Details of Test Bank Pathophysiology 7th Edition BanasikContents
Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology ................................
... [Show More] .......................... 2 Chapter 02: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive Responses to Stressors ................................ .. 5 Chapter 03: Cell Structure and Function ................................ ............................... 8 Chapter 04: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death ................................ ............................. 12 Chapter 05: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue Differentiation ................................ .... 16 Chapter 06: Genetic and Developmental Disorders ................................ ..................... 18 Chapter 07: Neoplasia ................................ ................................ ............. 22 Chapter 08: Infectious Processes ................................ ................................ .... 26 Chapter 09: Inflammation and Immunity ................................ ............................. 28 Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function ................................ .......................... 32 Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells ................................ .................. 37 Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS ................................ ................................ .. 42 Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport ................................ ......................... 48 Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation ................................ ........... 55 Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow ................................ ............................... 60 Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure ................................ ............................ 65 Chapter 17: Cardiac Function ................................ ................................ ....... 71 Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function ................................ .......................... 77 Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases ........................ 82 Chapter 20: Shock ................................ ................................ ................ 90 Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange ................................ ....... 97 Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders ................................ ....................... 101 Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders ................................ ........................ 108 Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances ................................ ......... 118 Chapter 25: Acid–Base Homeostasis and Imbalances ................................ .................. 131 Chapter 26: Renal Function ................................ ................................ ....... 139 Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders................................ ................................ ... 145 Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease ................................ .......... 156 Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract ................................ .................... 169 Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function ................................ ................. 178 Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function ................................ ..... 182 Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function ................................ ................ 186 Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function ................................ ... 191 Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections ................................ ......................... 198 Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function ................................ .............................. 203 Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders ................................ .............................. 210 Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas ............................. 219 Chapter 38: Liver Diseases ................................ ................................ ........ 226 Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation .................. 232 Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function ................................ ........................ 240
1 | P a g eChapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus ................................ ................................ ..... 249
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition ................................ .................. 256
Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System ................................ ............ 261
Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function ................................ ....................... 271
Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function ................................ ................ 281
Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function ................................ .................. 289
Chapter 47: Pain ................................ ................................ ................ 294
Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses ................................ ...................... 299
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses ................................ .................. 307
Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System ................................ ...... 314
Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Trauma, Infection, and Disease ....................... 320
Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders ............................... 327
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System ................................ ................. 333
Chapter 54: Burn Injuries ................................ ................................ ......... 339
Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a
pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash,
dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat,
malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have
been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is
a. a sore throat.
b. streptococcal infection.
c. genetic susceptibility.
d. pharyngitis.
ANS: B
Etiology refers to the proposed cause or causes of a particular disease process. A sore throat is
the manifestation of the disease process. Genetic susceptibility refers to inherited tendency to
develop a disease. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the throat and is also a clinical
manifestation of the disease process.
2. A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes
meningitis. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: A
Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for
susceptible individuals, in this case by providing vaccination. Secondary prevention is the early
detection, screening, and management of the disease. Tertiary prevention includes
rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective
functioning. Disease treatment involves management of the disease once it has developed.
3. An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise
program. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
2 | P a g eb. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: B
Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease such as
prescribing diet and exercise for an individual who has already developed obesity. Primary
prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for
susceptible individuals. Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care and
attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Disease treatment involves
management of the disease once it has developed.
4. A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium
intake. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: B
Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease, such
as by prescribing sodium restriction for high blood pressure. Primary prevention is prevention
of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible individuals. Tertiary
prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and
restore effective functioning. Disease treatment involves management of the disease once it
has developed.
5. After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering
medication. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment.
ANS: C
Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate
disability and restore effective functioning such as prescribing a cholesterol-lowering
medication following a heart attack. Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering
susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible individuals. Secondary prevention is the
early detection, screening, and management of the disease. Disease treatment involves
management of the disease once it has developed.
6. A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of
this disease. This stage of illness is called the
stage.
a. prodromal
b. latent
c. sequela
d. convalescence
ANS: B
Incubation refers to the interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the
first appearance of signs and symptoms. In infectious diseases, this period is often called the
incubation (latent) period. Prodromal refers to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms
indicating the onset of a disease. These are often nonspecific, such as headache, malaise,
anorexia, and nausea, which are associated with a number of different diseases. Sequela refers
to subsequent pathologic condition resulting from a disease. Convalescence is the stage of
recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical operation.
7. A disease that is native to a particular region is called
3 | P a g ea. epidemic.
b. endemic.
c. pandemic.
d. ethnographic.
ANS: B
A disease that is native to a particular region is called endemic. An epidemic is a disease that
spreads to many individuals at the same time. Pandemics are epidemics that affect large
geographic regions, perhaps spreading worldwide. Ethnographic does not describe a disease
distribution pattern.
8. In general, with aging, organ size and function
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain the same.
d. are unknown.
ANS: B
In general, with aging, organ size and function decrease.
9. The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well
established, is referred to as
a. latent.
b. subclinical.
c. prodromal.
d. convalescence.
ANS: B
The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well
established, is called the subclinical stage. The interval between exposure of a tissue to an
injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms may be called a latent period
or, in the case of infectious diseases, an incubation period. The prodromal period, or
prodrome, refers to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms indicating the onset of a
disease. Convalescence is the stage of recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical operation.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Your patient’s red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by
(Select all that apply.)
a. gender difference.
b. situational factors.
c. normal variation.
d. cultural variation.
e. illness.
ANS: A, B, C, E
Gender, situations (e.g., altitude), normal variations, and illness may all determine red blood
cell count. Culture affects how manifestations are perceived (normal versus abnormal).
2. Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)
a. genetics.
b. environmental toxins.
c. overcrowding.
d. nutrition.
e. hygiene.
ANS: B, C, D, E
Socioeconomic factors influence disease development via exposure to environmental toxins
(occupational) and overcrowding, nutrition (over- or undernutrition), and hygiene (e.g., in
4 | P a g edeveloping countries). Genetics is not influenced by socioeconomic factors.
3. When determining additional data to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to
be considered? (Select all that apply.)
a. Reliability
b. Expense
c. Validity
d. Generalizability
e. Repetition
ANS: A, C
Two considerations one must use when choosing additional data to gather include the
reliability and validity of the tests being weighed. Reliability, or precision, is the ability of a
test to give the same result in repeated measurements. Validity, or accuracy, is the degree to
which a measurement reflects the true value of the object it is intended to measure. Expense,
generalizability, and repetition are not characteristics that are typically considered.
4. Which of the following statements are accurate when considering diagnostic testing for an
individual with a possible medical condition? (Select all that apply.)
a. The more often a patient has a test, the more accurate the average result is.
b. Sensitivity is the chance the test will be positive if the hypothesized disease is
present.
c. Testing is generally not accurate during the prodromal stage to make a diagnosis.
d. Specificity shows that a test will be negative if the person does not have the
disease.
e. Reliability demonstrates a test is accurate under a number of different conditions.
ANS: B, D
Sensitivity is the probability that the test will be positive when applied to a person with the
condition. Specificity is the probability that a test will be negative when applied to a person
who does not have a given condition. Test results are usually not aggregated and averaged. A
disease process is well established during the prodromal phase of illness, so some diagnostic
testing would indicate its presence. Reliability, or precision, is the ability of a test to give the
same result in repeated measurements.
Chapter 02: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
a. tachycardia.
b. diaphoresis.
c. increased peripheral resistance.
d. pupil constriction.
ANS: D
Pupils dilate during stress from the effects of catecholamines. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, and
increased peripheral resistance are indicators of stress and also occur because of
catecholamine release.
2. Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Cortisol
c. Epinephrine
d. Insulin
ANS: D
Insulin secretion is impaired during stress to promote energy from increased blood glucose.
Norepinephrine is secreted during stress as a mediator of stress and adaptation. Cortisol is
5 | P a g esecreted during stress as a mediator of stress and adaptation and stimulates gluconeogenesis
in the liver to supply the body with glucose. Epinephrine is secreted during stress as a
mediator of stress and adaptation and increases glycogenolysis and the release of glucose from
the liver.
3. Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except
a. allostasis.
b. resistance.
c. alarm.
d. exhaustion.
ANS: A
Allostasis is defined as the ability to successfully adapt to challenges. Allostasis may/may not
occur in response to stress. Alarm, resistance (or adaptation), and exhaustion are the three
phases of the stress response as described by Selye in the general adaptation syndrome.
4. Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous
system and are mediated by
a. norepinephrine.
b. cortisol.
c. glucagon.
d. ACTH.
ANS: A
Norepinephrine is secreted in response to activation of the sympathetic nervous system during
stress by the adrenal medulla. Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex. Glucagon is secreted
by the pancreas. ACTH is secreted by the pituitary gland.
5. The effects of excessive cortisol production include
a. immune suppression.
b. hypoglycemia.
c. anorexia.
d. inflammatory reactions.
ANS: A
Cortisol suppresses immune function and inflammation and stimulates appetite. Cortisol leads
to hyperglycemia by stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver. Cortisol also leads to increased
appetite and food-seeking behaviors and plays a significant role in inflammatory reactions.
6. All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except
a. aldosterone.
b. cortisol.
c. norepinephrine.
d. epinephrine.
ANS: A
Aldosterone results in water and sodium retention and potassium loss in the urine. It does
not affect blood glucose. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. Cortisol
stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver, thus increasing blood glucose. Norepinephrine
inhibits insulin secretion, thus increasing blood sugar. Epinephrine increases glucose release
from the liver and inhibits insulin secretion, thus increasing blood glucose.
7. Allostasis is best defined as
a. a steady state.
b. a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism.
c. the process by which the body heals following disease.
d. the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and
well-being.
6 | P a g eANS: D
Allostasis refers to the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and
well-being.
8. The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is
a. energy and repair.
b. invoke resting state.
c. produce exhaustion.
d. set a new baseline steady-state.
ANS: A
These resources are used for energy and as building blocks, especially the amino acids, for the
later growth and repair of the organism. The substances do not produce a resting state. The
substances can produce exhaustion if they continue, but that is not their adaptive purpose.
Although a new baseline steady state may result from the stress response that is not
the adaptive purpose of the substances produced during the alarm stage.
9. Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in
a. stress reduction.
b. permanent damage and death.
c. movement into the resistance stage.
d. exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
ANS: B
If the alarm stage were to persist, the body would soon suffer undue wear and tear and
become subject to permanent damage and even death. Actions taken by the individual during
the resistance stage lead to stress reduction. The resistance stage may or may not occur
following the alarm stage, based on resource availability. The sympathetic nervous system
will continue to function, resulting in continued release of stress hormones.
10. The effect of stress on the immune system
a. is unknown.
b. has been demonstrated to be nonexistent in studies.
c. most often involves enhancement of the immune system.
d. may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
ANS: D
Many studies demonstrate that long-term stress impairs the immune system, but
many researchers identify that short-term stress may enhance the immune system.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to (Select all that apply.)
a. decreased urinary output.
b. increased blood potassium.
c. increased sodium retention.
d. increased blood volume.
e. decreased blood pressure.
ANS: A, C, D
Aldosterone increases water and sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion by the renal
distal tubules and collecting ducts, thus leading to decreased urinary output, sodium retention
in the body, and increased extracellular fluid volume. Because it leads to potassium excretion,
aldosterone leads to decreased blood potassium.
2. Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
a. cardiovascular disease.
b. depression.
7 | P a g ec. impaired cognitive function.
d. autoimmune disease.
e. overactive immune function.
ANS: A, B, C, D
Excessive cortisol levels promote hypertension, atherosclerosis, and the development of
cardiovascular disease. Chronic overactive stress hormones may result in atrophy and death of
brain cells. Elevated levels of stress hormones are found in individuals with depressive
disorders. Chronic stress leads to immune function impairment, rather than overactive
immune function, and has been implicated in autoimmune disorders.
3. Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of (Select
all that apply.)
a. catecholamines.
b. ACTH.
c. glucocorticoids.
d. immune cytokines.
e. TSH.
ANS: A, B, C, D
During the alarm stage, catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine), ACTH, glucocorticoids,
and immune cytokines are secreted. TSH is not secreted during the stress response.
Chapter 03: Cell Structure and Function
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form
a. CO2 and H2O.
b. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate.
c. 30 ATP.
d. oxygen.
ANS: B
Glycolysis produces a net gain of two ATP molecules and breaks down glucose modules to
produce two pyruvate molecules. Oxidative phosphorylation produces CO2 and H2O.
Oxidative phosphorylation produces 30 ATP molecules. Oxygen is not produced by
glycolysis, but it is necessary for oxidative phosphorylation.
2. The benefit of glycolysis is that this second stage of catabolism supplies
a. ATP to meet energy needs of the body.
b. pyruvate to the citric acid cycle.
c. energy for oxidative phosphorylation.
d. lactate during anaerobic conditions.
ANS: B
The benefit of glycolysis is to supply pyruvate to the citric acid cycle of cellular metabolism,
which then produces much ATP. Glycolysis only produces two ATP modules, which is
insufficient for energy needs. Glycolysis does not supply energy for oxidative
phosphorylation. Lactate produced during prolonged anaerobic conditions builds up and can
lead to lactic acidosis, which is an undesirable outcome.
3. Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is because of
a. activation of the Na+-K+ pump.
b. influx of calcium.
c. efflux of potassium.
d. influx of sodium.
ANS: C
Repolarization is because of efflux of potassium from the cell. The Na+-K+ pump maintains
8 | P a g ecellular volume via osmotic pressure and helps to maintain resting membrane potential.
Calcium influx prolongs the action potential. Influx of sodium initiates depolarization.
4. Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have
a. receptors for neurotransmitters.
b. tight junctions.
c. ligand-gated channels.
d. voltage-gated channels.
ANS: D
Voltage-gated channels respond to changes in membrane potential and are responsible for
conducting action potentials. Receptors for neurotransmitters allow neurotransmitters to bind
to the cell membrane but are not directly responsible for action potentials in excitable cells.
Tight junctions are intercellular connections that help segregate proteins on the cell membrane
and are not involved in conducting action potentials. Ligand-gated channels respond to binding
of a signaling molecule such as a neurotransmitter, but are not directly responsible for action
potentials in excitable cells.
5. The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
a. extracellular sodium ion concentration.
b. the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ions.
c. activation of voltage-gated sodium channels.
d. activity of energy-dependent membrane pumps.
ANS: B
The major determinant of the resting membrane potential is the difference in potassium ion
concentration across the membrane. Extracellular sodium helps maintain cell volume and
resting membrane potential, but it is not the primary determinant. Activation of voltage-gated
sodium channels helps initiate an action potential. Channels are not linked to an energy
source; ions flow passively across the cell membrane.
6. An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
a. hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
b. make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
c. hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
d. alter the threshold potential.
ANS: C
An increase in extracellular potassium hypopolarizes the cell (makes it less negative) because
more K+ ions stay inside the cell owing to the reduced concentration gradient.
Hyperpolarization of the resting membrane potential (makes it more negative) is caused by a
decrease in extracellular potassium. Hyperpolarization resulting from a decrease in
extracellular potassium makes it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action
potential. The threshold for action potential does not change with a change in extracellular
potassium.
7. GTP-binding proteins (G-proteins) function to
a. activate receptors on the extracellular surface.
b. degrade second-messenger molecules.
c. activate intracellular enzyme systems.
d. synthesize ATP.
ANS: C
G-proteins activate specific target enzymes within the cell and these enzymes then produce
second-messenger molecules that trigger specific intracellular function. Membrane-bound
G-protein channels are a component of the cell membrane; they do not activate other receptors
on the extracellular surface. G-proteins do not degrade second messengers, but instead
produce these. G-proteins do not synthesize ATP.
9 | P a g e8. Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers because they are
a. polar.
b. charged.
c. insoluble.
d. amphipathic.
ANS: D
Phospholipids have a hydrophilic (water-loving) polar end and a hydrophobic (water-fearing)
polar end. This amphipathic nature causes the lipids to form bilayers. It is the water-loving
and water-fearing nature of the end rather than simply being polar, charged, or insoluble that
forms the bilayers.
9. Cell-to-cell communication through secretion of chemical signals into the bloodstream to
target cells throughout the body is called
signaling.
a. synaptic
b. paracrine
c. endocrine
d. autocrine
ANS: C
Endocrine signaling is accomplished by specialized endocrine cells that secrete hormones that
travel via the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body. Synaptic signaling occurs at
specialized junctions between the nerve cell and its target cell; the neuron secretes a chemical
neurotransmitter into a small space between the nerve and target cell. In paracrine signaling,
chemicals are secreted into a localized area, and only those cells in the immediate area are
affected. Autocrine signaling occurs when cells respond to signaling molecules that they
secrete and provides feedback to that cell rather than other cells.
10. Ribosomes are very important organelles within the cell that have the function of
a. detoxifying substances.
b. synthesizing proteins.
c. converting energy to forms that can be used.
d. coding for protein synthesis.
ANS: B
Ribosome’s primary function is the synthesis of proteins. Lysosomes and peroxisomes
detoxify substances. Mitochondria convert energy to forms that can be used to drive cell
reactions. The nucleus contains genomic DNA that codes for protein synthesis.
11. The cardiac drug digitalis enhances myocardial contraction because it
a. increases intracellular calcium level in cardiac cells.
b. inhibits sodium from entering cardiac cells.
c. enhances the sodium–potassium pump.
d. increases the sodium gradient across the cell membrane.
ANS: A
Digitalis inhibits the sodium–potassium pump and allows the accumulation of intracellular
sodium, decreasing the sodium gradient across the cell membrane. This leads to less efficient
calcium removal by the sodium-dependent calcium pump. Increased calcium inside the
cardiac cell leads to more forceful cardiac muscle contraction to treat congestive heart failure
caused by cardiac muscle weakness.
12. The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP
is the
a. mitochondria.
b. ribosome.
c. lysosome.
10 | P a g ed. nucleus.
ANS: A
The inner membrane of the mitochondria contains many enzymes that promote oxidative
phosphorylation which produces ATP. Ribosomes synthesize proteins. Lysosomes and
peroxisomes detoxify substances. The nucleus contains genomic DNA that codes for protein
synthesis.
13. Ion channels open and close in response to all the following except
a. mechanical pressure.
b. ligand binding.
c. voltage changes.
d. temperature changes.
ANS: D
No temperature change channels are present on the cell membrane. Mechanically gated
channels respond to mechanical deformation. Ligand-gated channels respond to the binding of
a signaling molecule (neurotransmitter or hormone). Voltage-gated channels respond to a
change in membrane potential.
14. Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to
the next and are especially important for
a. distance signaling.
b. tissues requiring synchronized function.
c. communication within a cell.
d. passage of large molecules.
ANS: B
Gap junctions are especially important in tissues in which synchronized functions are required
such as in cardiac muscle contraction. Gap junctions are channels between adjacent cells, not
distant cells. Gap junctions function to promote communication not within a cell, but between
adjacent cells. Gap junctions allow passage of small molecules, but not large molecules.
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which of the statements regarding cellular growth and proliferation are true? (Select all that
apply.)
a. Dormant cells can remain in the G2 phase indefinitely.
b. Duplication of DNA occurs in the S phase.
c. There are six stages of the M phase.
d. Proliferation of cells is partly dependent on available space.
e. Mitosis involves significant chromosomal rearrangement.
ANS: B, C, D
Duplication of DNA occurs in the S phase. The M phase consists of 6 stages. Two strategies of
cell cycle control occur, one of which includes cell response to spatial signals from the
extracellular matrix and neighboring cells that indicate how much room is available. Dormant
cells can remain in the G1 phase indefinitely. Significant chromosomal rearrangement occurs
is meiosis.
2. Which of the following correctly match intracellular organelles to their functions? (Select all
that apply.)
a. Cytoskeleton: Provides a rigid boundary against cellular invasion.
b. Nucleus: Holds the cell’s genetic material and directs cell activity.
c. Golgi apparatus: Arranges the lipid bilayer according to polarity.
d. Lysosomes: Digests organic waste materials.
e. Mitochondria: Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.
11 | P a g eANS: B, D, E
The cell’s nucleus holds the cell’s genetic material and directs daily cellular activity.
Lysosomes, along with peroxisomes, perform the task of intracellular digestion of organic
waste. Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP. The cytoskeleton organizes
the intracellular compartment. The Golgi apparatus produces, packages, and transports
proteins and lipids to the plasma membrane and lysosomes.
3. Which of the following are correct regarding membrane transport of macromolecules? (Select
all that apply.)
a. Endocytosis refers to the cellular ingestion of extracellular molecules.
b. Pinocytosis is the ingestion of large particles such as microorganisms.
c. Clatharin-mediated endocytosis starts with a pit formation in the plasma
membranes.
d. Exocytosis involves packaging substances and secreting them.
e. Transporter proteins are an important component of macromolecule transport.
ANS: A, C, D
Endocytosis refers to cellular ingestion of extracellular molecules. Clatharin-mediated
endocytosis begins at the cell surface by the formation of an indentation, or pit, in the plasma
membrane. Exocytosis is the reverse of endocytosis and occurs when substances that are
secreted from the cell are packaged in membrane-bound vesicles and travel to the inner
surface of the plasma membrane. Pinocytosis is the method of ingesting fluids and small
particles. Transporter proteins are used to transport small water-soluble molecules.
Chapter 04: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed
a. atrophy.
b. hypertrophy.
c. metaplasia.
d. inflammation.
ANS: B
Increased function of an organ such as the heart or skeletal muscle results in organ
hypertrophy because of cellular enlargement. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of an organ
because of cellular shrinkage. Metaplasia refers to replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another. Inflammation results from immune response rather than workload.
2. Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular
a. atrophy.
b. death.
c. proliferation.
d. mutation.
ANS: B
Apoptosis results in death of a cell when it is no longer needed. Atrophy refers to reduction in
size of an organ because of cellular shrinkage. Proliferation refers to growth of new cells.
Mutation refers to alteration in the genetic structure of cellular DNA.
3. All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except
a. necrosis.
b. metaplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. hyperplasia.
ANS: A
Necrosis refers to death of cells/tissue and is not reversible. Metaplasia refers to the
12 | P a g ereplacement of one differentiated cell type with another from persistent injury and is
reversible when the injury stops. Atrophy occurs because of lack of use of an organ and is
reversible. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells from increased physiologic
demands or hormonal stimulation and is reversible.
4. Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces
a. coagulative
b. caseous
c. liquefactive
d. fat
ANS: C
Liquefactive necrosis is produced when brain tissue dies, as it is rich in enzymes and has little
connective tissue. Coagulative necrosis occurs from ischemic injury in any tissue. Caseous
necrosis occurs in lung tissue damaged by tuberculosis. Fat necrosis occurs in adipose (fat)
tissue.
5. The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
a. hydropic swelling.
b. lactate production.
c. metaplasia.
d. intracellular accumulations.
ANS: D
Intracellular accumulations result from faulty metabolism of lipids, carbohydrates, glycogen,
and proteins. Hydropic swelling results from malfunction of the sodium-potassium pump.
Lactate production results from anaerobic glycolytic pathway. Metaplasia occurs from
persistent cell injury.
6. Metaplasia is
a. the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
b. the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
c. an irreversible cellular adaptation.
d. the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
ANS: A
Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another secondary to
persistent damage. Dysplasia transforms cells to preneoplastic lesions, which may become
malignant. Metaplasia is reversible when the damage is stopped. Disorganization of cells into
various sizes, shapes, and arrangements occurs in dysplasia.
7. The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is
a. anaplasia.
b. dysplasia.
c. metaplasia.
d. hyperplasia.
ANS: B
Dysplastic cells have the potential to become cancerous and are therefore referred to as
preneoplastic. Anaplasia, metaplasia, and hyperplasia are not considered preneoplastic.
8. Somatic death refers to death
a. of a body organ.
b. of the entire organism.
c. of nerve cells.
d. secondary to brain damage.
ANS: B
13 | P a g e
necrosis.Somatic death refers to death of an entire organism. Somatic death is not simply death of one body organ. Somatic death involves death of all cells in the body. Brain death refers to death of the brain only, but organ systems can remain living with mechanical assistance. [Show Less]