Question 1
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Golden rice is golden in color because it is rich in
Select one:
a. chromium
... [Show More] picolinate
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin C
d. beta carotene
Question 2
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Which of the following statements about DNA technology is false?
Select one:
a. DNA technology is now used to mass-produce human insulin
b. DNA technology is now used to create cells that can identify and kill cancer cells
c. DNA technology is now used to mass-produce human growth hormone
d. DNA technology is now used to produce vaccines that are harmless mutants of a pathogen
Question 3
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What is the smallest number of cells needed to perform a successful DNA profile?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 200
c. 1,000
d. 20
Question 4
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Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their
Select one:
a. solubility in the gel
b. size
c. nucleotide sequence
d. ability to bind to mRNA
Question 5
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Restriction enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of DNA called
Select one:
a. short terminal repeats
b. sticky ends
c. restriction sites
d. promoter sequences
Question 6
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The only recombinant cells that can correctly attach sugars to proteins to form glycoprotein products
are
Select one:
a. algal cells
b. E. coli cells
c. mammalian cells
d. yeast cells
Question 7
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Approximately what percentage of human DNA is noncoding?
Select one:
a. 79%b. 99.9%
c. 98.5%
d. 49%
Question 8
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The ________ approach to gene cloning employs a mixture of fragments from the entire genome of
an organism and results in the production of thousands of different recombinant plasmids.
Select one:
a. shotgun
b. Ti
c. AK 47
d. V protein
Question 9
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The feature of sticky ends that makes them especially useful in DNA recombination is their ability to
Select one:
a. allow plasmids to attach to the main bacterial chromosome
b. bind to DNA and thereby activate transcription
c. bind to ribosomes and thereby activate translationd. form hydrogen-bonded base pairs with complementary single stranded stretches of DNA
Question 10
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DNA ligase binds
Select one:
a. exons together
b. polymerase to the promotor
c. nucleotides together
d. an intron to an exon
Question 11
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
An enzyme, essential for DNA replication, that catalyzes the
covalent bonding of adjacent DNA polynucleotide strands
Answer 1
The direct manipulation of genes for practical purposes
Answer 2
Methods used to study and/or manipulate DNA Answer 3
DNA ligase
Genetic engineering
DNA technologyThe production of multiple copies of a gene
Answer 4
A DNA molecule carrying nucleotide sequences derived from
two or more sources
Answer 5
In molecular biology, a piece of DNA, usually a plasmid or a
viral genome, that is used to move genes from one cell to
another
Answer 6
Question 12
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
A technique for separating and purifying
macromolecules, either DNAs or proteins.
Answer 1
A procedure that analyzes DNA samples to determine
if they came from the same individual
Answer 2
A technique used to obtain many copies of a DNA
molecule or a specific part of a DNA molecule
Answer 3
Short, artificially created, single-stranded DNA
molecules that bind to each end of a target sequence
during a PCR procedure
Answer 4
The study of whole sets of genes and their interactions Answer 5
DNA technology
Gene cloning
Recombinant DNA
Vector
Gel electrophoresis
DNA profiling
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Primers
GenomicsA treatment for a disease in which the patient’s
defective gene is supplemented or altered
Answer 6
Question 13
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The number of proteins in humans
Select one:
a. is approximately equal to the number of genes
b. is less than half the number of genes
c. is much greater than the number of genes
d. cannot be determined because the human genome is too complex
Question 14
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The polymerase chain reaction relies upon unusual, heat-resistant ________ that were isolated from
bacteria living in hot springs.
Select one:
a. restriction enzymes
b. plasmids
c. DNA polymerase molecules
Genomics
Gene therapyd. phages
Question 15
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A vaccine works by
Select one:
a. inhibiting bacterial replication
b. stimulating the immune system
c. preventing the translation of mRNA
d. inhibiting viral replication
Question 16
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After DNA fragments with matching sticky ends are temporarily joined by complementary base
pairing, the union can be made permanent by the pasting enzyme
Select one:
a. DNA ligase
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA helicase
d. covalentase
Question 17
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Which of the following has not been a significant issue in the creation of genetically modified
organisms?
Select one:
a. the fact that rogue microbes might transfer dangerous genes into other organisms
b. the fact that some plants carrying genes from other species might represent a threat to the
environment
c. the fact that the protein products of transplanted genes might lead to allergic reactions
d. the fact that GM organisms cannot be modified to prevent them from reproducing once they pass
beyond the experimental stage
Question 18
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Which of the following genetically modified organisms has not been developed by genetic
engineers?
Select one:
a. Transgenic pig with a roundworm gene that allows them to make more omega-3 fatty acids
b. Transgenic salmon with a growth hormone gene that allows them to grow more quickly
c. Transgenic rice with genes for milk proteins
d. Transgenic corn with the gene for human insulin
Question 19
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Which of the following statements regarding repetitive DNA is false?
Select one:
a. Repetitive DNA is usually repeated multiple times in the genome
b. Repetitive DNA is identical in all humans
c. Repetitive DNA can show great variation among individuals
d. Repetitive DNA is usually found between genes
Question 20
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Which of the following statements about nucleic acid probes is false?
Select one:
a. A nucleic acid probe binds to a complementary sequence in the gene of interest
b. A nucleic acid probe is usually labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to help identify
its location
c. A nucleic acid probe can be used to find a specific gene
d. A nucleic acid probe is a double-stranded section of DNA
Question 21
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A nucleic acid probe is
Select one:
a. an enzyme that locates a specific restriction site on RNA
b. a piece of radioactively labeled DNA that is used to locate a specific gene
c. a plasmid that recognizes a specific DNA sequence
d. a virus that transfers DNA to a recipient cell
Question 1
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The coding regions of a gene are called
Select one:
a. exons
b. redundant coding sections
c. introns
d. proto oncogenes
Question 2
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Which of the following statements about fruit fly development is false?
Select one:a. Homeotic genes regulate batteries of other genes that direct the anatomical identity of body parts
b. One of the earliest development events is the determination of the head and tail ends of the egg
c. Cascades of gene expression routinely direct fruit fly development
d. The location of the head and tail ends of the egg is primarily determined by the location of sperm
entry during fertilization
Question 3
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A technique in which the nucleus of one cell is placed into
another cell that already has a nucleus or in which the nucleus
has been previously destroyed
Answer 1
to produce genetically identical copies of a cell, organism, or
DNA molecule
Answer 2
A glass slide carrying thousands of different kinds of singlestranded DNA fragments arranged in an array.
Answer 3
Cell in the early animal embryo that differentiates during
development to give rise to all the different kinds of
specialized cells in the body
Answer 4
A cancer-causing agent, either high-energy radiation or a
chemical
Answer 5
The regrowth of body parts from pieces of an organism
Answer 6
Nuclear transplantation
Clone
DNA microarray
Embryonic stem cells
Carcinogens
RegenerationQuestion 4
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Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells use ________ to turn certain genes on or off.
Select one:
a. intron segments
b. RNA transcriptase
c. nucleosome packing
d. proteins
Question 5
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Enhancers are
Select one:
a. DNA sequences to which activator proteins bind
b. required to facilitate the binding of DNA polymerases
c. required to turn on gene expression when transcription factors are in short supply
d. adjacent to the gene that they regulate
Question 6
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The lac operon in E. coli
Select one:
a. coordinates the production of tryptophan-utilizing enzymes when it is present
b. regulates the rate of binary fission
c. allows the bacterium to resist antibiotics in the penicillin family
d. prevents lactose-utilizing enzymes from being expressed when lactose is absent from the
environment
Question 7
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Which of the following statements about microarrays is false?
Select one:
a. Microarrays use fluorescently labeled cDNA molecules to identify particular genes expressed at a
particular time
b. Microarrays are used to determine which genes are active in different tissues or in tissues of
different states of health
c. Microarrays enable scientists to determine the activity of thousands of genes at once
d. Microarrays use tiny portions of double-stranded RNA fragments from a large number of
genes
Question 8
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All of the following mechanisms are used to regulate protein production except
Select one:
a. the breakdown of mRNA
b. DNA editing
c. protein breakdown
d. protein activation
Question 9
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In female mammals, the inactive X chromosome in each cell
Select one:
a. can be activated if mutations occur in the active X chromosome
b. becomes a Barr body
c. is broken down, and its nucleotides are degraded and reused
d. is absorbed and used in energy production
Question 10
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Which of the following statements regarding cancer risk factors is false?
Select one:
a. X rays and ultraviolet radiation are two of the most potent carcinogens
b. Factors that alter DNA and make cells cancerous are called carcinogens
c. Mutagens are usually not carcinogens
d. Eating 20 to 30 grams of plant fiber daily and reducing the intake of animal fat can reduce your
risk of developing colon cancer
Question 11
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To initiate a signal transduction pathway, a signal binds to a receptor protein usually located in the
Select one:
a. nucleus
b. ER
c. cytoplasm
d. plasma membrane
Question 12
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The cloning of Dolly the sheep
Select one:a. demonstrated that the nuclei from differentiated mammalian cells can retain their full genetic
potential
b. demonstrated that differentiated cells contain only a fraction of their full genetic potential
c. revealed that cloned mammals most resemble the egg donor
d. demonstrated, for the first time, that eggs are haploid and body cells are diploid
Question 13
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The expression of the tryptophan operon is controlled by
Select one:
a. a repressor that is active when it binds to tryptophan
b. a repressor that is inactive when it binds to lactose
c. an activator that turns the operon on by binding to DNA
d. a repressor that is active when it is alone
Question 14
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The lac operon of E. coli is ________ when the repressor is bound to lactose
Select one:
a. inactive
b. activec. cloned
d. unregulated
Question 15
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Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to normal cells becoming cancerous?
Select one:
a. damage to a tumor suppressor gene
b. one or more of the cells genes being removed by a virus
c. excessive replication of proto oncogenes
d. the conversion of a proto oncogene to an oncogene
Question 16
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The term gene expression refers to the
Select one:
a. process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins
b. fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes
c. fact that individuals of the same species have different phenotypes
d. flow of information from parent to offspring
Question 17
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA packing is false?
Select one:
a. Highly compacted chromatin is generally not expressed at all
b. DNA packing tends to promote gene expression
c. A nucleosome consists of DNA wound around a protein core of eight histone molecules
d. Prokaryotes have proteins analogous to histones
Question 18
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Cancer of the colon is caused by
Select one:
a. a single gene mutation
b. exposure of colon cells to a mutagen
c. the proto oncogene, lac
d. several somatic cell mutations
Question 19
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Signal transduction pathways
Select one:
a. are found strictly in multicellular organisms, which require cell to cell communication
b. are mechanisms of communication that probably evolved in ancient prokaryotes
c. originally evolved in vertebrates
d. are limited for use in sexual identification
Question 20
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A type of regulation at the RNA-processing level in which
different mRNA molecules are produced from the same
primary transcript, depending on which RNA segments are
treated as exons and which as introns
Answer 1
In female mammals, the inactivation of one X-chromosome in
each somatic cell
Answer 2
The process whereby genetic information flows from genes to
proteins
Answer 3
In the eukaryotic cell, a protein that functions in initiating or
regulating transcription.
Answer 4
The turning on and off of genes within a cell in response to
environmental stimuli or other factors
Answer 5
Alternative RNA splicing
X chromosome inactivation
Gene Expression
Transcription factors
Gene RegulationA dense body formed from a deactivated X chromosome
found in the nuclei of female mammalian cells
Answer 6
Question 21
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Mutations in the p53 gene can lead to cancer by
Select one:
a. increasing the production of growth hormones, which trigger faster cell cycles
b. causing the production of excessive amounts of relay proteins
c. promoting the expression of mRNA that can interact with DNA, resulting in new mutations
d. causing the production of a faulty protein that is no longer able to inhibit cell division
Question 1
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Conjugation, transformation, and transduction are all ways that bacteria
Select one:
a. increase their genetic diversity
b. alter their oxygen requirements
c. reduce their DNA content
Barr bodyd. increase the amount of RNA in the cytoplasm
Question 2
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In the 1920s, Frederick Griffith conducted an experiment in which he mixed the dead cells of a
bacterial strain that can cause pneumonia with live cells of a bacterial strain that cannot. When he
cultured the live cells, some of the daughter colonies proved able to cause pneumonia. Which of the
following processes of bacterial DNA transfer does this experiment demonstrate?
Select one:
a. transduction
b. conjugation
c. transformation
d. transposition
Question 3
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Which of the following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis
of a cellular component?
Select one:
a. RNA to DNA to RNA to protein
b. protein to RNA to DNA
c. DNA to tRNA to mRNA to protein
d. DNA to RNA to proteinQuestion 4
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How do viroids harm the plants that are infected with them?
Select one:
a. by destroying the root system
b. by increasing the plants metabolic rate
c. by reducing the plants' seed production
d. by altering the plants' growth
Question 5
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Which of the following human activities has contributed to an increase in the number of bacteria
having R plasmids?
Select one:
a. improper use of restriction enzymes in research and medical facilities
b. heavy use of antibiotics in medicine and in agriculture
c. increased carcinogen exposure from excessive fossil fuel burning
d. nitrogen fixation by genetically engineered plants
Question 6
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Which of the following occurs when RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter DNA?
Select one:
a. initiation of a new RNA molecule
b. initiation of a new polypeptide chain
c. elongation of the growing RNA molecule
d. termination of the RNA molecule
Question 7
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Which of the following enzymes does HIV use to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?
Select one:
a. RNA polymerase
b. ligase
c. DNA convertase
d. reverse transcriptase
Question 8
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
A double-stranded helical nucleic acid molecule consisting of
nucleotide monomers with deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogenous
bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine.
Answer 1
The study of the molecular basis of genes and gene expression
Answer 2
The form of native DNA, referring to its two adjacent
polynucleotide strands interwound into a spiral shape
Answer 3
A virus that infects bacteria; also called a phage
Answer 4
Type of DNA replication in which the replicated double
helix consists of one old strand, derived from the old
molecule, and one newly made strand.
Answer 5
A building block of nucleic acids, consisting of fivecarbon sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base
and one or more phosphate groups
Answer 6
Question 9
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Which of the following features characterizes the lytic cycle of a viral infection?
Select one:
a. The cycle typically ends when the host bacterium divides
b. The cycle typically leads to the lysis of the host cell
DNA
Molecular Biology
Double helix
Bacteriophages
Semiconservative model
Nucleotidesc. The virus reproduces outside of the host cell
d. The viral genes typically remain inactive once they are inside the host cell
Question 10
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Which of the following statements about the treatment or prevention for a prion infection is true?
Select one:
a. High doses of anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen reduce the symptoms of prion infections
b. Antibiotic therapies such as penicillin are very effective cures
c. There is no known treatment or cure for prion infections
d. Preventative vaccines have recently been shown to be effective in preventing prion infections
Question 11
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Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linking together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?
Select one:
a. a ribozyme
b. tRNA
c. RNA polymerase
d. RNA ligase
Question 12
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Which of the following statements is false?
Select one:
a. During the first step of initiation, an mRNA molecule binds to a small ribosomal subunit
b. An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries
c. Translation consists of initiation, elongation, and termination
d. During polypeptide initiation, an mRNA, the first amino acid attached to its tRNA, and the two
subunits of a ribosome are brought together
Question 13
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Which of the following takes place during translation?
Select one:
a. the conversion of genetic information from the language of nucleic acids to the language of
proteins
b. the conversion of genetic information from DNA nucleotides into RNA nucleotides
c. DNA replication
d. the conversion of genetic information from the language of proteins to the language of enzymes
Question 14
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We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence ending with a stop codon will direct the production
of a polypeptide that consists of
Select one:
a. 5 amino acids
b. 3 amino acids
c. 2 amino acids
d. 4 amino acids
Question 15
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Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called
Select one:
a. a mutagen
b. an anticodon
c. a base substitution
d. a mutation
Question 16
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Which of the following statements about eukaryotic RNA is true?
Select one:
a. The modified RNA molecule is transported into the nucleus
b. Exons are spliced together
c. Introns are added to the RNA
d. A small cap of extra nucleotides is added to both ends of the RNA
Question 17
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
Any nucleotide sequence encoded by a gene that remains present within the final
mature RNA product of that gene after introns have been removed by RNA
splicing.
Answer 1
A change in the nucleotide sequence of an organisms DNA
Answer 2
A specific nucleotide sequence in DNA located near the start of a
gene that is binding site for RNA polymerase and the place where
transcriptions begin
Answer 3
A special sequence of nucleotides in DNA that marks the end of a gene
Answer 4
The type of ribonucleic acid that encodes genetic information
from DNA and conveys it to ribosomes, where the information is
translated into amino acid sequences
Answer 5
An intron is any nucleotide sequence within a gene that is Answer 6
Exons
Mutations
Promoter
Terminator
mRNA
Intronsremoved by RNA splicing while the final mature RNA product of
a gene is being generated
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Match the following definitions to the correct term.
The synthesis of RNA on a DNA template
Answer 1
A large molecular complex that assembles DNA nucleotides
into polynucleotides using a preexisting strand of DNA as a
template
Answer 2
An enzyme, essential for DNA replication, that catalyzes the covalent
bonding of adjacent DNA polynucleotide strands.
Answer 3
A three nucleotide sequence in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid
or polypeptide termination signal
Answer 4
A large molecule complex that links together the growing
chain of RNA nucleotides during transcription, using a DNA
strand as a template
Answer 5
The set of rules that dictates the correspondence between
RNA codons in an mRNA molecule and amino acids in
protein
Answer 6
Question 19
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Introns
Transcription
DNA Polymerases
DNA ligase
Codons
RNA polymerase
Genetic codeFlag question
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Which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?
Select one:
a. DNA molecules have a sugar-phosphate backbone
b. One DNA molecule can include four different nucleotides in its structure
c. DNA uses the sugar deoxyribose
d. DNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil
Question 1
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The expressed traits of an organism
Answer 1
The allele that determines the phenotype of a gene when the
individual is heterozyguous for that gene
Answer 2
An allele that has no noticeable effect on the phenotype of a gene
when the individual is heterozygous for that gene
Answer 3
The genetic makeup of an organism Answer 4
Genotype
Phenotype
Recessive
GenotypeHave two different alleles for a given gene
Answer 5
Having two identical allele’s for a given gene
Answer 6
Question 2
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Using a six sided die, what is the probability of rolling either a 5 or a 6?
Select one:
a. 1/6
b. 1/6 plus 1/6 equals 1/3
c. 1/6 plus 1/6 equals 2/3
d. 1/6 × 1/6 equals 1/36
Question 3
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A color blind woman marries a man who is not color blind. All of their sons, but none of their
daughters, are color blind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results?
Select one:
Genotype
Heterozygous
Homozygousa. The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome
b. The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination
c. The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination
d. The gene for color vision is found on the Y chromosome
Question 4
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Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is false?
Select one:
a. Genetic testing before birth requires the collection of fetal cells
b. The screening of newborns can catch inherited disorders right after birth
c. Carrier testing helps determine if a person carries a potentially harmful disorder
d. Most human genetic diseases are treatable if caught early
Question 5
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Sickle cell disease is an example of
Select one:
a. Multiple alleles and pleiotropy
b. Multiple alleles, pleiotropy, and blended inheritance
c. Codominance and pleiotropyd. Codominance and multiple alleles
Question 6
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Recessive X linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly
because
Select one:
a. the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations
b. the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome
c. males are haploid
d. the males phenotype results entirely from his single X linked gene
Question 7
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Which of the following kinds of data could be used to map the relative position of three genes on a
chromosome?
Select one:
a. the frequencies with which the corresponding traits occur together in offspring
b. the frequencies of mutations in the genes
c. the frequencies with which the genes exhibit incomplete dominance over each other
d. the frequencies with which the genes are inherited from the mother and from the father
Question 8
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Mendels law of independent assortment states that
Select one:
a. Chromosomes sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis
b. Independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances
c. Each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete
formation
d. Genes are sorted concurrently during gamete formation
Question 9
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Which of the following statements regarding hypotheses about inheritance is false?
Select one:
a. The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother
or the father
b. The blending hypothesis does not explain how traits that disappear in one generation can
reappear in later generations
c. Contrary to the theory of pangenesis, somatic cells do not influence eggs or sperm
d. The theory of pangenesis incorrectly suggests that reproductive cells receive particles from
somatic cells
Question 10
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A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of
Select one:
a. Codominance
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Pleiotropy
d. Incomplete dominance
Question 11
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A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to
transmit it to offspring.
Select one:
a. Heterozygous for the trait and able
b. Homozygous for the trait and unable
c. Homozygous for the trait and able
d. Heterozygous for the trait and unable
Question 12
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A monohybrid cross is
Select one:
a. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one character
b. The second generation of a self fertilized plant
c. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one prominent trait
d. A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common
Question 13
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Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is false?
Select one:
a. Sickle cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle shaped
b. Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria
c. About one in ten African Americans is a carrier of sickle cell disease
d. All of the symptoms of sickle cell disease result from the actions of just one allele
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Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch
homozygous for orange beak with a finch homozygous for ivory beak and get numerous offspring, all
of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an
example ofSelect one:
a. Incomplete dominance
b. Polygenic inheritance
c. Pleiotropy
d. Codominance
Question 15
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The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
Select one:
a. Humans have 46 chromosomes
b. The behavior of chromosomes during mitosis accounts for inheritance patterns
c. The behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of
inheritance
d. Chromosomes that exhibit mutations are the source of genetic variation
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Which of the following statements best represents the theory of pangenesis developed by
Hippocrates?
Select one:a. Particles called pangenes, which originate in each part of an organism's body, collect in the sperm
or eggs and are passed on to the next generation
b. Pregnancy is a spontaneous event, and the characteristics of the offspring are determined by the
gods
c. Heritable traits are influenced by the environment and the behaviors of the parents
d. Offspring inherit the traits of either the mother or the father, but not both
Question 17
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What is meant by the statement that male bees are fatherless?
Select one:
a. The queen bee's mate dies before the male eggs hatch
b. Male bees don't play a role in the rearing of bee young
c. Male bees are produced by budding
d. Male bees develop from unfertilized eggs
Question 18
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A testcross is
Select one:
a. A mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest
b. A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait
of interestc. A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for
the trait of interest
d. A mating between two individuals of unknown genotype
Question 19
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The mechanism that "breaks" the linkage between linked genes is
Select one:
a. crossing over
b. codominance
c. independent assortment
d. pleiotropy
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
The transmission of traits from one generation to the next
Answer 1
A variant of a character found within a population, such as purple or
white flowers in pea plants.
Answer 2
Heredity
TraitReferring to organisms for which sexual reproduction produces offspring
with inherited traits identical to those of the parents. The organisms are
homozygous for the characteristics under consideration
Answer 3
An offspring of parents of two different species or of two different
varieties of one species; an offspring of two parents that differ in one or
more inherited traits; an individual that is heterozygous for one or more
pairs of genes
Answer 4
The scientific study of heredity.
Answer 5
An alternative version of a gene
Answer 6
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Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it
can be tested for abnormalities.
Select one:
a. Direct observation, biochemical testing
b. Sexing, imaging
c. Imaging, karyotyping
d. Karyotyping, biochemical testing
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True breeding
Hybrids
Genetics
AlleleFlag question
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Female inheritance patterns cannot be analyzed by simply studying the X chromosome because
Select one:
a. the X chromosome sometimes exchanges genetic information with the Y chromosome
b. the X chromosome is too large to analyze effectively
c. the X chromosome is obtained from both father and mother
d. one X chromosome is deactivated in females
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Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies
are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA
(progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
Select one:
a. The alleles for color and vision segregate dependently during gamete formation
b. The alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation
c. The same alleles that control coat color can also cause PRA
d. Both of the parents are homozygous for both traits
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DNA ligase binds
Select one:
a. exons together
b. polymerase to the promotor
c. nucleotides together
d. an intron to an exon
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Dr. Smiths parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness.
Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this
locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following
genotypes?
Select one:
a. Dd and Dd
b. Or dd and dd
c. DD and ddd. Dd and DD
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When DNA from two sources is combined into one single piece of DNA, it is known as
Select one:
a. recombinant DNA
b. a vector
c. cloned DNA
d. a plasmid
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Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are
referred to as
Select one:
a. True breeding
b. Monohybrid crossesc. The F2 generation
d. Hybrids
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miRNA can be used by
Select one:
a. researchers to induce the production of more mRNA
b. viruses to stop the production of new proteins
c. researchers to artificially turn on gene expression
d. cells to prevent infections from double stranded RNA viruses
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Match the following definitions with the correct term.
Have two different alleles for a given gene
Answer 1
HeterozygousAn allele that has no noticeable effect on the phenotype of a gene
when the individual is heterozygous for that gene
Answer 2
Having two identical allele’s for a given gene
Answer 3
The expressed traits of an organism
Answer 4
The genetic makeup of an organism
Answer 5
The allele that determines the phenotype of a gene when the
individual is heterozyguous for that gene
Answer 6
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What is the preferred name of the technique used to determine if DNA comes from a particular
individual?
Select one:
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. DNA outline
Recessive
Homozygous
Phenotype
Genotype
Dominantc. DNA profiling
d. DNA scrutiny
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Which of the following human activities has contributed to an increase in the number of bacteria
having R plasmids?
Select one:
a. nitrogen fixation by genetically engineered plants
b. heavy use of antibiotics in medicine and in agriculture
c. increased carcinogen exposure from excessive fossil fuel burning
d. improper use of restriction enzymes in research and medical facilities
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Sickle cell disease is an example of
Select one:
a. Codominance and multiple allelesb. Codominance and pleiotropy
c. Multiple alleles, pleiotropy, and blended inheritance
d. Multiple alleles and pleiotropy [Show Less]