The Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) Electrical Exam (FE)
1. Define Enthalpy
total energy of a system
Which of the following is true of the electric
... [Show More] field intensity about an isolated point charge?
A. It varies directly as the distance to the charge.
B. It varies inversely as the distance to the charge.
C. It varies directly as the square of the distance to the charge.
D. It varies inversely as the square of the distance to the charge.
D. It varies inversely as the square of the distance to the charge.
2. As a professional engineer originally licensed 30 years ago, you are asked to evaluate a newly developed computerized control system for a public transportation system. You may accept this project if:
A. you are competent in the area of modern control systems
B. you do not live in the jurisdiction where the transportation system is being installed
C. your original area of specialization was in transportation systems
D. you have regularly attended meetings of a professional engineering society
A. you are competent in the area of modern control systems
3. The SI system uses (1) for mass and (2) for weight (force).
1) Kilograms
2) Newtons
4. Mass is a constant property of an object where (1) varies with gravitational field.
1) weight
5. What is a metric ton?
A metric ton also known as a tonne, is 1000 kg
6. What is a kip?
The abbreviation "kip" is used for "kilo-pound": 1000 pounds of force
7. What basic SI unit is equal to kg*m^2/s^2
Kinetic energy is calculated in SI units as (1/2)mv^2, with units of the joule
8. Which of the following is false for an identity matrix, I?
(a) I is a square matrix
(b) All entries in I are zero, except the entries whose row and column numbers are equal
(c) all nonzero entries are equal to 1.
(d) AI=A^-1
The main property of an identity matrix is that AI=A. Therefore, choice (d) is false
9. Which of the following statements is true for a power series with the general term aix^i?
I. An infinite power series converges to for x<1
II. Power series can be added together or subtracted within their interval of convergence.
III. Power series can be integrated within their interval of convergence
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
Power series can be added together, subtracted from each other, differentiated, and integrated within their interval of convergence. The interval of convergence is -1 < x <1. Therefore the answer is D
10. What is a matrix?
A matrix is an ordered set of entries arranged rectangularly and set off by brackets.A matrix itself has no particular value, it is merely a convenient method of representing a set of numbers.
11. When can you multiple two matrices together?
A matrix can be multiplied by another matrix, but only if the left-handed matrix has the same number of columns as the right-hand matrix has rows.
12. True or False: Addition and subtraction of two matrices are possible only if both matrices have the same size and shape?
True
13. What is an identity matrix?
The identity matrix is a diagonal matrix, meaning that it is a square matrix with all zero entries except for the aij entries, for which i=j. All nonzero entries are equal to one, and the matrix has the property that AI=IA=A
14. The product of a Matrix A and its inverse, A^-1 , is the (1)
1) identity matrix
15. A (1) has only magnitude. Mass, enthalpy, density, and speed are examples of this.
1) scalar
16. Force, momentum, displacement, and velocity are examples are (1). A (1) has a specific direction and magnitude.
1) vectors
17. What is t-test (based on student's t-distribution) useful for?
(a) testing for distribution of outcomes to see if they come from a normal distribution
(b) determining if the functional is symmetric about zero
(c) comparing values about the mean
(d) determining if the differences between sample means is significant
The t-test is used to determine if the differences between sample are significant or merely the result of random variations. The answer is D
18. The binomial probability function is used when?
The binomial probability function is used when all outcomes can be categorized as either successes or failures.
19. Three nonparallel, nonzero forces act on a rigid body. What must be true of all of these forces for the body to be in equilibrium?
(a) The forces must be concurrent
(b) The forces must be equal in magnitude but opposite in direction
(c) The forces must have the same line of action
(d) The forces must be at complementary angles to one another
Equilibrium requires sumM=0 about any point in the body. For a general three-forced system, this is possible only if the force acts through the same point. Therefore the answer is A
20. What is a moment?
A force to rotate, turn, or twist a rigid body a pivot point. Also called torque and are vectors.
21. Any pair of equal, opposite, and parallel forces constitute a (1)
1) couple
22. A (1) is a category of force systems wherein all of the forces act at the same point.
1) Concurrent force system
23. A two-force member can be in equilibrium only if the two forces have the same (1) and (2)
1) line of action
2) are equal but opposite
24. The roller support, shown as a cylinder supporting the beam, supports (1) forces only
1) vertical
25. A three-force member can be in equilibrium only if the three forces are (1) or (2)
1) concurrent
2) parallel
26. The pinned support, shown as a pin and clevis, supports both (1) and (2) forces. (3) equilibrium equations are needed.
1) vertical
2) horizontal
3) two
27. True or False: When a body is in contact with a friction-less surface, there is no frictional forces component parallel to the surface. Therefore, the reaction is normal to the contact surfaces.
True
Which type of load is not resisted by a pinned joint?
a) moment
b) shear
c) axial
d) compression
A pinned support will transmit or support all forces but not the moment therefore the answer is A
28. A rigid body is subjected to three concurrent, co-planar forces. What is the minimum number of independent forces equations are necessary to establish the equilibrium conditions?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Only force equilibrium equations are needed to analyze systems of concurrent forces. For planar forces, only two equations are necessary to establish equilibrium. Answer is C
29. What is a truss?
A braced structure spanning a ravine, gorge or other land depression in order to support a road or rail line.
30. True or false: Truss loads are considered to act only in the plane of the truss
Truss
31. Since truss members are axial members, the forces on the truss joint are (1) forces.
1) concurrent
32. What is a zero force member?
A truss member that theoretically carries no direct load and whose omission would not alter the stability of the truss configuration
33. A perfect sphere moves up a friction-less incline. Which of the following quantities increases?
a) angular velocity
b) total energy
c) potential energy
d) linear momentum
Since the system is friction-less, there is no moment causing the sphere to rotate or to stop rotating. Therefore, angular velocity and total energy is constant. Kinetic energy is converted into potential energy. As the linear velocity decreases, do does the linear momentum. The answer is C
34. What is the Law of Conservation of Momentum?
It states that the linear momentum is unchanged if no unbalanced force acts on the particle.
35. What is Newton's First Law?
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force.
36. What is Newton's second law?
Force equals mass times acceleration (F=ma)
37. What is the coefficient of friction?
the ratio of the force of friction to the normal force acting between two objects
38. For a body resting on a horizontal surface, the normal force is the (1)
1) weight of the body
N=mg
39. For which of the following situations is the net force acting on a particle necessarily equal to zero?
a) The particle is traveling at constant velocity around a circle
b) The particle has constant linear momentum
c) The particle has constant kinetic energy
d) The particle has constant angular momentum
This is a restatement of Newton's first law of motion, which says that if the resultant external force acting on a particle is zero, then the linear momentum if the particle is constant. The answer is B
40. One newton is equal to
a) give a 1 g mass an acceleration of 1 m/s^2
b) accelerate a 10 kg mass at a rate of 0.10 m/s^2
c) accelerate a 1 kg mass at a rate of 1.00 cm/s^2
d) accelerate a 1 kg mass at a rate of 9.81 m/s^2
Newton's second law can be expressed as F=ma. The unit of force which has fundamental units of kg*m/s^2. A newton of force required to accelerate a 1 kg mass at a rate of 1 m/s^2 or 10 kg mass at a rate of 0.10 m/s^2 The answer is B
41. If the sum of the forces on a particle is not equal to zero, the particle is?
a) moving with constant velocity in the direction of the resultant force.
b) accelerating in a direction opposite of the resultant force.
c) accelerating in the same direction as the resultant force
d) moving with a constant velocity opposite to the direction of the resultant force.
F=ma
Since force and acceleration are both vectors, and mass is a scalar, the direction of acceleration is the same as the resultant force. The answer is C
42. According to the energy conservation principle, energy cannot be created or destroyed. However, energy can be transformed into (1)
1) different forms
(1) is a vector quantity equal to the change in momentum
1) impulse
43. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is equal to?
a) force
b) momentum
c) work
d) power
The combination of variables is (kg*m^2/s^3) corresponds to a watt (i.e power) The answer is D
44. The impulse and momentum principle is mostly useful for solving problems involving?
a) force, velocity, and time
b) force, acceleration, and time
c) velocity, acceleration, and time
d) force, velocity, and acceleration
Impulse is calculated from force and time. Momentum is calculated from mass and velocity. Therefore, the impulse and momentum principle is useful in solving problems involving force, time, velocity, and mass. The answer is A
45. Newton's Third Law
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
46. Fy
Fy=Vsin(theta)
47. Fx
Fx=Vcos(theta)
48. Why does a spinning ice skater's angular velocity increase as she brings her arms in towards her body?
A) Her mass moment of inertia is reduced
B) Her angular momentum is constant
C) Her radius of gyration is reduced
D) All of the above
As the skater brings in her arms in, her radius of gyration and mass moment of inertia decrease. However, in the absence of friction, her angular momentum, h, is constant
w=h/i
Since angular velocity w is inversely proportional to the mass moment inertia decreases. The answer is D
49. Kinematic viscosity can be expressed in which of the following units?
A) m^2/s
B) s^2/m
C) kgs^2/m
D) kg/s
The units of kinematic viscosity are m^2/s (SI) or ft^2/sec. The answer is A
50. Which of the following does not affect the rise or fall of liquid in a small-diameter capillary tube?
A) adhesive forces
B) cohesive forces
C) surface tension
D) viscosity of the fluid
The height of capillary rise is determined from
h=4RcosB/Yd
R= the surface tension of the fluid
d= diameter of the tube
B= angle of contact
Y= specific weight
The viscosity of the fluid is not directly relevant to the height of capillary
51. A dimensional analysis of a ship model is being performed using a total of four different dimensional quantities: mass, length, time, and temperature. Six different variables (density, surface tension, viscosity, gravity, power, and mass) have been identified as potentially affecting the velocity of the boat. Use the Buckingham Pi-groups will be needed?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 10
D) 24
k=m-n
m= # of variables
n= # of dimensional quantities
k=6-4=2
The answer is B
52. Which of the following statements concerning buoyancy are false?
I. Buoyancy is the tendency of a fluid to exert a supporting force on a body placed in that fluid.
II. Buoyancy is the ability of a body to return to its original position after being tilted on its horizontal axis.
III. The buoyant force is measured by multiplying the specific weight of the object by the displaced volume of the fluid.
IV. Buoyant forces occur both when an object floats in a fluid and when an object sinks in a fluid.
V. The buoyant force acts vertically upward through the centroid of the displaced volume.
A) I, II, and III
B) III, IV, and V
C) I and V
D) II and III
Statement II and III are false. II describes stability not buoyancy. The buoyant force is determined by multiplying the specific weight of the fluid by the displaced volume of the fluid.
The answer is D
Velocity= V= ?
V= Q/A = m/s
Q= flow rate m^3/s
A= Area m^2
53. Reynolds number (Re)
This is the calculation of flow turbulence
Re=pvd/U
54. The hydraulic radius is?
A) the mean radius of the pipe
B) the radius of the pipe bend on the line
C) the wetted perimeter of a conduit divided by the area of flow
D) the cross-sectional fluid area divided by the wetted perimeter
Rh= area in flow/ wetted perimeter
The answer is D
55. What are minor losses?
A) decreases in pressure due to friction in fully developed turbulent flow through pipes of constant area
B) decreases in pressure due to friction in valves, tees, and elbows, and other frictional effects
C) decreases in pressure due to friction that can usually be ignored
D) developed in pressure due friction in fully developed turbulent flow in non-constant area pipes
Minor losses are friction caused by fittings, changes in direction, and changes in flow area. The flow regime (laminar or turbulent) and the pipe cross section are irrelevant.
The answer is B.
56. Which dimensionless number represents the ratio of inertia forces to gravitational forces?
A) Reynolds number
B) Froude number
C) Grashof number
D) Weber number
The Froude number is the ratio of inertia forces to gravitational forces
Fr=v^2/gL
The answer is B
57. The acoustic velocity in a specific gas depends only on which of the following variables?
A) cp, the specific heat at constant pressure
B) k, the ratio of specific heats
C) cv, specific heat at constant temperature
D) T, absolute temperature
c=square root(kRT)
k=cp/cv
R,k,cp, and cv are properties of the gas. Only T can vary independently. The answer is D
58. Which of the following cannot be directly determined with the use of a pitot tube?
A) velocity of flowing fluid
B) stagnation pressure
C) discharge rate
D) total pressure
The pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow. The stagnation pressure is measured by a pitot tube. The discharge rate could be determined from velocity but would require additional knowledge about the pipe sized and velocity distribution within the pipe. Therefore, the discharge rate cannot be directly determined.. The answer is C
59. What is a distinguishing characteristic of the halogens?
A) They are phosphorescent
B) Next to the noble gases, they are the most chemically inactive group.
C) They readily accept an electron from another atom to form compounds
D) They have a high electrical conductivity
The halogens need one electron to complete an electron shell. They readily accept this electron from other atoms to form compounds. The answer is C
60. As the pressure of a gas increases, the solubility of that gas in a liquid
A) always increases
B) always decreases
C) is not changed
D) cannot be determined
By Henry's law, xi= Hpi, the fraction of a gas that is dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. As the pressure increases, so does the solubility in liquid. The answer is A.
61. What would you have to know to determine whether a solvent poured into a breaker containing water will float on top of the water?
A) The solvent's specific gravity is more than one, and solubility is high.
B) The solvent's specific gravity is less than one, and solubility is high.
C) The solvent's specific gravity is less than one, and regardless of solubility.
D) The solvent's specific gravity is less than one, and solubility is low.
For the solvent to float on water, it must be both lighter than water (specific gravity less than one) and without significant solubility in water. If the solvent has a high solubility, it would dissolve into the water and form a solution. The answer is D
62. If the pressure in the reaction container is doubled, wat would be the expected results? (Choose the best answer)
A) The amount of ammonia (NH3) would double.
B) There would be no change in the amount of ammonia (NH3) present.
C) More ammonia (NH3) would be generated.
D) The amount of ammonia (NH3) would be halve.
By Le Chatelier's principle, a reversible reaction will find a new equilibrium in response to an added stress, and the new equilibrium will reduce that stress. In this case, the stress is an increase in pressure. For gas reaction equations, the coefficients represent volumes as well as moles. In the given equation, four volumes of reactants produce two volumes of product. The reaction will proceed to a new equilibrium in which more ammonia is generated because this will reduce the pressure. The answer is C
63. Which of the following occurs when table salt (NaCl) is added to continuously heated boiling water?
A) The water continues to boil
B) The water momentarily stops boiling
C) The water boils even more agitatedly
D) The temperature of the water decreases XXX boiling continues uninterrupted
The boiling point of a solution is higher than the boiling point of the pure solvent at the same pressure. XXXX of the solute will momentarily stop the boiling process until the elevated boiling point temperature is reached. The answer is B
64. What is the order of reaction with respect to reactant E and the overall order of the reaction described by the following rate law?
Rate=k[E]^2
A) second order with respect to E: fourth order overall
B) second order with respect to E: second order overall
C) first order with respect to E: second order overall
D) first order with respect to E: fourth order overall
For a reaction of the form aA + bB --> cC + dD , the rate of reaction is r=k[A]^a[B]^b
For the given rate law, the reaction must be of the form E+E --> product
The order of reaction is the total number of molecules reacting. In this case, the order of reaction is second with respect to reactant E and second overall (since there are no other reactants.) The answer is B
65. Which of the following does a catalyst change?
A) The concentration of product at equilibrium
B) The equilibrium constant of a reaction
C) The heat of reaction of a reaction
D) The activation energy of reaction
A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of reaction without being consumed in the reaction. A catalyst lowers the activation energy. The energy at equilibrium is not affected by the catalyst, so the concentration of product and the equilibrium constant are unchanged. The answer is D
66. What is the valence (oxidation state) of carbon in sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)?
A) -4
B) -2
C) +2
D) +4
Since sodium carbonate is a neutral compound, the sum of the oxidation number is zero. Oxygen has a valence of -2, and sodium has a valence of +1. The valence of carbon can be calculated as
(2)(+1)+x+(3)(-2)=0
x-4=0
x=4 The answer is D
67. Which of the following statements pertaining to acids and bases is incorrect?
A) Acids conduct electricity in aqueous solutions
B) Acids turn blue litmus paper red
C) Bases have a pH between 7 and 14.
D) Bases have a sour taste
Bases have a bitter taste, unlike acids which have a so [Show Less]