricles instead of the atria, atrial kick is lost and cardiac out decreases by - CORRECT ANSWER 30% if a pt's shock has been caused by a cardiac tamponade I would be considered ______ shock - CORRECT ANSWER cardiogenic septic shock - CORRECT ANSWER happens when bacterial infections cause toxic shock syndrome hypovolemic shock - CORRECT ANSWER happens when the total volume of blood in the body drops below normal anaphyalctic shock - CORRECT ANSWER happens when there is a severe allergy reaction such a bee sting when the atria and ventricles beat but totally independent of each other - CORRECT ANSWER av dissociation if a cardiac rhythm is regular, what would be an easy way to determine the heart rate - CORRECT ANSWER count the # of large squares between identical points and divide by 300 unreliable results - CORRECT ANSWER are not one of the drawbacks with hardwired monitoring not a complication of a flutter - CORRECT ANSWER osteoporosis complications of a flutter - CORRECT ANSWER pulmonary emboli, mural thrombi, systemic emboli, hemodynamic instability might be a considered a cause of a shortened qt interval - CORRECT ANSWER hypercalcemia, certain genetic abnormalities, hyperkalemia the method of calculating the atrial rate that best employed when there is an irregular rate - CORRECT ANSWER 10 times method sinus arrhythmia is a rhythm that originates in the sinus node and discharges impulses - CORRECT ANSWER irregularly the most fundamental intervention for improving nurse physician communication would be - CORRECT ANSWER fostering an organizational culture that is patient-centric, safety based, and supportive of teamwork afib is defined by an absence of - CORRECT ANSWER p waves purkinje fibers end in minuscule filaments that directly depolarize - CORRECT ANSWER ventricular myocytes abnormalities in the cardiac rate and rhythm would be considered - CORRECT ANSWER dysrhythmias if the tech is applying a cardiac monitor and receives a poor signal, what should they do? - CORRECT ANSWER recheck the electrode contact with the pt's skin, and cable connections to he electrodes the dips and spikes that are seen on a electrocardiogram would be considered - CORRECT ANSWER waves a string of beats that occur after a conduction delay from the atria - CORRECT ANSWER junctional escape rhythm if the heart beat is less than 60 bpm but the rest of the measurements are within normal ranges it is called? - CORRECT ANSWER sinus bradycardia what occurs when the pt has an av block - CORRECT ANSWER the impulses from then atria to the ventricles are interrupted if the ecg tech notices a u wave and the pt is complaining of chest pain what should the tech do? - CORRECT ANSWER notify the physician immediately, and look for complications such as elevated st segments life threatening cardiac rhythms? - CORRECT ANSWER vtach, asystole, accelerated idioventricular, complete heart block, idioventricular, vfib a-tach with a block is caused by - CORRECT ANSWER increased automaticity of the atrial tissue, a 2:1 block commonly occurs [Show Less]
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CRAT TEST 39 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT TEST 39 Questions with Verified Answers A Nursing home calls a cardiology office requesting that a trantelephonic pacemaker check be conducted on a... [Show More] new admission to the facility. The Tech finds no medicla record indicating that the patient has been followed by the practice. what is the tech's next step - CORRECT ANSWER Contact the PCP's office to obtain a prescription for the transtelephonic monitoring. When is it appropriate to contact a patients family member - CORRECT ANSWER Only if the patient has signed a HIPPA form giving permission In addition to a patients name, all of the following can be used in the patient identification process except the patients - CORRECT ANSWER last four of SSN in the absence of a release form, a patients health info may be shared with the patients______ without committing a hippa violation - CORRECT ANSWER Physician What should be done when a patient reports that his or her demographic info is incorrect - CORRECT ANSWER Follow the orgs procedure and correct the error immediately What is the benefit to the clinician form explaining planned services or pending procedures clearly to patients - CORRECT ANSWER Increased patient compliance Ensuring that the electrocardiograph is properly grounded reduces risk of - CORRECT ANSWER 60 cycle electrical interference a monitor tech in a pediatric cardiology office offers to deliver event monitor electrode patches, which cause less irritation. what is this an example of - CORRECT ANSWER customer service tech has been ordered to obtian an EKG form an unconscious patient. the tech should - CORRECT ANSWER explain procedure to family in room an in-hospital telemetry tech arrives for his shift and notices that the report for the prior shift has not been complete. the tech should? - CORRECT ANSWER Notify the supervisor or senior tech of the situation and seek advice on how to proceed A patient with a teanstelephonic monitor suddenly begins slurring his words and complaining that he has tingling in his left arm. What is the most appropriate reaction? 1. Activate EMS 2. drive to hospital 3. call referring doctor 4 call ttm call center - CORRECT ANSWER Activate EMS A patient with an event monitor calls the service to submit his recording. what is the BEST approch for recording the symptoms a. use the patients verbiage b. translate to medical terminology c. use the diagnosis provided by the patient's physician d. suggest likely symptoms associated with his recordings. - CORRECT ANSWER use the patients verbiage A PCP office calls the cardiology office for a diagnosis of syncope, she orders a 48-hour holter monitor to be placed on a patient new to the office. the cardiology office is unable to contact the patient by phone within 24 hours to schedule the testing. what is the next step when arranging for this patients care - CORRECT ANSWER contact the PCPs office to verify contact info a testing facility is ordered to send a mobile cariovascular telemelemtrry monitor to a patient. the facility notifies the cardiology office that the patients primary insurance does not cover this type of service. the original order came from the patient's PCP for palps. an appropriate next step would be - CORRECT ANSWER contact the PCPs office and explain the issue regarding coverage, offering a different type of monitor that WOULD be covered. the transtelephonic techs responsible for chekcing pacemakers in a cardiology office note that a particular demographic area of their patients population has more problems with unpredictable disconnections during tranmissions than other locations. what if the MOST APPROPRIATE next step for the tech to take a. create a list of patients who have had a problem with disconnections b. schedule the patients to come into the office with their monitors for the next pacemaker evaluation c. contact their supervisor about discussing the issue with the department responsible for the telephone services d. ask the patients experienceing the disconnections which long distance provider they are using and document it. - CORRECT ANSWER schedule the patients to come into the office with their monitors for the next pacemaker evaluation the MOST effective ECG analysis requires which sequence of steps? a. Rate, p wave, PRI, QRS complex, and regularity b. p wave, rpi, qrs complex, regularity, and rate c. pri, p wave, regularitve, rate, and qrs complex d. regularity, rate, pwave, pri, qrs complex - CORRECT ANSWER D. regularity, rate, p wave, pri, qrs complex the first negative deflection noted in the QRS complex is which wave - CORRECT ANSWER q wave The relationship between the conducted p waves and the QRS complexes in a sinus arrhythmia will. - CORRECT ANSWER one p wvae for every qrs which chamber comtains the most muscle mass of the heart - CORRECT ANSWER left ventricle the conduction system terminates with the - CORRECT ANSWER purkinje network the p wae on the electrocardiogram represents an electrical impulse that spreads throughout the - CORRECT ANSWER atria to get an accurate measurment of the QRS measure form the - CORRECT ANSWER beginning of q wave to end of s wave which waveform represents ventricular repolorazation on an ecg strip - CORRECT ANSWER T-wave on standard ECG graph paper, a deflection of the tracing upward or downward by one large box (outlined by thick dark lines) from baseline represents - CORRECT ANSWER 1.0 millivolt an ecg caliper measurment of peak to peak flutter waves reveals 5 small boxes wat is the atrial rate for this rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER 300 bpm (each small box is 0.04s. 5 is .20s. 60 divided by .2 is 300) Which of these is a method that can be used to calculate the ventricular rate of a cardiac rhythm when the r-r is regular a. add the number of large boxes between 2 r waves to 300 b. subtract the number of large boxes between 2 r waves from 300 multiply the number of large boxes between r waves to 300 d. divide the number of large boxes between r waves into 300 - CORRECT ANSWER divide which of the following rhythms may be characterized by regular p-p and regular r-r intervals occuring at different rates a. wenckebach b. a fib c. CHB d. first degree av block - CORRECT ANSWER CHB which valves prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary arteries into the ventricles during diastole. - CORRECT ANSWER semilunar in a nsr, the sinus node fires at a rate of - CORRECT ANSWER 61-100 bpm the main cause of SA in adults is - CORRECT ANSWER respiration supraventricular tachycardia is a - CORRECT ANSWER narrow complexed tachycardia greater than 150 bpm a fib is best described as - CORRECT ANSWER chaotic, asynchronous electiral activity in atrial tissue what occurs when a ventricular pacemaker sense electrical current from sources other than the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER oversnesing NSR ranges from - CORRECT ANSWER 60-100 The right half of the heart receives - CORRECT ANSWER deozygenated bloood from the body The left half of the heart distributes - CORRECT ANSWER oxygenated blood to the body Bifurcate - CORRECT ANSWER To split Morphology - CORRECT ANSWER Shape The receiving chambers - CORRECT ANSWER 2 Atria [Show Less]
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CRAT Exam 70 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Exam 70 Questions with Verified Answers Cardiac Cycle - CORRECT ANSWER mechanical events that occur to pump blood Diastole - CORRECT ANSWER Vent... [Show More] ricles Relax (Repolarize) and refills as Atria contracts Rapid Filling Phase - CORRECT ANSWER Atria dumping blood to ventricles; pressure causes AV valves to open Diastasis - CORRECT ANSWER slowing of blood flow; pressure of atria and ventricles equalize Atrial Kick - CORRECT ANSWER Atria contracts/squeeze blood; P-wave S1 (LAB) - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricles Pressure High causes the AV valves to close Diastole and Systole - CORRECT ANSWER 2 Phases of Cardiac Cycle Systole - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricles pumps blood to body Isovolumetric Contraction - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricles squeeze but no blood flow happens yet; SL valves are still closed Ventricular Ejection - CORRECT ANSWER Pumping vigorously of ventricles; SL valves open and blood SHOOTs out of ventricles; half of blood empties Protodiastole - CORRECT ANSWER Pumping less; blood flow slows; pressure of ventricles, aortic and pulmonary all equalize Isovolumetric Relaxation - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricles Relax (Repolarize) S2 (DUB) - CORRECT ANSWER Closing of SL Valves; Ventricles low pressure, Aortic and Pulmonary High pressure Automaticity - CORRECT ANSWER Cell's ability to create an impulse w/o stimulation Conductivity - CORRECT ANSWER Cell's ability to pass impulse to neighboring cells Excitability - CORRECT ANSWER Cells ability to respond to stimulus by depolarizing; IRRITABILITY Contractility - CORRECT ANSWER Cells ability to contract and do work Rhythmicity - CORRECT ANSWER Cells ability to send electrical impulse in a regular and evenly paced manner Refractoriness - CORRECT ANSWER INABILITY of cell to respond to another electrical impulse AV valves (atrioventricular valves) - CORRECT ANSWER Tricuspid and Mitral (bicuspid) Valves SL valves (semilunar valves) - CORRECT ANSWER Pulmonary and Aortic Valves Coronary Arteries - CORRECT ANSWER Deliver/Supplies blood to the heart muscle RCA (Right Coronary Artery) - CORRECT ANSWER Supplies blood to R Atrium, R Ventricle, Bottom of L Ventricle, back of septum LCA (Left Coronary Artery) - CORRECT ANSWER Divides to LAD and Circumflex Circumflex Artery - CORRECT ANSWER Supplies blood to L Artery, side and back of L Ventricle LAD (Left Ant Descending) - CORRECT ANSWER "Widower"; Supplies blood to front and bottom of L Ventricle and front of septum Ischemia - CORRECT ANSWER 1st phase of M.I.: Lack of Oxyfen, ST depression Injury - CORRECT ANSWER 2nd phase of M.I.: Result of Ischemia; tall peaked Twaves and ST segment elevation Infarction - CORRECT ANSWER 3rd phase of M.I.: Necrosis of heart tissue; broad and deep Q wave Atherosclerosis - CORRECT ANSWER Plaque build-up in the inner lining of an artery causing it to narrow or become blocked CAD (Coronary Artery Disease) - CORRECT ANSWER Coronary arteries, that supplies the heart, becomes damaged, diseased, and blocked due to plaque build up. MI (myocardial infarction) - CORRECT ANSWER heart attack Angina - CORRECT ANSWER chest pain Sinus Exit Block - CORRECT ANSWER A pause that occurs when the SA node continues to fire but the impulse is blocked from getting to the atrial tissue. The result is one or more P-QRS-T sequence missing creating a pause. NOTE: When conduction returns, the sinus beat returns ON TIME. R-R is mapping Sinus Arrest - CORRECT ANSWER A pause that occurs when the SA node stops. Then when conduction returns, the beat will NOT be on time. Refractory Period - CORRECT ANSWER "Resistant to"; areas in QRS-T in w/c premature beat can cause a complete depolarization Absolute - CORRECT ANSWER No stimulus that will result in depolarization Relative - CORRECT ANSWER Strong impulse resulting in depolarization Supernormal - CORRECT ANSWER Weak signal can cause depolarization ECG Machine - CORRECT ANSWER Measures electrical impulse of the heart 12 Lead ECG - CORRECT ANSWER Complete picture of the heart; 10 lead wires= 6 chest, 4 limb leads Electrodes - CORRECT ANSWER small sensors placed on the skin to detect the electrical activity from the heart Leads - CORRECT ANSWER covered wires that conduct the electrical impulse from the electrodes to the ECG machine Einthoven's triangle - CORRECT ANSWER A triangle formed by the 3 standard limb leads: I, II, III Isoelectric - CORRECT ANSWER Flat line, no electrical current flowing 3 Standard Limb Leads - CORRECT ANSWER Bipolar Leads I, II, III Augmented Leads - CORRECT ANSWER Unipolar leads aVR, aVL, aVF Chest Leads (precordial leads) - CORRECT ANSWER Unipolar leads V1-V6 V1 - CORRECT ANSWER 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum V2 - CORRECT ANSWER 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum V3 - CORRECT ANSWER Between V2 and V4 V4 - CORRECT ANSWER 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line V5 - CORRECT ANSWER 5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line V6 - CORRECT ANSWER 5th intercostal space, midaxillary line Multichannel Recorder - CORRECT ANSWER An ECG machine that monitors all 12 leads but records three leads at a time Input - CORRECT ANSWER Data entered into ECG Machine Signal Processing - CORRECT ANSWER the process within the ECG machine that amplifies the electrical impulse and converts it to waveforms Output Display - CORRECT ANSWER The part of the ECG machine that displays the tracing for the electrical activity of the heart, usually in a printed form on a 12-lead ECG machine. MAT (Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia) - CORRECT ANSWER Tachy of WAP EAT - CORRECT ANSWER Tachy of EAR PAT (paroxysmal atrial tachycardia) - CORRECT ANSWER PSVT Standard ECG Graph Paper - CORRECT ANSWER Measure amp and duration of electrical conduction of the heart Vertical - CORRECT ANSWER Voltage (mV); 1 small box= 0.01 mV Horizontal - CORRECT ANSWER Duration/Time (mm/sec); 1 small box= 0.04 sec Speed Control - CORRECT ANSWER 25 mm/ sec; regulates how fast/slow is the machine; increasing to 50 mm/sec result to wide ECG Tick Marks - CORRECT ANSWER Marks 3 sec intervals Gain Control - CORRECT ANSWER 10 mV; increases/decreases SIZE of amp 6 sec method - CORRECT ANSWER Irregular; #s of QRS x 10 1500 Method - CORRECT ANSWER Regular; 1500 divided by #s of small boxes between R-R 300 Method - CORRECT ANSWER 300 divided by # of large boxes between R-R [Show Less]
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CRAT Rhythms Exam 24 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Rhythms Exam 24 Questions with Verified Answers Block PAC - CORRECT ANSWER non-conducted PAC Controlled A-fib - CORRECT ANSWER <=100 bpm unco... [Show More] ntrolled a-fib - CORRECT ANSWER greater than 100 bpm IR (IVR) - CORRECT ANSWER 20-40 Bpm AIR(AIVR) - CORRECT ANSWER 41-100 BPM Intrinsic rhythm/ beat - CORRECT ANSWER the patient natural underlying rhythm/ heart beat sick sinus syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER abnormal heart beat caused by malfunction of the sinus node AV junction - CORRECT ANSWER p waves originate JR - CORRECT ANSWER <= 60 Bpm AJR - CORRECT ANSWER 61-100 BMP JT - CORRECT ANSWER 101-130 bpm sinus exit block - CORRECT ANSWER maps out because sinus never stop firing. Sinus Arrest - CORRECT ANSWER does not map out , one or more qrs missing, escape beat takes over Work horse of the heart - CORRECT ANSWER left ventricle atrial fibrillation defined as - CORRECT ANSWER chaotic, asynchronous electrical in atrial tissue. a single reenty focus SVE - CORRECT ANSWER An independent contraction of the atria, before it should 300 method - CORRECT ANSWER regular rhythm, divide # of large boxes R-R into 300 asystole must be confirmed in at least how many leads? - CORRECT ANSWER two rate for atrial flutter - CORRECT ANSWER 250-350 bpm what type of rhythm occurs when the SA node fails to initiate the electrical activity and one of the backup pacemaker sites takes over ? - CORRECT ANSWER Escape Rhythm Basal Heart Rate - CORRECT ANSWER present if abnormal impulse are ignored second-degree heart blocks - CORRECT ANSWER only blocks with irregular ventricular response classical heart block - CORRECT ANSWER second-degree type II where are the ventricular pacemaker cells found? - CORRECT ANSWER Purkinje fibers [Show Less]
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CRAT Vocabulary Exam 35 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRAT Vocabulary Exam 35 Questions with Verified Answers Aberrant - CORRECT ANSWER When the electrical activation of the heart Accessory conduction pa... [Show More] thway - CORRECT ANSWER A tract which bypasses the AV node but inserts into the specialized conduction system Acetylcholine - CORRECT ANSWER A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction action potential - CORRECT ANSWER the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell. acute coronary syndrome (ACS) - CORRECT ANSWER Range of conditions associated with sudden, reduced blood flow to the heart acute myocardial infarction - CORRECT ANSWER Heart attack acute obstruction of a coronary artery Amplitude - CORRECT ANSWER The maximum absolute value attained by an electrical waveform Angina - CORRECT ANSWER chest pain angioplasty - CORRECT ANSWER surgical repair of a blood vessel Angle of Louis - CORRECT ANSWER Below the suprasternal notch where the main part of the sternum and manubrium attached anarchy - CORRECT ANSWER without rule; absence of government; lawlessness monarch - CORRECT ANSWER the one or sole ruler of a nation or state oligarchy - CORRECT ANSWER a government having only a few rulers matriarch - CORRECT ANSWER the mother and ruler of a family or group of people patriarch - CORRECT ANSWER the father and ruler of a family or group of people architect - CORRECT ANSWER the chief designer or builder of buildings and other projects archenemy - CORRECT ANSWER the chief enemy archetype - CORRECT ANSWER the first model of a piece of work archaeology - CORRECT ANSWER the study of the life and history of ancient peoples democracy - CORRECT ANSWER government run by the people either directly or through elected officials bureaucracy - CORRECT ANSWER government characterized by numerous offices and departments staffed by people who are appointed rather than elected aristocracy - CORRECT ANSWER power by the elite or upper class; a class given special privileges because of birth, wealth, and nobility aristocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a member of the aristocracy crat/cracy - CORRECT ANSWER rule or rule by dem - CORRECT ANSWER people aristo - CORRECT ANSWER best im - CORRECT ANSWER not astro - CORRECT ANSWER stars or space naut - CORRECT ANSWER sailor, traveler mar/mer - CORRECT ANSWER Sea, ocean, water geo - CORRECT ANSWER earth over - CORRECT ANSWER too much mis - CORRECT ANSWER bad, wrong inter - CORRECT ANSWER between, among ness - CORRECT ANSWER state or quality of [Show Less]
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Legit CRAT Exam 45 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Legit CRAT Exam 45 Questions with Verified Answers What should a technician do if he or she is ordered to obtain an ECG from an unconscious patient? - C... [Show More] ORRECT ANSWER explain the whole procedure to the family in the room In in-hospital telemetry technician on arriving for is shift notices that the report for the prior shift is incomplete. What should he/she do ______________ - CORRECT ANSWER Notify and seek advice from a senior technician or supervisor. A patient with a trans-telephonic monitor suddenly starts complaining that he has tingling in his left arm and begin slurring his words. Then the most appropriate action is - CORRECT ANSWER to activate EMS What is the best way for recording the symptoms of a patient with an event monitor who calls the service for submission of his recordings? - CORRECT ANSWER usage of the patient's verbiage The cardiology office gets a call from the primary care technician's office. She orders a 48-hour Holter monitor for the diagnosis of syncope in a patient new to the cardiology office. Within the following 24 hours to schedule the patient's testing, the cardiology office is unable to contact the patient. What should be the next step: - CORRECT ANSWER Verify contact information by calling the primary physician's office. A testing facility was ordered to send a mobile cardiovascular telemetry monitor to the patient. The cardiology office was notified by the testing facility and the primary care physician that the patient had palpitations. What is the appropriate next step? - CORRECT ANSWER Explain the issue regarding coverage by contacting primary care physician's office. Offer a different type of monitor that would cover the patient's insurance. It has been reported by trans-telephonic technicians responsible for checking pacemakers in a cardiology office, that a particular demographic area of the patient's population faces more unpredictable disconnections during transmissions than other locations. Next appropriate step is to - CORRECT ANSWER create a list of patients who faced a problem with disconnections The most effective sequence of steps during ECG analysis is - CORRECT ANSWER Regularity, rate, P wave, PR interval, and QRS complex A nursing home requesting the conduction of a trans-telephonic pacemaker check on a facility's new admission calls a cardiology office. What is the technician's next step if the medical record indicates that the patient has been followed is not found? - CORRECT ANSWER Obtain a prescription for trans-telephonic monitoring from the primary care physician's office. If the patient claims that his or her demographic information is incorrect. What measures should be taken? - CORRECT ANSWER The organizational procedure should be followed, and error must be corrected immediately. With whom a patient's health information may be shared (without committing a HIPAA violation), in the absence of a release form? - CORRECT ANSWER With the patient's physician It is appropriate to contact patient's family member when _______________ - CORRECT ANSWER the patient gave permission by signing a HIPAA form. How does explaining the pending procedures or planned services clearly to the patients, benefit the clinician? - CORRECT ANSWER No legal action Ensuring a properly grounded electrocardiograph reduces the risk of _______________ - CORRECT ANSWER 60-cycle electrical interference Cardiac chamber that contains most of the muscle mass of the heart is _______________ - CORRECT ANSWER left ventricle In a pediatric cardiology office, after working hours, a monitor technician offers the delivery of event monitor electrode patches that reduce skin irritation to a patient's home. This an example of - CORRECT ANSWER occupational safety violation the Pacemaker for ST is - CORRECT ANSWER Sinus Node Which of the following is true of sinus arrhythmia? - CORRECT ANSWER The R to R interval is irregular What waves are present in an atrial flutter that are not present in any other rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER Atrial Flutter waves The rhythm is atrial fibrillation is - CORRECT ANSWER Irregular What is true of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? - CORRECT ANSWER The QRS complex width is within normal limits What is true of a junctional rhythm? - CORRECT ANSWER PR intervals are shorter than normal Supraventricular tachycardia originates - CORRECT ANSWER Above the level of the ventricles The normal PR interval is - CORRECT ANSWER 0.10 to 0.20 seconds A T wave represents - CORRECT ANSWER ventricular repolarization Which of the following is true about the 1st Degree AV block? - CORRECT ANSWER the PR Interval is greater than .20 seconds Which of the following is true of ventricular tachycardia? - CORRECT ANSWER QRS is wider than .12 seconds Which of the following is true of torsades de pointes? - CORRECT ANSWER it is polymorphic Which of the following is true of ventricular fibrillation? - CORRECT ANSWER there is no organized rhythm Which of the following is true of asystole? - CORRECT ANSWER There is no electrical activity Which of the following is true about premature ventricular contractions (PVC) - CORRECT ANSWER The impulse originates in the ventricle and QRS is so wide Mobitz Type I, Wenckebach, is characterized by - CORRECT ANSWER QRS is dropped... Mobitz II is characterized by - CORRECT ANSWER QRS is consistent... Third Degree heart block is characterized by - CORRECT ANSWER ... What distinguishes Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) from Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)? - CORRECT ANSWER A normal QRS complex - CORRECT ANSWER is less than .10 seconds wide Name the rhythm that demonstrates 'group beating' - CORRECT ANSWER Mobitz 1 wenchebach Which rhythm would you expect to be associated with cardiac arrest? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular Fibrillation What would be considered tachycardia? - CORRECT ANSWER HR greater than 100 What is the first back up pacemaker in the heart? - CORRECT ANSWER AV Node What describes atrial fibrillation - CORRECT ANSWER P waves are unrecognizable Which of the following is true about the T wave? - CORRECT ANSWER the T wave is normal Holter monitor, or ambulatory monitor - CORRECT ANSWER a small box that is strapped to a patient's waist, neck, or shoulder to monitor the heart for 24 to 48 hours or even up to 30 days as the patient performs normal daily activities Transtelephonic monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER transmitted (trans) over the telephone (telephonic) Digital monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER allows ECG data to be recorded with a personal computer and then transmitted over the Internet to the healthcare facility. 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Latin Root: CRAC, CRAT Exam 26 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Latin Root: CRAC, CRAT Exam 26 Questions with Verified Answers Crac,Crat - CORRECT ANSWER rule, ruler democracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by the people ... [Show More] democrat - CORRECT ANSWER one who supports people ruling democratic - CORRECT ANSWER relating to rule by the people aristocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by the best aristocrat - CORRECT ANSWER the best ruler timocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by people who own the property, military leaders timocrat - CORRECT ANSWER ruler in a timocracy plutocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by the wealthy plutocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a ruler who is wealthy bureaucracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by administrative officials bureaucrat - CORRECT ANSWER an administrative officer who rules technocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by those with technical know how technocrat - CORRECT ANSWER ruler with technical expertise autocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by a single, all-powerful person autocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a single, all powerful ruler. thalassocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled in naval power thalassocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a ruler in a naval power gynocracy - CORRECT ANSWER ruled by women gynocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a woman who rules androcracy - CORRECT ANSWER a rule by men androcrat - CORRECT ANSWER a man who rules kakistrocracy - CORRECT ANSWER a rule by the worst kakistrocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a very bad ruler kleptocracy - CORRECT ANSWER a rule by thieves kleptocrat - CORRECT ANSWER a thief who rules [Show Less]
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CRA Exam Practice 93 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRA Exam Practice 93 Questions with Verified Answers Who uses eBRAP for proposal submissions - CORRECT ANSWER DOD SD-272- federal cash transaction re... [Show More] port - CORRECT ANSWER 1 grant/cooperative agreement ASAP Automated Standard Application for Payments - CORRECT ANSWER a secure, web-based all electronic payment and information application that allows federal agencies to choose from three payment models to fit their financial needs and streamline operations at no charge to federal agencies and their recipients. Grant Payment Program: Allows grantee "recipient" organizations to draw from accounts pre-authorized by federal agencies. 1031/Letter of Credit (LOC) Payment Program: Makes reimbursement payments to financial agents for financial services performed for either Fiscal Service or other federal agencies. Debit Card Payment Program: Allows federal agencies to quickly provide the flexibility of cash with the added protection of a loadable debit card in order to reduce liability. SBIR/STTR - CORRECT ANSWER Requires agencies to give high priority to manufacturing-related research & development NSF requires institutions to provide training and oversight in the responsible and ethical conduct of research to which groups? - CORRECT ANSWER undergrads, grad students, postdoc researchers NSF proposals and reporting - CORRECT ANSWER research.gov Overhead rate NIH restricts foreign governments to - CORRECT ANSWER 8% CFR 200.433 Contingency funds - CORRECT ANSWER generally not allowed request can be made at the award stage pending agency approval as long as its within CFR and general accounting guidelines A safety data sheet (SDS),[1] material safety data sheet (MSDS), or product safety data sheet (PSDS) - CORRECT ANSWER an important component of product stewardship, occupational safety and health, and spill-handling procedures. SDS formats can vary from source to source within a country depending on national requirements. SDSs are a widely used system for cataloging information on chemicals, chemical compounds, and chemical mixtures. SDS information may include instructions for the safe use and potential hazards associated with a particular material or product. The SDS should be available for reference in the area where the chemicals are being stored or in use. There is also a duty to properly label substances on the basis of physico-chemical, health and/or environmental risk. Labels can include hazard symbols such as the European Union standard symbols. FAR clause: 2-52.227-7039 - CORRECT ANSWER 2 = chapter number Federal Financial Assistance Management Improvement Act (P.L. 106-107) - CORRECT ANSWER enacted in 1999 The purposes of the Act are to (1) improve the effectiveness and performance of Federal financial assistance programs, (2) simplify Federal financial assistance application and reporting requirements, (3) improve the delivery of services to the public, and (4) facilitate greater coordination among those responsible for delivering the services. Agency that does not fund health research - CORRECT ANSWER NSF Shelby Amendment - CORRECT ANSWER require Federal awarding agencies to ensure that all data produced under an award will be made available to the public through the procedures established under the Freedom of Information Act permits members of the public to gain access to research data generated through the use of public funds Correct order of regulatory process - starting with lowest level of control - CORRECT ANSWER laws program regulations administrative requirements special terms and conditions If a sub recipient is included in approved budget - CORRECT ANSWER applicant needs prior approval for the need to obtain the identified services from a third party CFDA is a listing of - CORRECT ANSWER federal grant programs Challenge Grant - CORRECT ANSWER funds disbursed upon completion of the challenge requirements The challenge refers to the actions or results that must be achieved before money is released & usually involves substantial effort, so that the recipients know that they are helping themselves through their own hard work & sacrifice Spotlight the recipient organization & provide an endorsement from a well-known entity Help other donors feel that their money goes farther. Enable the recipient to honor & reward the entity that issued the challenge grant Provide the maker the opportunity to garner positive publicity with a notably large funding amount they may avoid parting with A typical requirement is similar to matching funds where funds be raised or acquired from other sources following a stated matching factor, often 2:1, 3:1 or 4:1. For example, a $1,000 challenge grant with a 3:1 match would require the recipient to raise $3,000 before they would receive the $1,000 grant. The challenge could require a new solution to an existing problem that had been ignored. There could be additional requirements specified that could be virtually anything, from program certification to member participation. Usually a fixed upper limit plus a challenge minimum Examples of indirect cost rate bases - CORRECT ANSWER modified total direct cost salaries and wages salaries and wages + fringe Conflict of Commitment - CORRECT ANSWER when the eternal activities of an employee are so substantial or demanding of the staff member's time and attention as to interfere with his/her responsibilities to the unit to which the individual is assigned or to the University Research Data - CORRECT ANSWER laboratory notebooks and/or any form of media format that records the data necessary to reconstruct and evaluate reported results and the events and processes leading to research results Executive Level II - CORRECT ANSWER restriction level of federal executive pay scale that an individual can receive on NIH grant or cooperative agreements US Code - CORRECT ANSWER associate with Public Laws First agency to sponsor scientific research - CORRECT ANSWER NSF Subaward/Subcontract - CORRECT ANSWER Third-party agreement Responsible conduct of research - CORRECT ANSWER institution must have a plan in place to address if applying for financial assistance for education or research from NSF part of America COMPETES Act Biological Hazards - CORRECT ANSWER infectious microorganisms recombinant DNA (rDNA) cdc list of select agents genetically engineered organisms and products STTR - CORRECT ANSWER programs for funding small businesses that are teamed up with research institutions Time to disclose a new invention to funding agency - CORRECT ANSWER within 2 months of discovery Prospective contractor requirements - CORRECT ANSWER must have adequate financial resources to perform the contract must be able to comply with the required or proposed delivery or performance schedule must have a satisfactory performance record walsh-healy public contracts act - CORRECT ANSWER minimum wages, maximum hours safe and sanitary working conditions child labor convict law factors determining whether use of a copyrighted work is a fair use of the work - CORRECT ANSWER purpose of the use amount of the work used effect of the use on the commercial market for the work used APHIS - CORRECT ANSWER federal entity responsible for the inspection of animal care research facilities recharge centers - CORRECT ANSWER animal care centers or vivariums machine shop copy center vivarium - CORRECT ANSWER is an area, usually enclosed, for keeping and raising animals or plants for observation or research. Often, a portion of the ecosystem for a particular species is simulated on a smaller scale, with controls for environmental conditions. phase of clinical trial that involves first in human testing of drug or device - CORRECT ANSWER phase I under America COMPETES NSF requires what for postdocs - CORRECT ANSWER in grant application a description of mentoring activities federal grant and cooperative agreement act of 1977 - CORRECT ANSWER established the difference between federal procurement and federal assistance posting of funding notices in CFDA required by - CORRECT ANSWER UG fundamental research exemption can be voided by - CORRECT ANSWER performing research that is not basic or applied accepting a restriction form a sponsor on the inclusion of foreign nationals in a research project accepting a publication restriction in a research agreement once an institution submits a proposal to a sponsor in response to an RFP - CORRECT ANSWER proposal constitutes a binding offer on the part of the institution to conduct the work as proposed to be protected by copyright work must - CORRECT ANSWER be original include a copyright notice include a disclaimer phase III clinical trial - CORRECT ANSWER involves randomized and blind testing in several hundred to several thousand patients to evaluate the risks and benefits of drug or device department of energy - CORRECT ANSWER oversees the office of science office of scientific integrity - CORRECT ANSWER located within NIH intergovernmental personnel act - CORRECT ANSWER covers the temporary exchange of employees within federal agencies simplified method for determining F&A - CORRECT ANSWER can be used when the total direct cost of work does not exceed $10million Executive order 12372 - CORRECT ANSWER fosters an intergovernmental partnership and strengthens federalism by relying on state and local processes for the coordination and review of proposed federal assistance FDA - CORRECT ANSWER part of DHHS Which phase of a clinical trial involves testing the efficacy of a drug or device? - CORRECT ANSWER Phase II The common rule is found at - CORRECT ANSWER Section 45 CFR part 46 Subpart A In a PI initiated clinical trial, the sponsor according to the FDA is - CORRECT ANSWER The PI submitting the IND to the FDA Which of the following expenses would be include in the distribution base of modified total direct costs? - CORRECT ANSWER equipment depreciation Who owns the following copyrightable works: an online course on intellectual property developed by University staff? - CORRECT ANSWER The University A study subject may have more than one informed consent/authorization document for the Study due to - CORRECT ANSWER Study amendment Under which of the following conditions is a Certificate of Current Cost and Pricing required? - CORRECT ANSWER From any institution that received more than $500,000 in federal funding The primary agency having scope over clinical trials is the - CORRECT ANSWER DHHS Which phase of a clinical trial involves assessing the safety of a drug or device? - CORRECT ANSWER Phase I State and local governments are subject to which of the following OMB Circulars? - CORRECT ANSWER A-102 The first two digits of the CFDA number represent the: - CORRECT ANSWER Sponsor Mrs. I. M. Hurt is participating in a hypertension study and is injured. When would it be contractually appropriate for the sponsor to pay for Mrs. Hurt's injuries - CORRECT ANSWER If Mrs. Hurt was injured by the study drug Which of the following OMB Circulars addresses the cost principles for state, local, and Indian tribal Governments? - CORRECT ANSWER A-87 iEdison helps people comply with the requirements of - CORRECT ANSWER Bayh-Dole Act The ____ clause in an agreement contemplates the transfer of agreement rights from one party, who is an existing party to the agreement, to another party, who is not an existing party to the agreement: - CORRECT ANSWER Assignment Which federal agency is responsible for prosecuting institutional violations of effort reporting - CORRECT ANSWER U.S. Department of Justice, under the False Claims Act The National Institutes of Health requires a written description of a program for providing instruction in the responsible conduct of research for - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional National Research Service Awards Which of the following establishes the actual facilities and administrative cost (indirect cost) rate for a subcontract - CORRECT ANSWER Subcontractor's normal rate Internal Control Mean - CORRECT ANSWER A process designed to achieve its objectives through efficient reliable operations Which of the following is mandated for the oversight of research involving recombinant DNA - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional Biosafety Committee Which of the following is responsible for clinical trial registration on ClinicalTrials.gov - CORRECT ANSWER Sponsor Which of the following would be required to file a disclosure statement (DS-2) with the federal government - CORRECT ANSWER Institutions that have more than $25,000,000 in federal grants and contracts Which of the following information must be included in the notification by a federal officer to the contractor to terminate a contract for convenience - CORRECT ANSWER A specific statement defining the reason for the termination Which of the following are two critical termination clauses of the general provisions of a federal contract - CORRECT ANSWER Default and Convenience How often do approved animal protocols need to be approved by the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)? - CORRECT ANSWER Every 3 years If a principal investigator proposes to conduct research involving human subjects who will take a standardized educational test, but the test will not include any names or other identifying information, the proposal should be - CORRECT ANSWER Submitted for review to the office for Human Research Protection Efficient and Effective operations and reliable financial reporting are the objective of - CORRECT ANSWER Internal Controls A potentially patentable application is only complete when - CORRECT ANSWER It is conceived and reduced to practice For copyrighted works which results from federally sponsored activities, the federal government usually requires - CORRECT ANSWER One copy for the official archives If a graduate student comes into a sponsored research office charging that because of the federal freedom of information act (FOIA) he has the right to obtain a copy of a recently submitted proposal, the research administrator should - CORRECT ANSWER Tell the student to wait to apply to the federal agency until the after a decision is made on the proposal Which of the following sources is Not commonly used for federal funding opportunities? - CORRECT ANSWER The foundation directory Which of the following best describes 2 CFR 220 (OMB Circular A-21)? Now UG Subpart D - CORRECT ANSWER Deals with cost determination but does not identify the circumstances or dictates the participation in the financing of a project A facilities and administrative cost (indirect cost) may be a direct cost if: - CORRECT ANSWER "unlike circumstances" are present According to A-110 title to equipment acquired by a recipient of federal funds vests with? - CORRECT ANSWER recipient A University researcher maintains meticulous notes on in a lab notebook on the outcome of various experiments since the beginning of her employment with the University 5 years ago. The researcher accepts a new position with a neighboring academic institution and wants to take the original laboratory notebook with her. Who owns the lab notebook? - CORRECT ANSWER The University The cost accounting standards that apply to colleges and universities are detailed in - CORRECT ANSWER A-21 The NIH rules for cost analysis and rate setting for animal research facilities come from: - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Analysis and Research Setting Manual (CARS) Gifts may be provided for establishing an endowment but NOT for providing direct support for existing programs. - CORRECT ANSWER False Retention of which of the following records is required by the OMB? - CORRECT ANSWER Financial reports Under most general contracting conditions, which of the following best describes a prime contractor? - CORRECT ANSWER Is responsible for any portion of the work it subcontracts A grants manager should start allowing expenditures on a project only after: - CORRECT ANSWER Principal investigator is notified of award A key component of technology transfer is to: - CORRECT ANSWER Protect inventions and ideas Which of the following are two critical termination clauses of the General Provisions of a federal contract? - CORRECT ANSWER Default and convenience In the United States, which of the following actions would prevent a patent from being issued? - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to file a patent application within one year after public use of the invention Which of the following representations is NOT required for federal grants? - CORRECT ANSWER Federal debt delinquency [Show Less]
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CRA Exam 323 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CRA Exam 323 Questions with Verified Answers Renewal application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER (aka Competing Continuation) Request for an additional period of s... [Show More] upport based on a previously funded project; compete with other competing continuation, competing supplemental, and new applications for funds; If not funded, must use the "new" application to reapply and continuity with previous award will not be retained. Resubmission NIH - CORRECT ANSWER An unfunded application that has been modified following initial review and resubmitted for new consideration. FCOI - CORRECT ANSWER Financial Conflict of Interest Competing Revision Application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER Initial request for (or the award of) additional funds during a current project period to support new or additional activities; reflects an expansion of the scope of the grant-approved activities. Competitive revisions require peer review Extension Application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER Request for additional years of support beyond the years previously awarded Change of Organization Status Application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER rights to and obligations under an NIH grant(s) are acquired incidental to the transfer of all of the assets of the grantee or the transfer of that part of the assets involved in the performance of the grant(s). May result from legislative or other legal action, such as a merger or other corporate change. Change of Institute or Center Application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER Change of awarding NIH institute or center for the noncompeting continuation Change of Grantee or Training Institution Application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER Transfer of the legal and administrative responsibility for a grant-supported project or activity from one legal entity to another before the completion date of the approved project period (competitive segment). Noncompeting Continuation Application NIH - CORRECT ANSWER Request or award for a subsequent budget period within a previously approved project for which a recipient does not have to compete with other applications. STTR - CORRECT ANSWER Small Business Technology Transfer R&D contracts - CORRECT ANSWER to obtain research services and other resources needed by the Federal Government; legally binding documents and used when the principal purpose of the transaction is to acquire a specific service or end product. cooperative agreement - CORRECT ANSWER is a support mechanism where the IC and extramural scientists work together during performance of the research. Under this mechanism, the IC and the extramural community are both responsible for ensuring clinical research is conducted. Used when: 1. Substantial programmatic involvement is anticipated between IC and the recipient during the performance of the research activities 2. The applicant responds to a specific announcement for cooperative agreements and must tailor the application to the announcement requirements CAS - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Accounting Standards IC - CORRECT ANSWER NIH Institutes and Centers FACILITIES AND ADMINISTRATIVE (F&A) COSTS - CORRECT ANSWER Allowable F&A costs may include: • Depreciation use allowance • Facilities operations and maintenance • General administration and general expense • Departmental administration • Sponsored project administration • Libraries The grantee institution assigns the costs to an F&A cost pool from which they are appropriately distributed to all organizational activities on the basis of a rate. The rate is a ratio of the F&A costs to a direct cost base. The amount awarded for F&A costs is determined by multiplying the rate by the allowable costs in the direct cost base for the project. Has exceptions (e.g., training, fellowships, career programs, cancer education, grants, and foreign grants) DIRECT COSTS - CORRECT ANSWER incurred in the conduct of the research project; may include: • Salaries and fringe benefits of the Principal Investigator, other key personnel, and supporting staff • Expenditures for project-related equipment and supplies • Fees and supporting costs for consultant services • Expenses for travel beneficial to the research • Research patient care costs • Alterations and renovations • Publications and other miscellaneous expenses • Contract services • Costs for consortium participants You must seek approval from the Program Director at least six weeks prior to submission if you anticipate submitting an application exceeding $500,000 in direct costs in any year of the project. If the requested amount is significantly greater than $500,000, you should receive approval even further in advance. grant - CORRECT ANSWER federal financial assistance, including money, property, or both, to an eligible entity to perform approved scientific activities with little or no government involvement. Grants are used when no substantial programmatic involvement is anticipated between NIH IC and the recipient & There is no expectation on the part of IC of a specified service or end product other than generating knowledge NSF - CORRECT ANSWER National Science Foundation NIH - CORRECT ANSWER National Institute of Health (under DHHS) NASA - CORRECT ANSWER National Aeronautics and Space Administration USAID - CORRECT ANSWER US Agency for International Development NEH - CORRECT ANSWER National Endowment for Humanities NEA - CORRECT ANSWER National Endowment for the Arts SBIR - CORRECT ANSWER Small Business Innovation Research DVA - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Veteran Affairs DOT - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Transportation DOA or USDA - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Agriculture DOE (?) - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Education DOE - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Energy IES - CORRECT ANSWER Institute of Educational Sciences (under Dept of Ed) DOD - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Defense ONR - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Naval Research AFOSR - CORRECT ANSWER Air Force Office of Scientific Research ARO - CORRECT ANSWER Army Research Office DARPA - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency DHHS - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Health and Human Services CDC - CORRECT ANSWER Center for Disease Control FDA - CORRECT ANSWER Food and Drug Administration (under DHHS) OMB - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Management and Budget NAICS - CORRECT ANSWER North American Industrial Classification System SOW - CORRECT ANSWER Scope of Work FAR - CORRECT ANSWER Federal Aquisition Regulations CFDA - CORRECT ANSWER Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Mandated by OMB Circular A-89 GSA - CORRECT ANSWER General Service Administration RPPR - CORRECT ANSWER Research Performance Progress Report OCRBP - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Clinical Research and Bioethics Policy (NIH) OBA - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Biotechnology Activities (NIH) F&A - CORRECT ANSWER Facilities and Administration (costs) IHE - CORRECT ANSWER Institution of Higher Education POP - CORRECT ANSWER Period of Performance FDP - CORRECT ANSWER Federal Demonstration Partnership FFATA - CORRECT ANSWER Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act MTDC - CORRECT ANSWER Modified Total Direct Costs RFP - CORRECT ANSWER Request For Proposal NoA - CORRECT ANSWER Notice of Award DS-2 - CORRECT ANSWER Disclosure Statement CASB - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Accounting Standard Board IACUC - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee IRB - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional Review Board IP - CORRECT ANSWER Intellectual Property FOIA - CORRECT ANSWER Freedom of Information Act NERF - CORRECT ANSWER Non-Exclusive Royalty Free OLAW - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare WMA - CORRECT ANSWER World Medical Association CFR - CORRECT ANSWER Code of Federal Regulations PHS - CORRECT ANSWER Public Health Services T&C - CORRECT ANSWER Terms and Conditions IBC - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional BioSafety Committee OSHA - CORRECT ANSWER Occupational Safety and Health Act FLSA - CORRECT ANSWER Fair Labor Standards Act ITAR - CORRECT ANSWER International Trafficking in Arms Regulations EAR - CORRECT ANSWER Export Administration Regulations OFAC - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Foreign Asset Control UBMTA - CORRECT ANSWER Uniform Biological Material Transfer Agreement OFPP - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Federal Procurement Policy OHRP - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Human Research Protection EPA - CORRECT ANSWER Environmental Protection Agency IDC - CORRECT ANSWER Indirect Cost; excludes: -equipment >$5K -capital expenditures -patient care -rent -tuition/scholarships/fellowships -participant support -Subaward over $25K DOC - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Commerce SBA - CORRECT ANSWER Small Business Administration DOI - CORRECT ANSWER Department of the Interior HIPAA - CORRECT ANSWER Health Insurance Portability and Accountibility Act COGR - CORRECT ANSWER Council on Governmental Regulations SAM - CORRECT ANSWER System for Award Management USPTO - CORRECT ANSWER US Patent and Trademark Office D&F - CORRECT ANSWER Determination and Finding (FAR 1.701) SAT - CORRECT ANSWER Simplified Acquisition Threshold ($150K in 2016) NIOSH - CORRECT ANSWER National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health FSRS - CORRECT ANSWER FFATA Subaward Reporting System TSDF - CORRECT ANSWER Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facility CO - CORRECT ANSWER Contract Officer COTR - CORRECT ANSWER Contracting Officer's Technical Representative NRC - CORRECT ANSWER Nuclear Regulatory Commission CHP - CORRECT ANSWER Chemical Hygiene Plan GHS - CORRECT ANSWER Globally Harmonized System IDP - CORRECT ANSWER Individual Development Plan EDP - CORRECT ANSWER Executive Development Plan RCR - CORRECT ANSWER Responsible Conduct of Research DOL - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Labor ADEA - CORRECT ANSWER Age Discrimination in Employment Act ADA - CORRECT ANSWER Americans with Disabilities Act RCRA - CORRECT ANSWER Resource Conservation and Recovery Act NARA - CORRECT ANSWER National Archives and Records Administration DUNS - CORRECT ANSWER Data Universal Numbering System; for NIH unique nine-digit identification number for each physical location of organization SFI - CORRECT ANSWER Significant Financial Interests COI - CORRECT ANSWER Conflict of Interest NCPHSBBR - CORRECT ANSWER National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of BioMedical and Behavioral Research FWA - CORRECT ANSWER Federalwide Assurance (Human Research) HRSA - CORRECT ANSWER Health Resources and Services Administration ORI - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Research Integrity AAHRPP - CORRECT ANSWER Association for the Accreditation of Human Research Protection Programs IND - CORRECT ANSWER Investigational New Drug CDM - CORRECT ANSWER Clinical Data Management APHIS - CORRECT ANSWER Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service AAALAC - CORRECT ANSWER Association for Assessment and Accreditation of Laboratory Animal Care IHS - CORRECT ANSWER Indian Health Service SAMHSA - CORRECT ANSWER Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration VAS - CORRECT ANSWER Vertebrate Animals Section (of NIH proposal) AAU - CORRECT ANSWER Association of American Universities UTSA - CORRECT ANSWER Uniform Trade Secrets Act ULC - CORRECT ANSWER Uniform Law Commission NDA - CORRECT ANSWER Non-Disclosure Agreement GPEA - CORRECT ANSWER Government Paperwork Elimination Act ERA - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic Research Administration NSPIRES - CORRECT ANSWER NASA Solicitation and Proposal Integrated Review and Evaluation System PAMS - CORRECT ANSWER Portfolio Analysis and Management System (DOEnergy) NLM - CORRECT ANSWER National Library of Medicine EIR - CORRECT ANSWER Extramural Invention Report PVP - CORRECT ANSWER Plant Variety Protection RAC - CORRECT ANSWER Recombinant DNA Advisory Committee USML - CORRECT ANSWER United States Munition List CCL - CORRECT ANSWER Commerce Control List FCPA - CORRECT ANSWER Foreign Corrupt Practices Act USC - CORRECT ANSWER U.S. Code ACM$ - CORRECT ANSWER Award Cash Management $ervice CMIA - CORRECT ANSWER Cash Management Improvement Act EDGAR - CORRECT ANSWER Education Department General Administrative Regulations GAAP - CORRECT ANSWER Generally Accepted Accounting Principles GASB - CORRECT ANSWER Governmental Accounting Standards Board FASB - CORRECT ANSWER Financial Accounting Standards Board IBS - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional Base Salary VUCS - CORRECT ANSWER Voluntary Uncommitted Cost Share CDA - CORRECT ANSWER Career Development Award (NIH) GAAS - CORRECT ANSWER Generally Accepted Auditing Standards GAGAS - CORRECT ANSWER Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards (Yellow Book) GAO - CORRECT ANSWER Government Accountability Office OIG - CORRECT ANSWER Office of the Inspector General SEFA - CORRECT ANSWER Schedule of Expenditures of Federal Awards COSO - CORRECT ANSWER Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission COMPETES - CORRECT ANSWER Creating Opportunities to Meaningfully Promote Excellence in Technology, Education and Science (Act) CRADA - CORRECT ANSWER Cooperative Research And Development Agreement OSTI - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Science and Technology Information GFP - CORRECT ANSWER Government Furnished Property GFM - CORRECT ANSWER Government Furnished Material Davis-Bacon Act - CORRECT ANSWER The Davis-Bacon act of 1931 is a United States federal law that establishes the requirement for paying the local prevailing wages and fringe benefits on public works projects for laborers and mechanics. It applies to "contractors and subcontractors performing on federally funded or assisted contracts in excess of $2,000 for the construction, alteration, or repair (including painting and decorating) of public buildings or public works". Biohazard Level 1 - CORRECT ANSWER Work involving well-characterized agents not known to consistently cause disease in immunocompetent adult humans, and present minimal potential hazard to laboratory personnel and the environment. Work is typically conducted on open bench tops using standard microbiological practices. Special containment equipment or facility design is not required, but may be used as determined by appropriate risk assessment. Example: Chicken Pox Biohazard Level 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Work involving agents that pose moderate hazards to personnel and the environment. It differs from BSL-1 in that: 1) laboratory personnel have specific training in handling pathogenic agents and are supervised by scientists competent in handling infectious agents and associated procedures; 2) access to the laboratory is restricted when work is being conducted; and 3) all procedures in which infectious aerosols or splashes may be created are conducted in BSCs or other physical containment equipment. Example: HIV Biohazard Level 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Work with indigenous or exotic agents that may cause serious or lethal disease via aerosol transmission (inhalation). Strictly controlled and must be registered with government agencies Ventilation must provide ducted, directional airflow with no re-circulation; must have all BL-2 protestions plus more protective primary barriers as necessary (scrub suits, respirators, etc). Examples: West Nile, Yellow Fever Biohazard Level 4 - CORRECT ANSWER Work with agents that are extremely dangerous and pose a high risk of life-threatening disease. Maximum protection and containment. Complete clothing change/shower/decontamination of all meterials before leaving the facility. Class III Biosafety cabinet. Usually work is done in separate, isolated buildings with dedicated supply/exhaust ventilation through HEPA filters. Examples: Ebola, Lassa Virus, or any agent with unknown risks of transmission. Biohazard Symbol - CORRECT ANSWER Created by Dow Chemical Company in 1966 "Wanted something memorable but meaningless so they could educate people on what it means" Biohazardous Waste - CORRECT ANSWER Any waste containing infectious materials or potentially infectious substances (blood, sharps, or other wastes that could cause injury during handling). AKA: Infectious Waste or Biomed Waste Biological Hazards - CORRECT ANSWER Biological substances that pose a threat to the health of living organisms, primarily that of humans. Disposal of Biological Hazards - CORRECT ANSWER Red sharps containers and other contaminated biohazard waste must be collected by a licenced biohazard waste hauler. Non-contaminated waste can be disposed of as medical waste. Hazardous Materials - CORRECT ANSWER Any items or agent which has the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment, either by itself or through interaction with other factors. Can be Biological, Chemical, Radiological, and/or Physical Nuremberg Trials - CORRECT ANSWER 1945-1946 Nazis performing medical experiments without subject's consent. Led to the creation of the Nuremberg Code Example: studying the effects of a human only drinking salt water for 3-4 months Nuremberg Code (4 points) - CORRECT ANSWER Outlines and defines the ethical conduct of medical experiments. 1) All research must have requirements for informed consent (must be voluntary) 2) Research must have benefits to society 3) Research must avoid any unnecessary risk 4) Must be run by scientifically qualified investigators Thalidomide - CORRECT ANSWER 1962 Seen as a "cure all" (especially for morning sickness) and was sold to the public without a study into potential side effects Caused severe birth defects The Declaration of Helsinki was created as a direct result Declaration of Helsinki - CORRECT ANSWER 1964 Build on the Nuremberg Code Recommendations: 1) Research with humans should be based on lab and animal experimentation 2) Research should be conducted by a medically/scientifically qualified individual 3) Risks should not exceed benefits Declaration of Helsinki 1975 review - CORRECT ANSWER 1) There must be an independent review of research protocols 2) Provided requirements for informed consent Syphilis Study at Tuskegee - CORRECT ANSWER 1932-1972 Targeted African Americans Subjects were told they would receive free medical care for Syphilis but received nothing Researchers deliberately withheld Penicillin from subjects, despite it being the known cure for Syphilis National Research Act - CORRECT ANSWER 1974 Established the existence of Institutional Review Boards to review biomedical and behavioral research involving human subjects Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects in biomedical/behavioral research Identified basic ethical principles that should underlie the conduct of biomedical and behavioral research involving human subjects Belmont Report - CORRECT ANSWER 1979 A report created by the National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects of Biomedical and Behavioral Research. Prompted in part by the Tuskegee Syphilis Study The three fundamental ethical principles for using any human subjects for research are: 1) Respect for Persons 2)Beneficence 3) Justice Respect for Persons - CORRECT ANSWER One of the three fundamental ethical principles for using any human subjects in research outlined by the Belmont Report. Researchers must be truthful and conduct no deception -Collect informed consent. Must include Information, Comprehension, and Voluntariness. Must protect the privacy of the subject. -Subjects with diminished autonomy (Vulnerable Populations) are entitled to protection including: children, prisoners, pregnant women, fetuses Beneficence - CORRECT ANSWER One of the three fundamental ethical principles for using any human subjects in research outlined by the Belmont Report. -Subject should not be harmed -Research should maximize possible benefits and minimize possible harm -Assessment of risks and benefits. Justice - CORRECT ANSWER One of the three fundamental ethical principles for using any human subjects in research outlined by the Belmont Report. -Benefits and Risks of the study must be distributed fairly -Fair procedures for subject selection The Common Rule - CORRECT ANSWER 1991 45CFR Part 46 A rule of ethics regarding biomedical and behavioral research involving human subjects in the United States. The basic DHHS policy for the protection of human subjects. -Requirement for assuring compliance by research institution -Requirements for obtaining and documenting informed consent -Requirements for IRB membership, function, operations, review of research, and record keeping Adopted by 15 federal departments and agencies 45CFR Part 46 - CORRECT ANSWER The Common Rule Office of Human Research Protection - CORRECT ANSWER (OHRP) Office within DHHS in charge of implementing regulations relating to the protection of human subjects in research. OHRP - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Human Research Protection (DHHS) Federal Wide Assurance - CORRECT ANSWER (FWA) A FWA is an agreement between a research institution and DHHS to comply with federal regulations concerning research involving human subjects, including the ethical principles outlined in the Belmont Report and the DHHS regulations 45 CFR Part 46. Only type of assurance currently accepted and approvedby OHRP Every research institution must have one FWA - CORRECT ANSWER Federal Wide Assurance Institutional Review Board - CORRECT ANSWER (IRB) A specifically constituted review body established or designated by an entity to protect the welfare of human subjects recruited to participate in funded biomedical or behavioral research OHRP must approve of each review board formed and it's members. IRB - CORRECT ANSWER Institutional Review Board IRB Members - CORRECT ANSWER At least 5 members. Federal regulations require that membership of the IRB include at a minimum, one member whose primary concerns are in scientific areas, one member whose primary concerns are in nonscientific areas, numerous members representing more than a single profession, and at least one individual not affiliated with the institution. IRB review - CORRECT ANSWER Full Review Expedited Review Exempt (not reviewed) IRB Review Full - CORRECT ANSWER -The study has a greater than minimal risk -Clinical Trials, vulnerable populations -Does not meet the requirements for exempt or expedited -Reviewed during monthly IRB meetings IRB Review Expedited - CORRECT ANSWER -Presents no more than a "minimal risk" for human subjects -Sureys, focus groups -Study does not qualify for an exemption but there are no additional risks -7 categories for initial review IRB Review Exempt - CORRECT ANSWER -Not reviewed by the IRB -Poses no more than minimal risk -Non invasive, educational, document review IRB wants to know about every study - CORRECT ANSWER -Purpose of Research -Study Details -Funding Source -Benefits/Risks -Precautions IRB's Role - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Review risk assessment 2) Review privacy and confidentially 3) Confirm 0 ethical concerns 4) Review the consent process/document IRB can terminate a previously approved study if - CORRECT ANSWER 1) They discover unanticipated harm OR 2) The study is not following IRB regulatins Vulnerable Population - CORRECT ANSWER Certain human subjects are categorized as vulnerable populations and require special treatment with respect to safeguards of their well-being. Examples include pregnant women, human fetuses and neonates, children, cognitively impaired persons, prisoners, students and employees, and educationally disadvantaged individuals. IRB possible decisions - CORRECT ANSWER Approve Conditionally Approve Table Reject IRB Documentation Requirement - CORRECT ANSWER IRB documentation must be kept for a minimum of 3 years Research - CORRECT ANSWER A systematic investigation designed to develop or contribute to generalizable knowledge Human Subjects - CORRECT ANSWER A living individual about whom an investigator conducting research obtains (1) data through intervention or interaction with the individual or (2) identifiable private information Protocol - CORRECT ANSWER A formal description and design for a specific research project involving human subjects, vertebrate animals, or biohazards Informed Consent Required Elements - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Study description 2) Reasonably foreseeable risks and discomforts 3) Reasonably foreseeable benefits 4) Disclosure of alternative procedures/treatments 5) Confidentially of records 6) Compensation and Treatment for Injury 7) Contact Information 8) Voluntary participation "As Necessary" Elements of Informed Consent - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Risks are currently unforeseeable 2) investigators ma terminate participation 3) Additional Costs 4) Consequences for subject withdrawal 5) Significant new findings 6) # of subjects participating Continuing Review - CORRECT ANSWER Continuing review, sometimes referred to as "IRB renewal," of human subjects research projects is required at least annually even if no changes have occurred to the recruitment materials, research procedures, or subject population during the IRB approval period. 2 CFR 200.430 - CORRECT ANSWER Effort Reporting Requirements (UG) Expanded Authorities - CORRECT ANSWER "Expanded authorities" refer to a limited number of actions that normally require awarding agency prior approval but for which HHS has waived its authority and given this authority to the grantee -Carryover of unobligated balances from one budget period to the next successive budget period -Cost-related prior approvals for direct cost items, including research patient care costs and equipment -Extension of final budget period of a project period without additional funds -Pre-award costs up to (and including) 90 days before the beginning date of the initial budget period of a new or competing continuation award -Transfer of performance of substantive programmatic work to a third party (by subaward or a contract under the grant) Office of Research Integrity - CORRECT ANSWER (ORI) The Office of Research Integrity Oversees and directs Public Health Service (PHS) research integrity activities Within DHHS ORI - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Research Integrity Patent - CORRECT ANSWER Granting of a property right to the inventor. "The right to exclude others from making, using, offering for sale, or selling" the invention in the US or importing the invention to the US Term is usually 20 years Issued by the US Patent and Trademark Office Patents - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Utility 2) Design 3) Plant Utility Patent - CORRECT ANSWER Granted to anyone who invents or discovers any new and useful process, machine, article of manufacture, composition of matter, or any new/useful improvement thereof Design Patent - CORRECT ANSWER Granted to anyone who invents a new, original, and ornamental design for an article of manufacture Plant Patent - CORRECT ANSWER Granted to anyone who invents or discovers and asexually reproduces and distinct/new variety of plant 37 CFR Part 401 - CORRECT ANSWER Bayh-Dole Act Bayh-Dole Act - CORRECT ANSWER 1980 Permits businesses and non-profits to retain ownership of the inventions made under federally funded research and contract programs, while also giving the government license to practice the subject of invention Organizations are expected to file for patent protection and commercialize for the benefit of public health Encourages universities to participate in tech transfer Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance - CORRECT ANSWER Compendium of federal programs, projects, services, and activities that provide assistance or benefits to the American public Description of every federal assistance program in the country (grants) CFDA - CORRECT ANSWER Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Federal Register - CORRECT ANSWER Daily journal of the US Government where rules are introduced daily Code of Federal Regulations - CORRECT ANSWER Codification of the general and permanent rules published in the Federal Register where new rules are finalized CF - CORRECT ANSWER Code A-21 - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Principles for Education Institutions A-89 - CORRECT ANSWER Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance A-110 - CORRECT ANSWER Uniform Administrative Requirements for Grants and other agreements with institutes of higher education, hospitals, and other non-profit A-122 - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Principles for non-profit organizations A-133 - CORRECT ANSWER Audit of states, local governments, and non-profit institutions Uniform Guidance Subpart A - CORRECT ANSWER Acronyms and Definitions Uniform Guidance Subpart B - CORRECT ANSWER General Provisions Uniform Guidance Subpart C - CORRECT ANSWER Pre-Award Requirements Uniform Guidance Subpart D - CORRECT ANSWER Post Award Requirements Uniform Guidance Subpart E - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Principles Uniform Guidance Subpart F - CORRECT ANSWER Audit Requiremenets Uniform Guidance Appendices - CORRECT ANSWER Funding Opportunities, F&A information Uniform Guidance effective date - CORRECT ANSWER 12/26/2014 Funding Mechanisms - CORRECT ANSWER Assistance Procurement Assistance Funding Mechanisms - CORRECT ANSWER Grant Cooperative Agreement Procurement Funding Mechanisms - CORRECT ANSWER Contract Uniform Guidance Subpart E Replaces - CORRECT ANSWER A-21 Uniform Guidance Subpart C and D Replaces - CORRECT ANSWER A-110 Uniform Guidance Subpart F Replaces - CORRECT ANSWER A-133 Uniform Guidance - COI - CORRECT ANSWER Requires agencies to establish conflict of interest policies for federal awards Uniform Guidance - Funding Notices - CORRECT ANSWER Agencies are required to give 30 days, preferably 60, days notice prior to the deadline 200.112 - CORRECT ANSWER UG Conflict of Interest Policy 200.203 - CORRECT ANSWER Notices of Funding Opportunities 200.204 - CORRECT ANSWER Agency Review of Merit Proposals Uniform Guidance - Agency Review of Merit Proposals - CORRECT ANSWER Requires agencies to design and execute a merit review process for applications 200.206 - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Application Requirements Uniform Guidance - Standard Application Requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Agency forms must comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Continues push towards standard pre and post award forms 200.303 - CORRECT ANSWER Internal Controls Uniform Guidance - Internal Controls - CORRECT ANSWER Establish and maintain effective internal controls 200.306 - CORRECT ANSWER Cost Sharing or Matching Uniform Guidance - Cost Sharing/Matching - CORRECT ANSWER Voluntary committed cost sharing is not expected in proposals and is not used as a factor during the merit review. Subrecipient - CORRECT ANSWER A subaward is for the purpose of carrying out a portion of a Federal Award and creates a Federal Assistance relationship with the subrecipient. -Intellectual Activity Contractor - CORRECT ANSWER A contract is for the purpose of obtaining goods and services for the non-federal entity's own use and creates a procurement relationship with the contractor -Providing a service 200.331 - CORRECT ANSWER Requirements for Pass-Thru entities Requirements for Pass-Thru entities 200.331 - CORRECT ANSWER Established a 10% de minimus rate Established prescriptive monitoring requirements Fixed Amount Subawards - CORRECT ANSWER Up to $150,000 200.413 - CORRECT ANSWER Direct Costs 200.430 - CORRECT ANSWER Time and Effort Certification 200.453 Materials and Supplies - CORRECT ANSWER Allows for the purchase of computers on grants even if it is not solely dedicated to the award 200.461 - CORRECT ANSWER Publication and Printing Costs Uniform Guidance Single Audit Threshold - CORRECT ANSWER $750,000 200.474 - CORRECT ANSWER Dependent care costs Exports - CORRECT ANSWER Any oral, written, electronic, or visual disclosure, shipment, transfer, or transmission of comodities, technology, information, technical data, assistance or software codes to: -Anyone living outside the US (incl US citizen) -A non-US individual (wherever they are) -A foreign embassy or affiliate Export Governing Agencies - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Treasury Department of Commerce Department of State FACR - CORRECT ANSWER Foreign Assets Control Regulations Foreign Assets Control Regulations - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Treasury Control: travel abroad, transactions with foreign individuals or countries, export and import EAR - CORRECT ANSWER Export Administration Regulations Export Administration Regulations - CORRECT ANSWER Department of Commerce Control: dual-use goods/software/technology predominately civilian in nature but may include military applications. Also: Anti-boycott provisions ITAR - CORRECT ANSWER International Traffic in Arms Regulations International Traffic in Arms Regulations - CORRECT ANSWER Department of State Control: Goods/software/information specifically designed, developed, or modified for military or intelligence applications. Also: Defense services Fundamental Research - CORRECT ANSWER Basic and applied research in science and engineering, the results of which ordinarily are published and shared broadly within the scientific community Fundamental Research Exclusion - CORRECT ANSWER Research results generated during the course of fundamental research are excluded from the requirements of export control laws and regulations. No license is needed to share these results, even if they relate to items or technology that is otherwise controlled. Deemed Export - CORRECT ANSWER Transfers of technology to a foreign national within the US OFAC - CORRECT ANSWER Office of Foreign Asset Control US dept of Treasury Examples of OFAC Country Sanctions - CORRECT ANSWER Cuba Democratic Republic of Congo Iran North Korea Sudan Syria *not a comprehensive list and is updated periodically FCA False Claims Act - CORRECT ANSWER American federal law that imposes liability on persons and companies (typically federal contractors) who defraud governmental programs. FCA does not require proof of specific intent to defraud the federal government Majority of cases are from whistleblowers FCA - CORRECT ANSWER False Claims Act Examples of FCA claims - CORRECT ANSWER -Falsifying records -Double-billing -Submitting bills for services never performed/items never purchased -"knowingly" making false statements Qui Tam Action - CORRECT ANSWER Whistleblower filing a lawsuit Anti-kickback Act of 1986 - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits a personal from soliciting or accepting any kickback related to a federal subcontract Stark Law - CORRECT ANSWER Prevents physicians from referring Medicare patients for health services to an entity with which there is a financial relationship AND Entity cannot submit Medicare claims for services resulting from such a referral. Welsh-Healey Public Contacts Act - CORRECT ANSWER Requires contractors under contracts exceeding $10K to pay employees the federal minimum wage plus time and a half for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek Service Contracts Act - CORRECT ANSWER Requires contractors under contracts exceeding $2,500 to pay service employees to be paid no less than the prevailing wage/benefits in the locality Contracts Work Hours and Safety Standards Act - CORRECT ANSWER Requires contractors to pay laborers and mechanics at least time and a half for all hours worked over 40 in a workweek; and prohibits unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous working conditions Copeland Anti-Kickback Act - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits inducing an employee to give up and part of his/her compensation to which he/she is entitled to under a contract of employment Byrd Amendment - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits the use of appropriated funds to pay for lobbiests Simpson Craig Amendment - CORRECT ANSWER Makes any organization that is tax-exempt ineligible for federal funds to engage in lobbying Simpson Craig Amendment AKA... - CORRECT ANSWER Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995 Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995 AKA... - CORRECT ANSWER Simpson Craig Amendment Title IX - CORRECT ANSWER 1975 Broadly prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in any education program or activity receiving federal financial assistance Age Discrimination Act of 1975 - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits discrimination on the basis of age in programs and activities receiving federal financial assistance ADA Americans with Disabilities Act - CORRECT ANSWER 1990 Wide ranging civil rights law that is intended to protect against discrimination based on disability ADA - CORRECT ANSWER American with Disabilities Act Utilization of Small Business and Small Disadvantaged Business Concerns - CORRECT ANSWER Created SBIR/STTR grants Hatch Act - CORRECT ANSWER 1939 Attempted to limit the political activities of employees in federal, state, and local governments. The goal being to enforce political neutrality among civil service Prohibits federal employees from: - holding public office -Influencing elections -Participating/managing political campaigns -exerting undue influenceon government hiring Hatch Act Prohibits - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits federal employees from: - holding public office -Influencing elections -Participating/managing political campaigns -exerting undue influenceon government hiring Remedies for Noncompliance (UG) - CORRECT ANSWER -Temporally withhold cash payment -Disallow all or part of the cost/activity -Wholly/partly suspend or terminate the award -Initiate suspension/debarment proceedings -Withhold further Federal awards -Other legally available actions IDC Exclusions (7) - CORRECT ANSWER -equipment >$5K -capital expenditures -patient care -rent -tuition/scholarships/fellowships -participant support -Subaward over $25K Single Audit Requirement - CORRECT ANSWER $750K or more in federal awards in the entity's FY Lapses in Internal Controls - CORRECT ANSWER Deficiency Material Weakness Significant Deficiency Clinical Trial - CORRECT ANSWER A research study in which one or more human subjects are prospectively assigned to one or more interventions (which may include placebo or other control) to evaluate the effects of those interventions on health-related biomedical or behavioral outcomes. First Agency to Conduct a Clinical Trial - CORRECT ANSWER Navy (citrus) Phase I Clinical Trial - CORRECT ANSWER Testing of drug on healthy volunteers for dose-ranging Researchers test a new drug or treatment in a small group of people for the first time to evaluate its safety, determine a safe dosage range, and identify side effects. Phase II Clinical Trial - CORRECT ANSWER Testing of drug on patients to assess efficacy and safety The drug or treatment is given to a larger group of people to see if it is effective and to further evaluate its safety. Phase III Clinical Trial - CORRECT ANSWER Testing of drug on patients to assess efficacy, effectiveness and safety (usually multi-center trials on a much larger patient groups). The drug or treatment is given to large groups of people to confirm its effectiveness, monitor side effects, compare it to commonly used treatments, and collect information that will allow the drug or treatment to be used safely. Phase IV Clinical Trial - CORRECT ANSWER Studies are done after the drug or treatment has been marketed to gather information on the drug's effect in various populations and any side effects associated with long-term use GCP - CORRECT ANSWER Good Clinical Practices; regulations and guidelines which set minimum standards for clinical trials. They are designed to accomplish two primary purposes: -to ensure the quality and integrity of data obtained from clinical testing, and -to protect the rights and welfare of clinical subject Sponsored Project Proposal - CORRECT ANSWER A formal request for financial support from an extramural source Pre-Proposal - CORRECT ANSWER A short description of a project that does not involve a binding commitment of university resources. A Pre-Proposal is also known as... - CORRECT ANSWER Preliminary proposal, white paper, letter of intent, or concept paper Proposals - CORRECT ANSWER New Continuation Renewal of competing continuation Supplemental Contract Proposal Solicited Proposal - CORRECT ANSWER A proposal that is submitted in response to a specific work statement from the sponsor. A Request for Proposals (RFP) or Request for Applications (RFA) is sometimes used by sponsors to solicit proposals for specific research, development, or training projects or to provide specific services or goods. Unsolicited Proposal - CORRECT ANSWER A written proposal for a new or innovative idea that is submitted to an agency for the purpose of obtaining a contract with the government, and that is not in response to an RFP, broad agency announcement, or any other government-initiated solicitation or program. Program Announcements Funding Opportunity Announcement Request for Application (RFA) Unsolicited Proposals - CORRECT ANSWER Program Announcements Funding Opportunity Announcement Request for Application (RFA) Unsolicited Proposal Award Mechanism - CORRECT ANSWER Grant or Cooperative Agreement Solicited Proposals - CORRECT ANSWER Request for Proposal Request for Quotation Request for Bid Broad Agency Announcement Solicited Proposal Award Mechanism - CORRECT ANSWER Contract Grant/Cooperative Agreement General Proposal Elements (8) - CORRECT ANSWER Title Abstract Table of Contents Project Description/Scope of Work Vitae/Biosketch Budget and Justification Facilities/resources available Appendices NIH Proposal Review Criteria (5) - CORRECT ANSWER Significance Investigator Innovation Approach Environment NSF Proposal Review Criteria (2) - CORRECT ANSWER Intellectual Meritit Broader Impacts NSF Proposal Submission Website - CORRECT ANSWER Fastlane NIH Proposal Submission Website - CORRECT ANSWER Grants.gov NASA Proposal Submission Website - CORRECT ANSWER NSPIRES Invention Reporting Website - CORRECT ANSWER iEdison Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Act - CORRECT ANSWER The law requires employers to provide their employees with working conditions that are free of known dangers. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) - CORRECT ANSWER With the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, Congress created the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to assure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education and assistance. OSHA - CORRECT ANSWER Part of the Department of Labor [Show Less]
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CCHT practice exam 238 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CCHT practice exam 238 Questions with Verified Answers Annually - CORRECT ANSWER AAMI Chemical Analysis of water used for Hemodialysis is tested Clea... [Show More] n the machine surface immediately - CORRECT ANSWER A dialysis technician observes a drop of blood on the surface of a patient's hemodialysis machine. Which of these actions should the dialysis technician take? About one ounce (30 ml) fluid is on the floor - CORRECT ANSWER A dialysis technician observes all of the below on the treatment floor, which one poses an environment risk? An artery to a vein - CORRECT ANSWER A fistula connects Vitamin B12 - CORRECT ANSWER A marker used to determine the middle molecule clearance of a dialyzer is Cations and anions - CORRECT ANSWER A mixed- bed DI tank contains A glomerulus and a tubule system - CORRECT ANSWER A nephron is made up of An infiltration - CORRECT ANSWER A patient complains of pain at the venous needle site. The dialysis technician observes there is swelling distal to the venous needle site and that the venous pressure is rising. The dialysis technician should suspect Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER A patient who is to receive their first dialysis treatment is prone to? bananas - CORRECT ANSWER A patient tells the technician that the dietician reviewed high potassium foods with her. During the conversation she states she routinely eats the following foods. Which one is highest in potassium? It's a new Federal regulation - CORRECT ANSWER A reason why a dialysis technician is to be certified is Clotting of extracorporeal circuit - CORRECT ANSWER A rise in transmembrane pressure in a low flux dialyzer during hemodialysis is indicative of Never document something that someone else did - CORRECT ANSWER A teammate asks you to document the normal saline he just gave to Mr. Smith. You would: May rupture and cause the patient to bleed profusely - CORRECT ANSWER A true aneurysm can be dangerous because it Was the predialysis sample drawn from the venous port? - CORRECT ANSWER A patient's laboratory results indicate that the predialysis BUN level was lower than the post dialysis BUN level. When interpreting these findings the technician should seek the answer to which of these questions? Tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER A rapid pulse of 104 beats/minute would indicate that the patient has: 500 - CORRECT ANSWER A patient's dry weight is 154.0 (70kg) and the patient's pre treatment weight is 158.4. (72kg). For a four- hour treatment, how many mL/ hour must the patient lose to reach dry weight? 200 CFU/mL - CORRECT ANSWER AAMI standards for the total microbial count of dialysate shall not exceed: 3-5% of EDW - CORRECT ANSWER Acceptable interdialytic weight gains are Less than two (2) EU/mL - CORRECT ANSWER According to AAMI the standard level for endotoxins levels is 4/15/2010 - CORRECT ANSWER According to the new Conditions for Coverage, all dialysis technicians are to be certified by a national certifying agency or state specific certification by: Nutritional - CORRECT ANSWER Albumin is an important test that tells about the patient's Vitamin B12 - CORRECT ANSWER All of the following are phosphate binders except: numbness and tingling - CORRECT ANSWER All of the following may be signs and symptoms of an infected access except: The absence of disease producing organisms - CORRECT ANSWER Asepsis is defined as 1,385 mL/hr - CORRECT ANSWER Based on Mrs Smith's total amount of fluid to be removed, what is the ultrafiltration rate per hour (mL/hr) for her 4 hour treatment? Discard the needle - CORRECT ANSWER Before a hemodialysis treatment, the technician removes the cap from the fistula needle and accidentally touches the chair with the tip of the needle. Which of these actions should the technician take first? Hemolysis - CORRECT ANSWER Dialysate that is too hot will cause Weight at which the patient has no edema or fluid in the lungs and BP is normal - CORRECT ANSWER Dry weight is defined as the Disconnection of the bloodline - CORRECT ANSWER During a hemodialysis treatment the technician responds to a low venous pressure alarm. The most likely cause for this alarm is: Blood - CORRECT ANSWER Biohazardous waste includes any material exposed to: Diffusion - CORRECT ANSWER Decreasing the patient's prescribed blood flow rate affects the rate of Stop the pump - CORRECT ANSWER During a hemodialysis treatment, a patient's venous needle infiltrates. Which of these actions should the dialysis technician take first? Between 7.0 and 7.4 - CORRECT ANSWER Dialysate pH should be: Clamp the venous line - CORRECT ANSWER During hemodialysis, the air detector on Ms. Foster's machine alarms and foam is visible in the venous drop chamber. The immediate action of the dialysis technician should be to: How have you been since your last dialysis treatment? - CORRECT ANSWER During predialysis data collection, it would be best for the technician to ask the patient which of these questions? Take the patient's temperature - CORRECT ANSWER During the hemodialysis treatment, a patient complains of feeling chilled. In addition to getting the patient a blanket, which of these actions should the technician take? Notify the equipment technician - CORRECT ANSWER During the set up of a hemodialysis machine, the alarm test for conductivity fails. Which of these actions should the dialysis technician take? Indicators of the adequacy of the renal replacement therapy - CORRECT ANSWER ESRD specific tests such as BUN, Creatinine, and URR are Ultrafiltration - CORRECT ANSWER Excess fluid is forced out of the blood and into the dialysate during dialysis by which principle Percent rejection - CORRECT ANSWER Feed conductivity- product conductivity divided by x 100 is the formula calculation of The ultrafiltration rate - CORRECT ANSWER Fluid to be removed divided by the treatment time tells us Inadequate dialyzer priming - CORRECT ANSWER Germicide rebound occurs due to: Anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction) - CORRECT ANSWER Hives, itching, tightness of the chest and respiratory distress may be signs and symptoms of: Cardiac arrest - CORRECT ANSWER Hyperkalemia can lead to Hemoglobin - CORRECT ANSWER If the extracorporeal circuit clots and it must be discarded, it would be most important to monitor the patient's serum level of: Check dialyzer for total cell volume - CORRECT ANSWER In reuse, the blood path integrity is tested to Subcutaneous - CORRECT ANSWER Lidocaine is administered Higher hospitalization and death rates - CORRECT ANSWER Low albumin levels in the dialysis patient have been linked with: Digoxin - CORRECT ANSWER Medications that dialyze easily are all except Psychomotor - CORRECT ANSWER Mr. Jones demonstrates how to wash his aces. This is an example of which adult learning principle? Milk of Magnesia - CORRECT ANSWER Mr. Jones suffers from constipation. He goes to the drug store to buy a laxative. Mr Jones should avoid which medication? Cognitive - CORRECT ANSWER Mr. Roberts verbalized how to hand crank his blood pump in the event of an emergency. This is an example of which adult principle? Notify the nurse of the need for an assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Mrs. Smith arrives for dialysis treatment complaining of shortness of breath. Her pre dialysis weight is 4.7 kilograms above the last post treatment weight. The dialysis technician reweighed and verified the weight. Which of the actions should the dialysis technician take next? 5,540 mL - CORRECT ANSWER Mrs Smith dry weight is 62 kg. Her pretreatment weight when she came in for treatment on Monday was 67 kg. The priming saline amount is 240 mL, the rinseback amount is 200mL, fluid from medication is 100 mL, and she is not allowed any fluids during treatment. What is the total amount of fluid weight to be removed during her treatment? Trendelenburg position on left side - CORRECT ANSWER Ms Foster complains of shortness of breath. While calling for the nurse the dialysis technician notices there is air in the extracorporeal circuit she/he should place Ms Foster in: Air - CORRECT ANSWER One reason that normal saline is used to rinse and prime the extracorporeal circuit prior to treatment is to remove: 7.0-7.25 - CORRECT ANSWER Normal body pH is Time to mature - CORRECT ANSWER One disadvantage of a fistula is an increase in Poor rotation of sites - CORRECT ANSWER One cause of aneurysms and pseudoaneurysms is Blood pump has stopped - CORRECT ANSWER The air detector alarms during treatment. If the machine is working properly, the dialysis technician should expect which of these events to have occurred? Sterilant infusion - CORRECT ANSWER Pain at the venous needle site, along with respiratory difficulty and chest pain could be an indicator of: Hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER One sign and symptom of fluid overload is Hypo-osmole - CORRECT ANSWER Solutions that have a higher similarity than body fluids are called? Numbness and tingling - CORRECT ANSWER Symptoms of hyperkalemia (high potassium) may include Before treatment, after treatment, and after giving heparin - CORRECT ANSWER The accuracy of lab results depends on adherence to proper lab draw technique. You must ensure that labs are drawn: Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER Short frequent hemodialysis treatments in patient's with high BUN (blood Urea Nitrogen) are performed to prevent: An infection - CORRECT ANSWER Prior cannulation a technician notices the skin over the patient's fistula is reddened and warm to touch. These symptoms are most likely due to: Epogen - CORRECT ANSWER A medication used to treat anemia is Teammate - CORRECT ANSWER The most important monitor in the dialysis setting is: Infection - CORRECT ANSWER The most frequent cause of death in the first year post transplant is: 12-20 breaths per min - CORRECT ANSWER The normal range of resting respirations in an adult is Diabetes - CORRECT ANSWER The leading cause of chronic kidney disease for adults in the United States: 24 hours - CORRECT ANSWER The minimum dwell time to achieve sterilization with the chemical Renalin is Cleansing of the hands - CORRECT ANSWER The most important intervention to prevent the spread of infection is Osmosis - CORRECT ANSWER The movement of fluid from the tissue towards a higher concentration of sodium in the blood is an example of Nephron - CORRECT ANSWER The functional unit of the kidney, or the structure in the kidney that does the work, is the Listening with a stethoscope - CORRECT ANSWER The bruit in a Av fistula or graft is detected by Temperature and transmembrane pressure - CORRECT ANSWER The hemodialysis machine continuously monitors many parameters. Which of these parameters must be verified by an external measuring device? 65% - CORRECT ANSWER The National standard, based on the KDOQI (kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative) guidelines, for the Urea Reduction Rate (URR) is a ratio greater than: Peritonitis - CORRECT ANSWER The most common complication in Peritoneal dialysis is: Patient - CORRECT ANSWER The most important member of the patient care team is the Zemplar - CORRECT ANSWER The medication used to improve calcium absorption is: 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER The minimum amount of experience required to take the NNCC certifying exam is: 1.0 to 1.5 liters per day - CORRECT ANSWER The usual fluid allowance for a person with kidney failure is AAMI - CORRECT ANSWER The organization that sets the standards for dialysis water quality is called Performance of the dialyzer - CORRECT ANSWER Total cell volume (TCV) is an indirect measure of the: Before each patient shift or every four hours - CORRECT ANSWER Total chlorine levels in the water are tested Increase the rate of waste removal - CORRECT ANSWER The purpose of using counter-current flow is to Osmosis - CORRECT ANSWER Water moves across a membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration by which principle Operates on the principle of ion exchange - CORRECT ANSWER The water softener 80% - CORRECT ANSWER The TCV should be no less than Edema and shortness of breath - CORRECT ANSWER What are the typical signs of fluid overload A thrill - CORRECT ANSWER To determine the latency of an arteriovenous vascular access, the dialysis technician should initially feel for the presence of Transmembrane pressure - CORRECT ANSWER Ultrafiltration is influenced by Diffusion - CORRECT ANSWER Waste products are removed during dialysis by which principle Calcium and magnesium - CORRECT ANSWER The water softener removes Residual Sterilant - CORRECT ANSWER The reprocessed dialyzer is carefully rinsed prior to patient use to remove Endotoxin - CORRECT ANSWER The part of the cell wall of bacteria that, when released, can cause fever in hemodialysis patient's is: Should point in the direction of the blood flow - CORRECT ANSWER The venous needle in an AV fistula Transmembrane pressure - CORRECT ANSWER The total pressure that exists across the dialyzer membrane is called Aluminum - CORRECT ANSWER The substance that may be added to the municipal drinking water to make it clearer is: Kt/V - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is the most accurate measure of dialysis adequacy? Bicarbonate - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following component in dialysate is used to correct metabolic acidosis? Kinking of the venous blood line - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is most likely to cause a high venous pressure alarm? Hemoglobin/Hematocrit - CORRECT ANSWER What lab tests are used to monitor anemia in the ESRD patient? Cognitive - CORRECT ANSWER Which learning domain is knowledge based? Cranberry juice colored blood in the venous line - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is the classic sign of hemolysis? Ice Cream - CORRECT ANSWER Which food below is highest in phosphorus? O.9% normal saline - CORRECT ANSWER When fluid replacement is necessary during the hemodialysis treatment, which of the following solutions is used? Elevated hematocrit - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is not a symptom of uremia? Removing too much fluid - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is a cause of hypotension during and after dialysis treatments? Dialysis quality water - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is considered to be safe water for dialysis? 18 gauge - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is the largest needle? Using a bath that will provide a greater concentration gradient - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following actions would increase diffusion during dialysis? Urea - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following diffuses from the patient's blood during dialysis? Handwashing - CORRECT ANSWER What is the most important activity that the dialysis technician can perform to prevent the spread of infectious disease in the dialysis clinic? 2.0 inches apart - CORRECT ANSWER When cannulating. The tips of the needles should be at least Hypotension and cramping - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following symptoms would indicate a need to increase the estimated dry weight (EDW)? 2.0 - CORRECT ANSWER Your patient is to receive 2000 units of heparin. The vial you are using is 1000 u/ml heparin. How many mls will you draw up for this patient? An arteriovenous fistula - CORRECT ANSWER Which of these types of vascular accesses has the fewest complications? Tighten all connections - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following is used to prevent air in the bloodlines? AAMI - CORRECT ANSWER Which organization set the standards and recommendations for dialyzer reprocessing? Venous needle is against the wall of the vessel - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following would cause a high venous pressure alarm? Clotting in the extracorporeal circuit - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following might indicate a need to increase heparin? The patient just had surgery yesterday - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following might indicate a need to decrease the heparin dose? Ensuring accurate documentation - CORRECT ANSWER Which of these technician activities contributes to data collection used to measure quality outcomes? Draw one line through it, date, time, signature/credentials, with the words "error" - CORRECT ANSWER You have documented incorrectly on a patient's chart. How do you correct this? Phosphorus, potassium, and calcium - CORRECT ANSWER What's the normal lab value? The movement of particles across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration, until the concentration on both sides of the membrane is equal - CORRECT ANSWER What is diffusion? The process of passing fluid through a filter or semipermeable membrane - CORRECT ANSWER What is filtration? A medication(synthetic erythropoietin) used to stimulate production of red blood cells - CORRECT ANSWER What is epogen? 2 hours - CORRECT ANSWER How long can a used dialyzer sit out before reprocessing? 11 hours - CORRECT ANSWER How long can a reprocessed dialyzer sit out to dry before use? 14 days - CORRECT ANSWER What is a reused dialyzer shelf life? 80% - CORRECT ANSWER What is a reuse dialyzer (TCV) percentage Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation - CORRECT ANSWER What does AAMI stand for? Bicarbonate - CORRECT ANSWER The base used to maintain an acceptable dialysate pH(acid/base balance). A buffer Blood urea nitrogen, the end product of protein metabolism - CORRECT ANSWER What is BUN? A ballooning of the AV fistula, sometimes caused by improper rotation of needle sites - CORRECT ANSWER What is a aneurysm? dysrhythmia - CORRECT ANSWER An irregular heart beat Dyspnea - CORRECT ANSWER Difficulty breathing Edema - CORRECT ANSWER Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the body tissues causing swelling. Fluid accumulated in the interstitial space A medication (synthetic erythropoietin) used to stimulate production of red blood cells - CORRECT ANSWER What is Epogen given for? The circuit "outside body" that carries blood from the patient through dialyzer and back to the patient. The dialyzer and blood lines make up the circuit - CORRECT ANSWER What is extracorporeal circuit? The process of passing fluid through a filter or semipermeable membrane. - CORRECT ANSWER What is filtration? A tuft of capillaries in the nephron that act as filters to remove waste products, fluid and excess electrolytes from the blood as it passes through the kidney. - CORRECT ANSWER What is glomerulus? Hematocrit (HCT) - CORRECT ANSWER The measurement of the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood. This measure is affected by vascular volume. Hematoma - CORRECT ANSWER A localized mass of clotted or partially clotted blood confined within an organ or tissue, which may be discolored (bruised). Hemoglobin (HB) - CORRECT ANSWER A protein that carries oxygen from the lung to the body tissue and transports carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemolysis - CORRECT ANSWER What is the rupture of red blood cells? ( lysis is cell rupture) Hemostasis - CORRECT ANSWER The cessation of bleeding due to clotting. In dialysis, hemostasis refers to the cessation of bleeding from a needle site. hyperkalemia - CORRECT ANSWER An excess of potassium in the blood caused by dietary indiscretion, certain medications, internal bleeding, cellular injury or blood transfusion. Muscle weakness, nausea, and vomiting - CORRECT ANSWER What are symptoms of hyperkalemia? Hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER High blood pressure is signs of? Movement of blood from a needle site into the surrounding tissue that occurs when the needle pierces the vessel wall. - CORRECT ANSWER What is infiltration? Swelling around the insertion site and pain - CORRECT ANSWER Symptoms of infiltration? A mathematical measurement of the adequacy or dialysis treatment, which considers protein intake and the amount of urea removed from the patient. - CORRECT ANSWER What is kt/v? Nephron - CORRECT ANSWER The functional unit of the kidney Osmosis - CORRECT ANSWER The movement of fluid across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. Movement occurs until equilibrium is reached: pH - CORRECT ANSWER The measure of the acid-base status of a solution. PH stands for potential of hydrogen An electrolyte necessary for bone formation, energy transfer, andneuromuscular function - CORRECT ANSWER What is phosphorus? Very thin flexible sheets of material, such as cellophane, with pores that allow smaller particles or molecules to pass through while blocking larger ones. - CORRECT ANSWER What is semipermeable membrane? A condition caused when the surgical diversion of the arterial blood supply through the vascular access deprives the distal portion of the access extremity of oxygenated blood. - CORRECT ANSWER What is steal syndrome? A narrowing of blood vessels due to the build up of hypertrophic tissue, anatomical narrowing if the vessels, or surgical technique problems. - CORRECT ANSWER What is stenosis? Rapid heart beat - CORRECT ANSWER What is Tachycardia? Controlled fluid removal achieved by increasing or decreasing the amount of fluid moves across a semipermeable membrane by controlling hydrostatic pressure - CORRECT ANSWER What is ultrafiltration? A waste product of protein metabolism affected by dietary intake. - CORRECT ANSWER What is urea? A vitamin that helps the body produce normal size cells with strong cell walls. - CORRECT ANSWER What is vitamin B-12? A vitamin that, in its active form helps maintain the balance of blood calcium and phosphorus with calcium and phosphorus stored in the bones. - CORRECT ANSWER What is vitamin D? A slow heart rate - CORRECT ANSWER What is bradycardia? Hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER One sign and symptom of fluid overload? Osmosis - CORRECT ANSWER Water moves across a membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration by which principle? Diffusion - CORRECT ANSWER Waste products are removed during dialysis by which principle? Ultrafiltration - CORRECT ANSWER Excess fluid is forced out of the blood and into the dialysate during dialysis by which principle? Osmosis - CORRECT ANSWER The movement of fluid from the tissue towards higher concentration of sodium in the blood is an example of Diffusion - CORRECT ANSWER Decreasing the patient's prescribed blood flow rate affects the rate of? Transmembrane pressure - CORRECT ANSWER Ultrafiltration is influenced by 11 hours - CORRECT ANSWER The minimum dwell time to achieve sterilization with the chemical renalin is? Residual Sterilant - CORRECT ANSWER The reprocessed dialyzer is carefully rinsed prior to patient use to remove: Box port behind the machine - CORRECT ANSWER The patient's machine alarms blood leak, where would you draw the sample from to determine if there is a blood leak? Pyrogen Reaction - CORRECT ANSWER What causes symptoms of fever and chills? arteriovenous (AV) fistula - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following types of vascular access has the lowest incidence of infection? Hypotention - CORRECT ANSWER During Mrs. King's hemodialysis treatment, she starts actively yawning. The technician suspects she may be experiencing Salt level in brine tank - CORRECT ANSWER While performing the end-of-day water hardness check, the technician notes that the hardness exceeds the allowable limit. In addition to notifying the equipment technician, the technician should check which component of the water system? A life-threatening condition - CORRECT ANSWER Chloramine levels in treated water that are in excess of the standards of the Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI) could result in Salt - CORRECT ANSWER A patient is experiencing large weight gains between hemodialysis treatments. The technician should remind the patient that the best dietary measure to control weight gain is to decrease the intake of Notify the equipment technician - CORRECT ANSWER When doing a routine patient check, the technician notices a puddle of clear liquid underneath a dialysis machine. After wiping it up, which of these actions, if any, should the technician take? Rope and ladder technique - CORRECT ANSWER A patient has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in his lower left arm. When choosing a cannulation site, the technician observes where previous needles were placed and chooses to use alternate sites for arterial and venous needle insertion. This practice is an example of Hypertonic - CORRECT ANSWER A solution with higher osmolarity than body fluid? Call the bio-med - CORRECT ANSWER If during a set up, a machine test fails what would be the next step after re-testing? Operates in the principle of ion exchange - CORRECT ANSWER What does the water softener do? Dialysis Equilibrium Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER Shortened frequent treatments in patient's with high BUN prevent? 1:100 - CORRECT ANSWER What is the ratio for bleach wipes? 1:10 - CORRECT ANSWER What is the ratio for bleach clamps? 1:10 - CORRECT ANSWER What ratio do you use for blood spills? 1:10 - CORRECT ANSWER What is the ratio for bleach water? Numbness and tingling - CORRECT ANSWER Symptoms of hyperkalemia? Endotoxins - CORRECT ANSWER What part of the cell wall when released can cause fever in hemodialysis patients? Hemoglobin - CORRECT ANSWER If the extracorporeal circuit clots we must monitor the patient's serum level of? Using a bath with a greater concentration - CORRECT ANSWER Which action increases diffusion during dialysis? Residual Sterilant - CORRECT ANSWER Dialyzers are carefully rinsed prior to use to remove: Hecterol - CORRECT ANSWER Vitamin given to patients by the nurse? Blood electrolyte levels - CORRECT ANSWER Changing the composition of the dialysis solution can influence the patient's Remove the line from the venous line clamp - CORRECT ANSWER Blood flow is manually maintained during power outage. The technician must take which of the following actions? Countercurrent flow - CORRECT ANSWER The technician observes that a patient's dialysate lines were incorrectly placed on the dialyzer. The technician corrects the line placement. The principle underlying the technicians' actions is that the clearance is maximized by Treatment time - CORRECT ANSWER Mrs. Miller's calculated kt/V urea is 0.9 one of the factors that affects her kt/V urea is her? As far apart as possible - CORRECT ANSWER In order to maximize access recirculation. The technician should place Mrs. Miller's fistula needle: Clot formation - CORRECT ANSWER Heparin is given during Mrs. Miller's dialysis treatment to lower risk for We need to ensure early detection of needle dislodgement - CORRECT ANSWER Mrs. Miller asks the technician"why can't I completely cover up with a blanket during my hemodialysis"? "I'm cold" which of these responses by the technician would be best? Make sure the blood pump stopped - CORRECT ANSWER During a treatment, Mrs. Miller's venous needle infiltrates. Which of the actions should the technician take first? It is not permitted by the current ESRD regulations - CORRECT ANSWER A patient is busy with a patient when a machine across the room alarms. The dietician standing nearby mutes the alarm. The technician should have which of these understandings concerning this action? Steal - CORRECT ANSWER A patient who recently had an Av fistula placed in the left forearm is experiencing numbness and tingling of the left hand. The patient's left is cold and fingernail beds are blue. The patient most likely had which of of these symptoms? Thrombosis - CORRECT ANSWER Holding needle puncture sites instead of using spring loaded clamps fistula clamps is recommended to avoid access Disinfecting - CORRECT ANSWER The greatest reduction in microorganism in the dialysis machine is accomplished by Teaching patients how to meet nutrition needs - CORRECT ANSWER The role of the renal dietician includes Hypotension - CORRECT ANSWER During Mrs. King's hemodialysis treatment, she starts actively yawning. The technician suspects she may be experiencing First- use syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER A patient who is receiving an initial hemodialysis treatment on a non- reusable dialyzer should be observed for signs of Creatinine - CORRECT ANSWER A substance that is cleared from the body by healthy kidney is? Whether other patients are having similar symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER During a dialysis treatment, a patient suddenly develops fever and chills. The initial action that should be taken is to determine Air detector - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following components of the dialysis machine is designed to protect the patient from bubble/foam? Remove disinfectant - CORRECT ANSWER One purpose of priming the bloodlines and extracorporeal circuit pre-dialysis is to? Adequately rinseback as much of the patient's blood as possible at each treatment - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following actions can the dialysis technician take to help minimize anemia? 7 days - CORRECT ANSWER The hepatitis B virus is able to survive on environmental surfaces for as long as: Change the DNA of microbes so they die or cannot multiply - CORRECT ANSWER A new technician is being oriented to the water treatment system. The equipment technician explains that the purpose of the ultraviolet (UV) light is to? Falls - CORRECT ANSWER For pain management, Mr Rivera is taking narcotic pills as prescribed by his doctor. The dialysis technician knows that taking this medication puts Mr Rivera at increases risk for Time required to mature - CORRECT ANSWER What is a disadvantage of an AV fistula as hemodialysis access compared to other types of access? Prevent prolonged bleeding - CORRECT ANSWER A patient who has an arteriovenous fistula receives a bonus dose of heparin at the beginning of a hemodialysis treatment and a continuous heparin infusion during the treatment. The patient's heparin administration should be terminated 30-60 minutes before the end of treatment in order to Vascular surgeon - CORRECT ANSWER A patient with a right Av fistula arrives at the dialysis facility complaining of pain, tingling, and cold fingers in his right hand. The technician would expect the nurse will notify which of the following physicians for possible corrective action? No additional precautions are necessary for the patient - CORRECT ANSWER A patient is diagnosed with hepatitis C beyond standard precautions. What additional measures. If any, should be taken for the patient? You don't have enough red blood cells to carry oxygen - CORRECT ANSWER A patient tells the technician. "The doctor told me I'm anemic what does that mean"? Which response by the technician would be correct? Two red blood cells - CORRECT ANSWER In hemodialysis, the term anastomosis refers to the connection of? Blood returning to the patient - CORRECT ANSWER Venous pressure is a result of resistance created by the Before each patient shift - CORRECT ANSWER According to the standards of the Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI), pre treatment water should be checked for chloramines at which of these times? The patient must receive dialysis in a hospital in a special isolation room - CORRECT ANSWER A patient on hemodialysis goes to the emergency department for persistent coughing and fever. He is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB) which of the following actions would the technician expect to be taken in regard to the patient's dialysis treatment? Anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction) - CORRECT ANSWER Hives, itching, tightness of the chest and respiratory distress may be signs and symptoms of: Ultrafiltration - CORRECT ANSWER Excess fluid is forced out of the blood and into the dialysate during dialysis by which principle 6-8 weeks - CORRECT ANSWER How long does it take a Fistula to mature [Show Less]
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