Walden University NURS 6512N Advanced Health Assessment WEEK 3 QUIZ 1-4 – Questions and Answers (Graded A)
Walden University NURS 6512N Advanced
... [Show More] Health Assessment WEEK 3 QUIZ 1-4 – Questions and Answers (Graded A)
The gonads begin to secrete estrogen and testosterone during:
A. infancy.
B. puberty.
C. pregnancy.
D. early adulthood.
The legs are the fastest growing body part during:
A. early infancy.
B. late infancy.
C. childhood.
D. early adulthood.
In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn's:
A. length.
B. weight.
C. lung maturity.
D. gestational age.
How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus?
A. Less than 3 pounds
B. 5 to 10 pounds
C. 10 to 15 pounds
D. 15 to 30 pounds
Which Tanner stage is marked by the most significant growth in penis length?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sport s physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she:
binges and vomits.
has regular menstrual periods.
has constipation frequently.
is cold intolerant.
has bloating.
A deficiency of vitamin ___, a fat-soluble micronutrient, can result in rickets.
A
E
B1
K
D
Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record?
General patient information
Past medical history
Social history
Problem list
History of present illness
Regardless of the orifice, discharge is described by noting:
only the amount.
color and consistency.
demographic data and risk factors.
associated symptoms in alphabetic order.
a grading scale of 0 to 4.
When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should:
combine all data into one assessment.
create an assessment for each problem on the problem list.
create an assessment for every abnormal physical finding.
create an assessment for every symptom presented in the history.
create an assessment for each abnormal laboratory finding.
Which of the following is a macronutrient?
Iron
Thiamin
Calcium
Fat
Alcohol
You are using the rule of thumb for advising a 150-pound person regarding the appropriate number of calories to promote weight loss. Your advice is for the person to consume no more than _____ calories.
1500
1700
1900
2100
2500
Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia?
B1
B2
B6
B9
B12
Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):
progress note.
incident report.
problem-oriented medical record.
triage note.
new problem list.
Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain?
Diuretics
Oral hypoglycemics
Laxatives
Steroids
Antibiotics
Macronutrients are so named because they:
have high molecular weights.
form long chemical chains.
tend to increase waist measurements.
are required in large amounts.
not stored in the body.
The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is:
20 g.
14% to 20% of total calories.
90 g.
35% to 45% of total calories.
50% to 60% of total calories.
Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G. s _____ history.
identifying information
past medical
personal and social
present problem
family
What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant?
Fontanel sizes
Liver span
Prostate size
Thyroid position
Visual acuity
Which of the following should be assessed first in the patient with sustained rapid respirations?
Diet history
Hydration
Mid-upper arm circumference
Weight
Body mass index
QUIZ 2
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
The gonads begin to secrete estrogen and testosterone during:
Response Feedback: At puberty, the gonads secrete testosterone and estrogen. As a result, secondary sex characteristics (e.g., genitalia growth) begin to appear. Maturation occurs at a mean age of 11.5 in females and 13.5 in males.
• Question 2
2 out of 2 points
The legs are the fastest growing body part during:
Response Feedback: Legs grow the fastest during childhood, while the trunk grows fastest in infancy and the skeletal muscles and organs grow fastest in early adulthood.
• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn's:
Response Feedback: The Ballard Assessment Tool assesses six physical and six neuromuscular characteristics, administered within 36 hours of birth, in order to confirm the newborn's gestational age.
• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus?
Response Feedback: The growing fetus accounts for only 5 to 10 pounds of the total weight gained. The remainder results from an increase in maternal tissues (i.e., placenta, amniotic fluid, uterus, blood and fluid volume, breasts, and fat reserves).
• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
Which Tanner stage is marked by the most significant growth in penis length?
Response Feedback: Tanner stage 3 is marked by enlargement of the penis, especially in length.
• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sport s physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she:
Response Feedback: Young adults, usually female, who are bradycardic and have knuckle scars and tooth decay as a result of chronic self-induced vomiting characterize bulimia. Amenorrhea can be from increased physical activity or anorexia; constipation, bloating, and cold intolerance are usually symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
A deficiency of vitamin ___, a fat-soluble micronutrient, can result in rickets.
Response Feedback: Diets deficient in vitamin D can cause rickets. Today, milk is fortified with vitamin D; therefore, rickets is seldom seen in the United States.
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record?
Response Feedback: The past medical history section contains information such as drugs, foods, and environmental allergies.
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
Regardless of the orifice, discharge is described by noting:
Response Feedback: No matter where the origin of the discharge is, color and consistency determine whether it is an expected finding.
• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should:
Response Feedback: Once the examiner has a list of problems constructed, then an assessment is made for each unique problem.
• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is a macronutrient?
Response Feedback: Carbohydrates, protein, and fat are referred to as macronutrients because they are required in large amounts. Even though alcohol also provides calories, it is not required for any physiologic process by the body.
• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
You are using the rule of thumb for advising a 150-pound person regarding the appropriate number of calories to promote weight loss. Your advice is for the person to consume no more than _____ calories.
Response Feedback: The person weighs 68 kg, which multiplied by 25 (rule of thumb for weight loss) equals 1700 calories.
• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia?
Response Feedback: Pernicious anemia can result in vitamin B12 deficiency.
• Question 14
2 out of 2 points
Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):
Response Feedback: A second visit with the clinician is always recorded on a progress note, noting any updates to the condition.
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain?
Response Feedback: Medications that contribute to weight gain include steroids, oral contraceptives, antidepressants, and insulin.
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Macronutrients are so named because they:
Response Feedback: Carbohydrates, protein, and fat are referred to as macronutrients because they are required in large amounts.
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is:
Response Feedback: It is recommended that protein content of the diet be 14% to 20% of total calories, or 45 g in adults.
• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G. s _____ history.
Response Feedback: The information such as education and economic condition are part of the personal and social history. It is not family data, nor does it contain any specific past medical information. Identifying information is usually limited to the name, date of birth, and assigned history number.
• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant?
Response Feedback: The size and characteristic of the fontanel are unique and important in the assessment of an infant. Data on liver span, prostate size, thyroid position, and visual acuity are adult assessment findings.
• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following should be assessed first in the patient with sustained rapid respirations?
Response Feedback: A person hyperventilating would lose more insensible water, increasing the risk for dehydration. The most sensitive, rapid assessment tool is to weigh the patient to determine loss of fluids.
QUIZ 3
Answers first followed by question
Puberty: The gonads begin to secrete estrogen and testosterone during?
Hypothalamus: Developmental changes of puberty are caused mainly by the interaction of the pituitary gland, gonads, and?
Declines: After 50 years of age, stature?
Twice the size as in the adult: By 10 to 12 years of age, lymphatic tissues are about?
Brain: Which organ(s) completes physical development more quickly than any other body part?
Sinus development: During adolescence, the head size normally increases as a result of?
Adolescence: Fifty percent of an individual's ideal weight is gained during?
Adolescence: Gender-specific skeletal differences first occur during?
In adolescence: The majority of adult obesity begins?
Childhood: The legs are the fastest growing body part during?
Adolescence: Skeletal mass and organ systems double in size during?
They have not completed their own growth spurt: Optimal infant birth weight is difficult for pregnant adolescents to obtain because?
5 to 10 pounds: How much of the weight gained during a normal pregnancy is accounted for by the fetus?
Greatest in the second trimester: The rate of weight gain during pregnancy is expected to be?
Usual height and weight: During a preventive health care visit, Ms. G., an older patient, states that she is getting shorter. She says that her son mentioned that her change in stature became noticeable to him during his last visit with her. Her posture appears straight and aligned. When addressing Ms. G.'s present concerns, it is most important to inquire about?
Obesity in older adults: Over the past two decades, there has been a trend toward?
Infants: Milestone achievements are data most likely to appear in the history of?
Elbow breadth.: To estimate an individual's frame size, the examiner should measure?
50: Infants normally increase their birth length by ____% during the first year of life?
5 months: Healthy term babies generally double their birth weight by what age?
6 ounces: Infants born to the same parents are normally within which range of weight of each other?
24: You should measure the child's head circumference at every health visit until age _____ months
Supraorbital prominence: To measure head circumference, the tape is wrapped snugly around the child's head at the occipital protuberance and the?
About equal to the head circumference: Between 5 and 24 months of life, the infant's chest circumference is normally?
Gestational age: In clinical practice, the Ballard Assessment Tool is used to assess a newborn's?
90%: The term large for gestational age (LGA) indicates that an infant is larger than ____% of infants born at the same number of weeks' gestation?
The child whose weight and height ratios have dropped 15 percentiles from the last visit: Which of the following situations poses the most concern?
Only when a child is suspected of having a growth problem or unusual body proportions: Upper/lower segment ratio should be calculated?
Marfan syndrome: An 11-year-old boy is brought in for an annual physical examination by his mother. You suspect _____ when you measure his arm span at 65 inches and his height at 60 inches.
Most adolescent girls will develop breasts before pubic hair: Which of following statements regarding female pubertal changes is true?
13 1/2 years: At what age does peak height growth velocity occur in boys?
9 years: What is the youngest age at which pubic hair growth in the male may be considered normal?
Stage 3: Which Tanner stage is marked by the most significant growth in penis length?
Stage 4: Which breast Tanner stage corresponds to a secondary areola mound development above the breast?
30: A woman with a normal pre-pregnancy body mass index (BMI) should gain approximately _____ pounds during pregnancy?
1 pound: A pregnant woman of normal prepregnancy weight should be expected to gain how much weight per week during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy?
Acromegaly: A prominent forehead, large nose, large jaw, and elongation of the facial bones and extremities are signs of
Cushing syndrome: Round face, preauricular fat, hyperpigmentation, and "buffalo hump" in the posterior cervical area are associated with
Note tenderness (a sign) in the record; or report the patient's reaction: when a patient complains of pain (a symptom) during palpation, you should note tenderness (a sign) in the record; or report the patient's reaction to pain, such as crying, withdrawal, rigid posturing, or facial expression. Record expected and unexpected findings; both what the patient tells you and what you observe
Placed in the history section: Subjective and symptomatic data are
Quote her concerns verbatim: Ms. S. reports that she is concerned about her loss of appetite. During the history, you learn that her last child recently moved out of her house to go to college. Rather than infer the cause of Ms. S.'s loss of appetite, it would be better to
Described in the history: It is best to document what you observe and what is said by the patient rather than document your interpretations. Listening and quoting exactly what the patient says is the better rule to follow.
Relationship to anatomic landmarks: Which of the following is an effective adjunct to document location of findings during the recording of physical examinations?
Are methods for recording locations of findings: The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks?
Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting? color and consistency
Compare findings in extremities: Drawing of stick figures is most useful to?
Plan: Differential diagnoses belong in the?
Create an assessment for each problem on the problem list: When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should?
Differential diagnosis is part of the assessment phase: Which of the following is not a component of the plan portion of the problem-oriented medical record?
Progress note: Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):?
History of present illness: A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the?
Effect of the patient's complaint on current everyday lifestyle or work performance is recorded in the history of present illness: The effect of the chief complaint on the patient's lifestyle is recorded in which section of the medical record?
Past medical history: The patient's perceived disabilities and functional limitations are recorded in the?
Health history: The review of systems is a component of the?
Past medical history: Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record?
Present problem: In which section of the newborn history would you find details of gestational assessment and extrauterine adjustment data?
History of present illness: The effect of the chief complaint on the patient's lifestyle is recorded in which section of the medical record?
Physical examination: The examiner's evaluation of a patient's mental status belongs in the?
Brief SOAP note: Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?
GM. is a 22-year-old male here for having "green nasal discharge" for the past 72 hours: a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to "check his allergies." He has been having "green nasal discharge" for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?
QUIZ 4
____ 1. If information is purposefully omitted from the record, you should
State in the record why the information was omitted.
____ 2. Which part of the information contained in the patient's record may be used in court?
All information
____ 3. During the course of the interview, you should
Take brief written notes.
____ 4. Ms. S reports that she is concerned about her loss of appetite. During the history, you learn that her last child recently moved out of her house to go to college. Rather than infer the cause of Ms. S's loss of appetite, it would be better to
Quote her concerns verbatim.
____ 5. Subjective and symptomatic data are
Placed in the history sections.
____ 6. The quality of a symptom, such as pain, is subjective information that should be
Described in the history using a 1-to-10 scale.
____ 7. Which of the following is an effective adjunct to document location of findings during recording of physical examinations?
Relationship to anatomic landmarks
____ 8. The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks
Are methods for recording locations of findings.
____ 9. Regardless of the orifice, discharge is described by noting
Color and consistency.
____ 10. Drawing of stick figures is most useful to
Compare findings in the extremities.
____ 11. Which of the following is an example of a problem requiring recording on the patient's problem list?
Findings of unknown origin
____ 12. A problem may be defined as anything that will require
Evaluation.
____ 13. Differential diagnoses belong in the
Assessment.
____ 14. When recording assessments during the construction of the problem-oriented medical record, the examiner should
Create an assessment for each problem on the problem list.
____ 15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the plan portion of the problem-oriented medical record?
Differential diagnosis
____ 16. Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical examination. This visit would be documented by creating a(n)
Progress note.
____ 17. A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the
History of present illness.
____ 18. The effect of the chief concern on the patient's lifestyle is recorded in which section of the medical record?
History of present illness
____ 19. The patient's perceived disabilities and functional limitations are recorded in the
Past medical history.
____ 20. The review of systems is a component of the
Personal and social history.
____ 21. Allergies to drugs and foods are generally listed in which section of the medical record?
Past medical history
____ 22. Ms. G is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G's _____ history.
Personal and social
____ 23. Objective data are usually recorded
By body systems.
____ 24. Information recorded about an infant differs from that of an adult, mainly because of the infant's
Developmental status.
____ 25. In which section of the newborn history would you find details of gestational assessment and extrauterine adjustment data?
Present problem
____ 26. What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant?
Fontanel sizes
____ 27. Data relevant to the social history of older adults include information on
Family support systems.
____ 28. A SOAP note is used in which type of recording system?
Problem oriented
____ 29. The examiner's evaluation of a patient's mental status belongs in the
Physical examination.
____ 30. When recording physical findings, which data are recorded first for all systems?
Inspection
____ 31. Regarding another provider's documented work, it
Must be attributed to the source if entered.
____ 32. Which of the following is true regarding the use of "copy and paste, carry forward" (CPCF) in an electronic medical record?
It may be used on medication lists.
____ 33. The OLDCHARTS mnemonic is a way of documenting which of the following?
History of present illness [Show Less]