TEST BANK Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6 (Complete Questions and Solutions)
Table of Contents 2The Culture of the Navy (Block
... [Show More] 2) ................................ ..................... 1 3Governance of the Navy (Block 3) ................................ .................... 19 4How the Navy Thinks About War (Block ................................ ............. 24 5How the Navy Plans Its Operations ................................ .................. 57 6Technology in the Maritime Domain ................................ .................. 97
2The Culture of the Navy (Block 2) Enlisted Professionalism
2.1.1Military Formations
Q1: Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? A: Precision and automatic response
Q2: Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? A: From most junior to senior
Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? A: To use as a tool to punish your Sailors
Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? A: Awards ceremony
Q5: During the Revolutionary War, developed a set of standardized drills
for General George Washington and the Continental Army. A: Baron von Steuben
Q6: Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? A: Leaving the shipyards after 120 days
Q7: Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? A: Baron von Steuben
Q8: What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? A: Preparatory
Q9: At the beginning of the Revolutionary War,
tool to achieve discipline in ranks. A: fear
Q10: What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? A: Flank
Q11: As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? A: Attention
Q12: Sailors are in a A: File
, when placed in formation one behind the other?
Q13: Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? A: Refueling evolution
Q14: What is the distance between ranks? A: 40
Q15: A/an can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. A: Element 1 | P a g e was the leaders' primaryQ16: When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice?
A: Inflection
Q17: What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct
an inspection of the sailors?
A: OPEN RANKS
Q18: As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of
your Sailors?
A: Prior to the seasonal uniform change
Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system?
A: Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of
equity and good morale
2.1.2Military Uniforms, Customs, and
Courtesies
1 When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute?
A: The right front passenger seat salutes
Q20: What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
A: The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
Q21: When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on?
A: Left
Q22: Who exits a military vehicle first?
A: The senior leaves first
Q23: How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army?
A: The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal
Q24: What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade?
A: Sergeant Major
Q25: What is meant by “under arms”?
A: When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
Q26: At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
A: At six paces or closest point of approach
Q27: The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of?
A: Chief Master Sergeant
Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items?
A: Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic
uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s
discretion unless otherwise directed.
Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
A: Staff Sergeant
Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign?
A: Salute
Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ”
A: Individual ship captains
Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers?
A: Make difficult decisions for junior officers
2.1.3Fleet Response Plan
1 Presence with a purpose” provides what?
A: routine, pulse
Q33: Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to
adoption of FRP?
A: 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Q34: Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-
month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
A: Commander, Fleet Forces Command
2 | P a g eQ35: When is a CSG considered surge ready?
A: When they have completed integrated phase training
Q36: The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories?
A: Maintenance
A: Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy
A: Emergency surge, surge ready, routine
Q37: The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what?
A: Fleet Readiness Plan
Q38: What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle?
A: A 27-month cycle
Q39: At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is?
A: a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
Q40: The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be
deployable within 30 days?
A: 6
Q41: When a ship, sub, or squadron is considered routine deployable?
A: After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including
completion of underway …
Q42: Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains
the Fleet?
A: Sea Basing
Q43: What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
A: 6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days
Q44: Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S.
Navy to do what?
A: Maintain its relevance
Q45: Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for
how many months?
A: 16 Months
Q46: The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to
embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as?
A: homeland defense
Q47: When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status?
A: When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase
2.1.4Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and
Responsibilities
Q48: The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations
was the?
A: hat device
Q49: Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?
A: U.S. Navy Regulation Circular
Number 1 General Order Number
409
Q50: On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief
petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role?
A: The top technical authority and expert within a rating
Q51: The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to?
A: Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues
Q52: The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?
A: It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1
Q53: What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
A: The Retention Task Force of 1964
3 | P a g eQ54: In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
A: Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Q55: During the early 1900’s, chief petty officers could receive a permanent
appointment based on?
A: Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer
Q56: On 28 April 1967,
A: GMCM Delbert Black
Q57: What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
A: Report to CNP
A: Travel extensively
Q58: On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first?
A: Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy
Q59: The duties and responsibilities of a Master Chief Petty Officer in 1978 were?
A: broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation
Q60: The paygrades of Senior Chief and Master Chief Petty Officer were established
in what year?
A: 1958
Q61: The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to?
A: Strengthen chief petty officer standards
Q62: According to the 1918 Bluejacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were
A: Technical expert and example setter
2.1.5Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader
1 TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?
A: resource sponsors
Q63: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Q64: Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
A: Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Q65: OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy
policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for .
A: national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
Q66: Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
A: Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Q67: Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities
based on available funding and :
A: warfare sponsor requirements
Q68: Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower
requirements and authorizations?
A: Activity Manning Document (AMD)
Q69: Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)?
A: Mission and warfare sponsors
Q70: OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and
Procedures, defines manpower management as a?
A: methodical process
Q71: In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
A: Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements
Q72: For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013)
perform placement functions?
A: Enlisted
Q73: The methodical process of determining, validating, and using
manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines .
A: manpower management
Q74: The AMD is a single source document that provides?
A: Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
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became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.Q75: How often is the EDVR published?
A: Monthly
Q76: What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and
end strength?
A: Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS)
Q77: Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel
distribution?
A: AMD
Q78: Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a
naval activity?
A: POE
Q79: Placement is an advocate for
A: Sailors, Navy
and detailers are advocates for
Q80: What allows commands to download their AMD?
A: TMMCA
Q81: Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
A: EDVR
1 Customs, Honors, and Traditions
2.1.6Naval Customs
1 Proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage?
A: Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson
Q82: Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written?
A: To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906
Q83: What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
A: The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could
destroy it.
Q84: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same
to the U.S. fleet units?
A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet
Q85: Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”?
A: It is played today at many athletic events and parades.
Q86: Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage.
These days are
.
A: Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October)
Q87: Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q88: Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors
Aweigh”?
A: Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so
that they could be usable today at a wide range of events.
A: Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza.
Q89: A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in
or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was
.
A: Franklin D. Roosevelt
Q90: What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain
services from a sea service in opposing the British military?
A: George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to
intercept British supply ships.
Q91: In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of
the War of Independence?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q92: What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same
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.to the U.S. fleet units?
A: Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet
headquarters.
Q93: Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered
appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q94: What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy?
A: The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service
during Sunday’s Divine Services
Q95: Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was
necessary for what purpose(s)?
A: All the answers are correct
Q96: The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
A: Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a
major turning point in favor of the United States.
Q97: The author of “Anchors Aweigh”, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of
recognition by the midshipmen?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q98: Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of
the naval service?
A: It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a
Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to intercept British transports
Q99: Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men
and women originate?
A: It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Philip Sousa.
A: A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words
around 1860.
Navy Fleets
2.1.7Second and Fourth Fleets
1
2
3
4
Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during the Second World War
.
A: All the answers are correct
The U.S. Navy reorganized its forces in 1922, assigning most of its ships
to the Pacific in response to
.
A: the growing threat that Japan represented
Completed in 1914, what allowed the U.S. Navy to rapidly transfer ships
between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
A: The Panama Canal
The AOR (area of responsibility) of U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFFC)
includes which of the following geographical areas?
A: The western portion of the Atlantic Ocean, from the North Pole to the
Caribbean, and the Gulf of Mexico.
5
6
7
8
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During World War II,
numbered fleets were responsible
for operations in the Atlantic Ocean.
A: Three
During World War I,
A: nearly all
ships were assigned to the Atlantic Fleet.
The opening of the Panama Canal enabled U.S. warships to transfer between
the Atlantic and Pacific oceans
.
A: In less than 1/3 the time
What event prompted the United States to declare war on Spain in 1898?
A: The sinking of the USS MAINE9
10
11
12
13
14
15
The Atlantic Squadron was reorganized into the Atlantic in early 1941, because
.
A: Of the possibility of war breaking out in both the Atlantic and Pacific oceans
U.S. warships enforced the blockade during the 1962 Cuban Missile
Crisis by sinking all Soviet-flagged vessels approaching the island.
A: False
Which of the following squadrons has never operated in the area
encompassed by the U.S. Navy’s Second Fleet?
A: North Africa Squadron
Among the Navy’s roles during the First World War was
A: All the answers are correct
.
Part of us fleet forces command’s mission set is to serve as the naval
component of.
A: Do not know
Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during WWII:
A: All answers are correct
The Fourth Fleet’s normal area of responsibility (AOR) is within which
geographic combatant commander’s AOR?
A: USSOUTHCOM
2.1.8Fifth Fleet
1
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
The past two decades have seen
in Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR).
A: an increase
What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for
joint operations?
A: Operation EAGLE CLAW
The focus of Operation NEW DAWN will be on conducting
operations.
A: Stability
Over
of the world’s oil reserves are located in the area
of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet.
A: 50%
What role did the U.S. Navy NOT play during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A: rescuing hostages
Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in
Afghanistan during what operation?
A: Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s
area of responsibility (AOR)?
A: Late 1970’s
Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes
A: the diminishing role of U.S. forces in Iraq
About
of the oil exported from Fifth Fleet’s area of
responsibility (AOR) transits through the Strait of Hormuz—a vital choke
point.
A: 90%
24
25
26
27
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How many operational units are permanently assigned to the Fifth Fleet?
A: 0
Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)?
A: Fifth Fleet
The Navy’s Fifth Fleet is part of
A: USCENTCOM
.
Which of the following is NOT a choke point found in the Fifth Fleet’s
area of responsibility (AOR)?
.
in Navy operations conductedA: Malacca Strait
28
29
30
31
Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in
what is now the Fifth Fleet AOR?
A: Not soviet invasion of Afghanistan
Fifth Fleets Headquarters is located in
?
A: Bahrain
Which Fleet has the smallest AOR?
A: 5th Fleet
Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation ?
A: Iraqi Freedom
2.1.9Sixth Fleet
1 Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included
A: convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean
2 laying some 60,000 mines
A: clearing minefields after the war
3 The Sixth Fleet is assigned to
.
A: Commander, Naval Forces Europe
4 NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as
A: Commander USEUCOM
5 The Sixth Fleet received its designation in
A: 1950
.
6 A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during
World War I.
A: True
7 During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in
A: Sicily
A: North Africa
A: South Italy
8 The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in
A: Naples, Italy
.
9 The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German
Navy in World War II.
A: False
10 NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-halted as .
A: Not sixth Fleet
11 Six Fleets area of responsibility encompasses
.
A: The geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM
12 Following the Civil War, ships of Africa Squadron were tasked to suppress
A: The Slave Trade
13 The Navy’s first overseas installation was established at
A: Port Mahon
.
14 Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility?
(Select all that apply).
A: All Answers
2.1.10Pacific Fleet
Q100: Since the end of World War II, which of the following operations involved the
Seventh Fleet?
A: All are correct
Q101: During the Civil War, what was the greatest Threat in the Pacific?
A: Confederate Commerce Raiders
Q102: Which of the following was NOT a result of the Spanish-American War in the Pacific?
A: Establishment of NATO
Q103: The acquisition of the Philippines was important for the U.S. Navy because it
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.
.
.
.allowed them to .
A: establish a major operating base and repair facility in the Pacific
Q104: The U.S. Navy's presence in what is now the Pacific Fleet dates back to what
time era?
A: Early 1800's
Q105: During the War of 1812, the USS Essex proceeded to capture or destroy
fourteen ships belonging to which country?
A: Britain
Q106: Which of the following was NOT a squadron established after the Civil War?
A: East Indies Squadron
Q107: Which external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of
American sea power to the pacific?
A: The rising Threat of Japan
Q108: The AOR of today's Seventh Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas?
A: From the international date line to the 68th east meridian, and from the
Kuril Islands to the Antarctic.
Q109: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Third Fleet located?
A: San Diego, CA.
Q110: In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S.
Navy in the Pacific?
A: All the answers are correct.
Q111: Who were the two primary commanders in the Pacific theater during World War II?
A: Admiral Nimitz and General MacArthur
Q112: When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the
west coast to Hawaii?
A: 1940's.
Q113: When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the
Pacific?
A: 1920's
Q114: Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf?
A: General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa
Q115: Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Pacific Fleet located?
A: Pearl Harbor, Hawaii.
Customs, Honors, and Traditions
2.1.11Customs and Traditions
1 Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the
equator at a significant line of longitude?
A: Golden
2 The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South
America (Cape Horn) is?
A: Mossback
3 Initiation rites that include hazing are
A: a violation of SECNAV Instructions
4 Among those eligible for burial at sea are
A: All the answers are correct
.
5 Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?
A: Avoid walking on varnished areas.
A: Hands and arms are allowed outside the boat to enjoy the breeze
A: A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor
A: should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency
6 The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle
A: Blue Nose
7 Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony?
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.A: Three volleys are fired, followed by “Taps”.
8 Formal dinners promote
A: All the answers are correct
9 The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group?
A: Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights
10 Which statement is an example of proper boat etiquette?
A: Juniors board the boat first.
11 If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its
safe operation?
A: Surface Warfare Lieutenant
12 Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called
A: Pollywogs
.
13 What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard
ship to shore?
A: Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.
14 The oldest of all seafaring traditions is
A: the burial at sea
.
15 The Tradition of manning the rails originated
A: Not to demonstrate cannons manned
.
16 Frocking was celebrated to have extra pay before actual promotion.
A: False
2.1.12Ships - Customs and Traditions
1 Before commissioning, a ship must
A: Arrive at its first homeport
Q116: Ship launching ceremonies
A: began at the dawn of recorded history
Q117: Hailing protocols
A: are not published in any regulation
Q118: The Navy’s battle streamers
A: span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo
Q119: The christening ceremony includes
A: naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea,
and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow
Q120: The U.S. Navy
A: was the last service to adopt battle streamers?
Q121: The sloop Concord is notable because
A: it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman
Q122: While a ship is at anchor or at a pier
A: the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck
Q123: What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?
A: All the answers are correct
Q124: On modern ships, the quarterdeck
A: is designated by the Commanding Officer
Q125: The “Returning Home Pennant”
A: is an extra-long commissioning pennant?
Q126: The “Returning Home Pennant”
A: is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port
Q127: You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small
boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John
Paul Jones!” He is
A: announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat
Q128: All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT
A: walking on the port side
Q129: Ship christening in the U.S. Navy
A: Was first conducted for frigates in the Revolutionary War
10 | P a g eQ130: All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT
A: the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive
Q131: Boat hailing protocols became necessary
A: in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and
boating was required
Q132: While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD)
A: All the answers are correct
Q133: Today’s “Returning Home Pennant”
A: All the answers are correct.
Q134: Ships in the U.S. Navy
.
A: are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and
other prominent guests in attendance
Q135: Stars on Navy streamers
.
A: follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five
bronze stars
Q136: Battle streamers
.
A: Commemorate the services of Sailors in the past
2.1.13Honors and Ceremonies
1 The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is
A: side honors are rendered to the official
Q137: There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute
at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are
A: Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day
Q138: Morning and evening colors refers to
A: ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered
Q139: The tradition of the shadow box
A: dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the
person’s shadow were to hit the pier before the person, and includes a
ceremonial box to contain things that reflect his/her tour
Q140: The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is
A: passing honors
Q141: Gun salutes are currently offered
A: in five second intervals
Q142: In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered?
A: A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near
comes to pay an official visit
Q143: What is meant by “dressing ship”?
A: Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival
Q144: At the end of their careers, all officers may
A: All the answers are correct
Q145: Half-masting the national ensign
A: is a symbol of mourning and respect?
Q146: Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies?
A: All officers and crew face the ensign and salute
Q147: Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in
A: MILPERSMAN 1800-010
Q148: Commanding Officer’s orders
A: ship’s history
Q149: Passing honors are
A: All the answers are correct.
Q150: The Change of Command Ceremony always includes
A: all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: “I relieve you, Sir”,
and “I stand relieved”
Q151: Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because
A: in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable
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.
.Q152: By custom, gun salutes are returned
A: Not only a single gun
.
Q153: Upon the death of a President, the ensign is flown at half-mast for
A: 30 days
Ethics and Professionalism for the Warfighter
2.1.14Military Ethics Overview
1 The Principle of Utility is
A: All of the answers are correct
Q154: The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant
“custom”. Today, military ethics are derived from our Services’
A: core values and heritage
Q155: Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning”, “truth cannot be known”,
and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following?
A: Nihilism
Q156: The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty
A: False
Q157: Character-based ethics argues
A: right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue
Q158: Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate
authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies:
A: Freedom-based ethics
Q159: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are
absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all
people and all situations
A: True
Q160: A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always
lead to a conclusion that is true typifies
A: a reason-based approach to truth and justice
Q161: Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.
A: All the answers are correct
Q162: Freedom-based ethics focus on
A: decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses
Q163: Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded
upon the ethical approach of
A: character-based ethics
Q164: Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system
A: Freedom-based ethics
Q165: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or
measured.
A: True
Q166: Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based”, “rule-based”, or
A: character-based
Q167: An ethical person is
A: someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live
Q168: Relativism postulates
A: All the answers are correct
A: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from
pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number”.
A: False
Q169: Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of
A: consequentialism
.
Q170: Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want”, “no one can stop me”, and “I take what
I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the
12 | P a g e
days.following?
A: Criminality
A: Utilitarianism can best be represented by the following phrase:
A: The greatest happiness for the greatest number
2.1.15Ethics in the Profession of Arms
1 Is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of “doing what is best for
me”; it does nothing to preclude evil.
A: Egoism
2 Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral
A: Effectiveness
3 Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or
values governing military professionals?
A: All the answers are correct.
4 Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral
reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads?
A: It is the path to becoming a person of character.
5 Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is
NOT necessary for effective moral development?
A: Moral relativism
6 Moral
is the ability to recognize when a problem is not merely
a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a narrow, technical
solution, but rather is one with some richer moral content.
A: Awareness
7 Is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual
accountability that comes with self-regulation?
A: corporatizes
8 A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the
common good.
A: False
9 Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still
possible to act ineffectively?
A: True
10 What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?
A: The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.
of self-regulation are part of what
11 The ability, right, and
transforms an association into a profession
A: responsibility
12 Moral
is the willingness and desire of an individual resulting in
the execution of what he or she has determined (through knowledge, instinct
and/or reasoning) is the “right thing to do”, regardless of difficulty
A: courage
13 An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human
endeavor” best defines
A: a professional
14 Moral
enables a person to work through a logical and
objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right
from wrong.
A: Reasoning
15 Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally
A: All the answers are correct
16 The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are
A: All the answers are correct
17 An officer has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with
13 | P a g eanything that might impact all of the following, EXCEPT
A: personal recognition and remuneration
18 Which statement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of
military professionals?
A: A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to influences
on material and resource management
19 A key component of professional responsibility is
A: accountability
20 Which of the following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions?
A: Expertise, responsibility, and corporatizes
21
22 Moral
permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to
achieve a desired political objective that serves the nation at large
A: Expertise
is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of
one’s knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.
A: Effectiveness
23 Extensive knowledge of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning
skills will necessarily lead to moral behavior.
A: False
2.1.16Ethics and the Warfighter
1 In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention
obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true
regarding these obligations?
A: A prisoner is permitted to aid others in their attempt to escape.
2 The Geneva Convention allows escape attempts by prisoners of war to be
punishable by death if a guard is killed.
A: The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape
3 A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate
physical courage, and vice-versa.
A: False
4
is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty.
A: Honor
5 Which philosopher’s proposed system of ethics is most closely associated
with the Navy’s Core Values?
A: Aristotle: “Nicomachean Ethics”
6 Is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most
difficult circumstances.
A: The Code of Conduct
7 The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for
A: Prisoners of War
8 Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after
repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war?
A: The Uniform Code of Military Justice
9 Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based?
A: Truth is relative
10 The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service
members to escape and due to their contributions to the enemy’s propaganda
effort during which conflict?
A: The Korean War
11 The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the
Geneva Convention.
A: False
A: I will bear true faith and allegiance”.
14 | P a g eA: “I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of
the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform
Code of Military Justice”.
A: “I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies,
foreign and domestic”.
A: Honor, Commitment, Courage
12 In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention
obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true
regarding these obligations?
A: The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape
13 The Oath of Enlistment is significant in the Profession of Arms because it
A: clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment
14 The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of
the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)?
A: Ship, shipmate, self
15 In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage
the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain
information; perception management may be a legitimate goal.
A: True
16 Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with an ethical
challenge, poses a risk to choosing the proper course of action in accordance with
the Oath of Enlistment?
A: Loyalty
17 When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and
loyalty, which of the two is more important?
A: This is an ethical dilemma which cannot be resolved without amplifying
information and/or context.
18 The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is
A: characteristics develop from corresponding activities
Q171: Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s)
of the following is/are true?
A: The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war.
19 Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?
A: I will not try to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.
20 What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team
sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not
think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment?
A: Responsibility
21 Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention?
A: The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor
22 Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?
A: A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths
23 Is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to
continue in a task to the realization of its completion?
A: Commitment
24
is the value that gives us the moral and mental strength to do
what is right, with confidence and resolution, even in the face of personal or
professional temptation or adversity.
A: Courage
2.1.17The Just War Tradition
1 The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included
A: self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
2 The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be
15 | P a g etraced back
.
A: more than 1600 years
3 While the moral burden of jus in Bello falls primarily on military leaders, political
leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific
targets, and developing rules of engagement.
A: True
4 The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires
.
A: that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force
5 Key principles of the jus in Bello are proportionality and
A: discrimination
.
6 In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of
jus ad bellum.
A: False
7 The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority
to go to war to the most senior military commanders.
A: False
8 The moral principles of the Just War Tradition
A: help to set the military professional apart
9 Jus in Bello relates to
.
A: the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities
10 Jus ad bellum relates to
.
A: the justification for resorting to war
11 The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.
A: False
12 Jus ad bellum and jus in Bello govern all aspects of war.
A: True
13 The jus in Bello principle of discrimination requires that
A: non-combatants not be the direct object of attack
14 The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
A: Chaplains and medical personnel
15 The proportionality principle of jus in Bello requires
.
A: That the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation
not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation
16 The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on
A: political leaders
17 The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires
A: reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
18 All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the
Geneva Conventions.
A: True
19 The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of
A: theology, philosophy, and law
20 The two-key criteria jus in Bello criteria are
A: Discrimination and proportionality
.
21 Jus ad Bellum permits a nation to conceal its real reasons for going to war in
order to gain an advantage over its enemy.
A: False
2.1.18Standards of Conduct and Gov. Ethics
1 Which of the following actions is prohibited?
A: A ship’s CO is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (she ship’s
communication’s officer) as a Christmas present…
A: Because of the large number of military dependents…
A: The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered 2,000.00 to write
a magazine concerning maintenance Schedule
16 | P a g e
.
.
.
.A: A commander’s husband works for a defense contractor that supplies the
commander’s unit…
Q172: A local church asked a Base CO if it could use the base softball field for their
annual picnic. As part of the Church’s community outreach program,
underprivileged children of the community were invited to the picnic. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?
A: Holding church picnics on base are prohibited by the Standards of Conduct
22 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A: The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.
23 Federal employees may solicit gifts to be used as door prizes at events such as
MWR fund raisers
A: NOT none
24 The standards of conduct apply only to DOD civilian employees. Military
personnel are governed solely by the UCMJ
A: NOT Standards of conduct were promulgated by the Office of government Ethics.
25 Criminal laws pertaining to former DOD employees seeking post-
government employment can be found in
.
A: United States Code, Title 18
26 The primary source of guidance and information on standards of conduct for
military personnel is .
A: Not navy regs.
27 While on official travel, a commander was involuntarily bumped from her flight.
The airline booked her on the next flight and gave her a free round trip ticket as
compensation. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A: All are correct
28 DOD civilian employees who violate the Standards of Conduct may face
A: Fines and termination
.
29 In Response to an appeal by a local charity attempting to raise money to assist the
victims of a natural disaster that had destroyed several hundred homes in the local
community, a command desires to officially support and hold a “fun run.” The event
will be part of the charity’s fundraising effort and monies raised will be turned over
to that charity. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A: Not non-department of defense must run event
30 The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to
A: Ensure federal employees serve the public good
.
31 The CO of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s) is/are the CO permitted to accept?
A: One of the carriers divisions pitches in $2.00 per sailor…
32 A commander is concerned that her husband’s employment may cause a conflict
of interest with her role as base supply Officer. To avoid possible disciplinary
action, she should .
A: Seek advice from a designated ethics counselor and disclose all relevant facts.
33 A command is taking part in the annual combined Federal Campaign fund raising
drive. Which of the following actions is permitted?
A: Co hoped each sailor would think about it.
34 Which of the following activities is permitted?
A: In order to fund its annual summer picnic…
2.1.19Lawful and Unlawful Orders
1 A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the
base commander. Which of the following is true?
A: The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92
of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Q173: A LT driving home is pulled over by a Seaman Recruit in his duties as a
member of the base police force. Believing the LT to be driving while drunk, the
17 | P a g eSeaman Recruit orders the LT to exit the automobile, in order to conduct a field
sobriety test. The LT refuses to and only exits the vehicle when the Seaman
Recruit’s supervisor, a LCDR arrives and orders the LT to exit the car and take the
test. The LT complies and is found not to be impaired. Which of the following
statements is true?
A: The LT may be found guilty of violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
Q174: A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to
help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to
be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their
commanding officer (who is also the LT’s commanding officer) had ordered them to
finish testing the unit’s radios in preparation for an inspection the following day.
The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the
radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following
statements is true?
A: Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to
immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the
necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer
ordered them to accomplish.
Q175: A Service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base
commander. Which of the following is true?
A: It must be shown beyond a reasonable doubt that the general order was in
effect and that the service member either violated or failed to obey the
general order
Q176: The general order needs to have been issued by a service member senior to the
service member accused of having violated it
A: It is not necessary to show that the service member had knowledge of the
order or had a duty to obey it
Q177: In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael New refused to wear United Nations beret
and armband as part of his uniform as he believed that the order to do so was not a
lawful order. Which of the following statements is true?
A: A military court-martial determined the order to be lawful and he was
convicted of failure to obey a lawful order.
Q178: What should a service member do when given an order that is unclear, but
appears to be an unlawful order?
A: Select all answers which make the above statement true:
Q179: Determine if the order is in contradiction to previously issued orders.
A: Ask for clarification of the order, in writing if necessary
Q180: Provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a
military senior.
A: Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039
Q181: Which of the following statements is true?
A: An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the
one giving the contradicting order may be a lawful order.
A: All orders from competent authority are presumed lawful.
Q182: A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a
Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major
before; the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The
LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true?
A: The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not
know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major
Q183: A Third-Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful order given him by a
warrant officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be accused of violating
A: Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
18 | P a g e
.Q184: The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior com [Show Less]