1. What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of translational research?
Examination of safety and effectiveness of various
... [Show More] interventions
2. What is the purpose of Level II research?
To describe relationships among characteristics or variables
3. The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting but by patient care needs.
A. True
B. False
4. APRN Consensus Model/LACE include all except:
A. Licensure
B. Accreditation
C. Certification
D. It’s the one that stars with an E (Education)
5. All of the following are core quality competencies expected of APRNs except:
A. Uses best evidence to improve care
B. Assumes advanced leadership role
C. Applies skills in peer review to promote culture of excellence
D. Evaluates organizational structures to improved care –
6. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care
preferences of patients?
A. Associations with area hospitals
B. Costs of ambulatory care
C. Ease of access to care.
D. The ratio of providers to patients
7. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?
A. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists
B. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of discharge
C. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge
D. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and d. caregivers
8. Rules proposed by the various State Boards of Nursing must be approved by the state
Legislatures.
A. True
B. False
9. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?
10. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care
preferences of patients?
11. The Consensus Model for APRN regulation consists of which of the following roles?
A. CNM
B. CRNA
C. APN
D. CNS
E All the Above
A, B & C F. only
12. In reviewing the Total Percentage of Body surface area for adult burn patients each, leg,
arm and head are noted evaluated at 9%.
A. True
B. False
13. What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma
lesion?
A. Excisional biopsy
B. Punch biopsy
C. Shave biopsy
D. Wide excision
14. Which of the following are independent practice competencies for APRNs?
A. Prescribes medications
B. Functions as an independent practitioner
C. Employs screening and diagnostic strategies to arrive at diagnoses
D. Manages health/illness strategies of patients and families over time.
E. All the Above
F.A, C & D only
15. A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which medication will the
primary health care provider prescribe?
a. Anthralin
b. Cyclosporine
c. Finasteride
d Minoxidil
16. Agnes is a 72 y/o grandmother who comes to the clinic with an acute onset of severe eye
pain. She has been having headaches, nausea and vomiting, and seeing halos around
lights. Eye exam reveals cupping of optic nerve the pupil is oval and the cornea is cloudy.
Her most likely diagnosis is:
17. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat,
pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely diagnosis
for Mikey is:
18. A 50-year-old, previously healthy patient has developed gastritis. What is the most likely
cause of this condition?
a. H. pylori infection
b. NSAID use
c. Parasite infestation
d. Viral gastroenteritis
19. Which diagnostic test will the provider safely order for a 30-year-old woman reporting
right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting?
a. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast
b. Abdominal ultrasound
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
20. A patient, who first developed acute diarrhea 2 weeks ago, presents to clinic reporting
profuse watery, bloody diarrheal stools 6 to 8 times daily. The provider notes a toxic
appearance with moderate dehydration. Which test is indicated to diagnose this problem?
a. Qualitative and quantitative fecal fat
b. Stool collection for 24-hour stool pH
c. Stool sample for C. difficile toxin
d. Wright stain of stool for white blood cells
21. A patient with a positive HbeAg indicates the patient has chronic Hepatitis B.
A. True
B. False
22. Classic pain of acute pancreatitis is severe midgastric pain that refers to the midback.
A. True I think
B. False
23. A patient with hemoptysis and no other symptoms has a normal chest radiograph (CXR),
computed tomography (CT), and fiberoptic bronchoscopy studies. What is the next action
in managing this patient?
24. Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of periumbilical
pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and diarrhea and pain at
McBurney’s point. Which of the following assessments would aide in confirming
Jeremy’s diagnosis:
A. Psoas Sign
B. Obturator Sign
C. Murphy’s Sign
D. All the Above
E. A & B only
25. A patient diagnosed with cirrhosis develops ascites. Which medication will be ordered
initially to improve symptoms?
a. Cephalosporin
b. Furosemide
c. Lactulose
d. Spironolactone
26. Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of
fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some
rhinitis and low-grade fever. His likely diagnosis is:
A. Bronchitis
B. Atypical Pneumonia (Walking pneumonia)
C. Allergic Rhinitis
D. Community acquired bacterial pneumonia
27. Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of
fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some
rhinitis and low-grade fever. Potential organisms that might have caused Sam’s condition
include which of the following:
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Legionella pneumonia
D. All the above
E. None of the above
28. Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 year/pack history of smoking and comes to the
clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note
that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight
since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss, and a more
noticeable pursed lip breathing. Your diagnosis is:
A. Chronic Bronchitis
B. Emphysema
C. COPD
29. Mike is a 56 y/o male who lives in an abandoned building. With about 40 other street
people. He comes to the clinic with a social worker who describes his symptoms as: a
cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, fever and tachypnea. Your physical exam notes that
he has some consolidation in the lower lobes with an audible friction rub.
30. A patient with a cough has a suspicious lung lesion, a mediastinal lymph mass, and
several bone lesions. What test is indicated to determine histology and staging of this
cancer?
31. A young adult patient without a previous history of lung disease has an increased
respiratory rate and reports a feeling of “not getting enough air.” The provider auscultates
clear breath sounds and notes no signs of increased respiratory effort. Which diagnostic
test will the provider perform initially?
32. Artie is a 21 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of paroxysmal
coughing without an apparent cause. He states that this has been going on for about 15
days. He initially had a mild fever, and a runny nose. His most likely diagnosis is:
33. Joan is a 39 y/o female who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of: 3-day history
of fever (101 F degrees), chills, n
34. An older adult patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) is
experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. The patient has
no history of pulmonary hypertension or congestive heart failure. What will the provider
order to help manage this patient’s dyspnea?
35. Murmur decreases in intensity when the patient changes from standing to squatting and
increases in intensity with the Valsalva maneuver. Which will the provider suspect is
causing this murmur
36. A patient has a cardiac murmur that peaks in mid-systole and is best heard along the left
sternal border. The provider determines that the murmur decreases in intensity when the
patient changes from standing to squatting and increases in intensity with the Valsalva
maneuver. Which will the provider suspect is causing this murmur?
37. The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a loud
blowing and high-pitched murmur.
38. A young adult patient is diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse. During a routine 3-year
health maintenance exam, the provider notes an apical systolic murmur and a midsystolic click on auscultation. The patient denies chest pain, syncope, or palpitations.
What action will the provider take?
39. Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis? - Google Search Which test is
diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis?
40. Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have
been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny
sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that the
patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the
fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet. The most
likely diagnosis for Guy is:
41. A patient is in clinic for evaluation of sudden onset of abdominal pain. The provider
palpates a pulsatile, painful mass between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. What is
the initial action?
42. in performing a follow-up exam on a patient the NP discovers that the patient has a new
murmur. The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a
loud blowing and high-pitched murmur. This describes a:
43. A patient who is on renal dialysis is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. What
causative organisms are more likely in this patient?
44. Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have
been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny
sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that he
patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the
fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet
45. A patient has native valve endocarditis (NVE). While blood cultures are pending, which
antibiotics will be ordered as empirical treatment?
46. Aaron an 18 y/o male comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness,
sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever
and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days. The NP diagnoses Aaron’s condition as:
47. comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy
irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that
he has had for the past 4 days.
48. A patient diagnosed with allergic conjunctivitis and prescribed a topical antihistaminevasoconstrictor medication reports worsening symptoms. What is the provider’s next step
in managing this patient’s symptoms?
49. A Schirmer test is abnormal. What is the suspected cause of this patient’s symptoms
based on this test finding?
50. Bryce is a 17 y/o male who comes to the clinic with chief complaint of ear sudden onset
of pain, popping noises, and muffled hearing. During the ear exam the NP notices that the
TM has ruptured
51. A flat nonpalpable lesion less than 1 cm in diameter identifies which type of primary skin
lesion:
52. Carbuncles are typically treated with systemic antibiotics.
A. True
B. False
53. The most common type of melanoma in African Americans and Asians is:
A. Basal Cell carcinoma
B. Actinic Keratosis
C. Acral Lentiginous Melanoma
D. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
54. An adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis with
lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. Which is correct when prescribing a
corticosteroid medication to treat this condition?
55. A provider is considering an oral contraceptive medication to treat acne in an adolescent
female. Which is an important consideration when prescribing this drug?
A. A progesterone-only contraceptive is most beneficial for treating acne.
B. Combined oral contraceptives are effective for non-inflammatory acne only.
C. Oral contraceptives are effective because of their androgen enhancing effects.
D. Yaz, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep, are approved for acne . treatment.
56. A patient comes to the clinic after being splashed with boiling water while cooking. The
patient has partial thickness burns on both forearms, the neck, and the chin. What will the
provider do?
a. Clean and dress the burn wounds.
b Order a CBC, glucose, and electrolytes.
c. Perform a chest radiograph.
Refer the patient to the emergency d. department (ED).
57. Complications associated with Carbuncles include which of the following;
58. Olga was making French fries for her kids and gets splashed with hot oil. At the clinic the
NP notes that she has red colored skin with superficial blisters and pain where the oil
splashed. The most likely diagnosis is:
A First-degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
59. Patty comes to the clinic with these soft fatty cystic lesions on her neck, trunk and arms.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Nevi
B. Acanthosis Nigricans [Show Less]