Question 1 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner knows that a highly valuable
assessment tool for evaluating urinary incontinence and
contributing
... [Show More] factors in daily life is:
Question 1 options:
A) the interview
B) a voiding diary
C) the physical exam
D) the patient's response to non-pharmacologic treatments
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Question 2 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is counseling a 57 year-old patient
with urinary incontinence. The patient desires to try nonpharmacological, non-invasive methods of treatment at
this time. Which of the following should be included in the
patient's plan of care? Select all that apply.
Question 2 options:
Bladder training
Kegel exercises
Eliminate caffeine and alcohol consumption
Use of bulking agents
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Question 3 (2.5 points)The nurse practitioner is performing a bimanual exam on
a new OB patient and notices that the lower portion of
the patient’s uterus is soft. This is known as:
Question 3 options:
A) Hegar's Sign
B) Chadwick's Sign
C) Nightingale's Sign
D) Goodell's Sign
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Question 4 (2.5 points)
Your female patient presents for vaginal discharge with
an odor, and has noticed painless “bumps” on her vaginal
area. Sexual history includes past male partners and her
current female partner. On exam you note beefy red
papules and an ulcerative lesion on her vulva, granular
tissue and scarring, and inguinal adenopathy. You suspect
she has:
Question 4 options:
A) HSV-2
B) Granuloma Inguinale
C) Chancroid
D) Molluscum Contagiosum
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Question 5 (2.5 points)The physical examination of any woman suspected of
being abused or battered includes all of the
following except:
Question 5 options:
A) a thorough inspection for signs of injury, past and present
B) a physical assessment just like that of any other adult female
C) a focus on the patient's physical appearance, not her behavior
D) the use of body maps and diagrams to accurately portray the patient's physical condition
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Question 6 (2.5 points)
The most effective means of obtaining the history of
abuse is to use a communication model that:
Question 6 options:
A) avoids having the patient's children present during the discussion
B) signals someone is interested and that the woman is not alone
C) emphasizes the belief that violence is not acceptable, no matter what the batterer might have said to the patient
D) allows the patient to talk without interruption and with time to relate, emphasize, and repeat her full story
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Question 7 (2.5 points)
Clinicians should routinely consider intimate partment
violence (IPV) as a possible diagnosis for women who
present with all of the following except:Question 7 options:
A) chronic stress-related symptoms
B) denial of any physical health problems
C) central nervous system (CNS) symptoms
D) gynecologic problems, especially multiple ones
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Question 8 (2.5 points)
The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their
sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and
emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual
and other close relationships, make up a woman's:
Question 8 options:
A) sexual health
B) gender identit
C) gender role behaviors
D) psychosocial orientation
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Question 9 (2.5 points)
Which one of the following is not among the ways
clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for
Lesbian, Gay, Bixsexual, or Transgender (LGBT) patients?
Question 9 options:
A) Avoid the heterosexual assumption by using gender-neutral language.B) Explain whether and how information will be documented in the patient's medical record.
C) Ignore the sexual status or gender identity of all patients.
D) Offer mainstream referrals that are culturally sensitive to SGMs.
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Question 10 (2.5 points)
Which one of the following is the defnition of the term
"gender identity"?
Question 10 options:
A) People who respond erotically to both sexes
B) A self-label, regardless of biologic or natal sex
C) People who are similar in age, class, and sexual status
D) A label for behavior not usually associated with one's natal sex
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Question 11 (2.5 points)
Which one of the following statements about sexually
transmitted infections (STIs) is false?
Question 11 options:
A) Lesbians are at very low risk for development of STIs and vaginal infections.
B) HIV has been identified in case studies of women who report sex only with women.
C) Transgender women (Male to Female) have extremely high rates of HIV infection.
D) Risky behaviors for STIs include sex during menses.Save
Question 12 (2.5 points)
Among the midlife health issues of women, the number
one cause of mortality in the United States is:
Question 12 options:
A) primary osteoporosis
B) cardiovascular disease
C) overweight and obesity
D) cancer
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Question 13 (2.5 points)
Lifestyle approaches to manage menopause related
vasomotor symptoms include:
Question 13 options:
A) sleeping more than 8 hours per night
B) avoiding spicy foods, hot drinks, caffeine, and alcohol
C) decreasing levels of physical activity
D) more than 1,000 international units/day of vitamin E
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Question 14 (2.5 points)
The standard for managing moderate to severe
menopausal symptoms is:Question 14 options:
A) lifestyle changes, such as dieting and exercising
B) nonhormone products, such as antidepressant medications
C) alternative care, such as acupuncture, combined with organic herbs
D) prescription systemic hormone products, such as estrogen and progestogen
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Question 15 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is managing an adolescent with a
4 cm functional ovarian cyst that was confrmed on a
recent ultrasound. What plan of care should be
anticipated for this patient?
Question 15 options:
A) Repeat bimanual exam in 1 week
B) Refer for surgical consult
C) Repeat ultrasound in 2 months
D) Stop all ovulatory inhibitor meds
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Question 16 (2.5 points)
Non-pharmacologic therapy for chronic pelvic pain
includes the following: Select all that apply.
Question 16 options:
A) Vitamin B6
B) Physical therapyC) Aerobic and nonaerobic exercise
D) Antidepressants
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Question 17 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that all of the
following organisms are responsible for infection of the
Bartholin's gland except:
Question 17 options:
Streptococcus faecalis
Klebsiella
Staphylococcus aureus
E. Coli
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Question 18 (2.5 points)
Treatment of a large, symptomatic Bartholin's cyst
includes all of the following except:
Question 18 options:
Sitz baths
Incision and drainage
Topical corticosteroids
AntibioticsSave
Question 19 (2.5 points)
A 44 year-old African American female presents with
complaints of menorrhagia x 15 months. Pelvic
ultrasound confrms the presence of a large intramural
leiomyomata. The nurse practitioner should discuss all of
the following options with the patient except:
Question 19 options:
GnRH agonist therapy
Referral for surgical consult
Progestin therapy
Estrogen therapy
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Question 20 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is treating a patient with Elimite
for scabies. The proper instructions to the patient should
include:
Question 20 options:
All household contacts should be treated with Elimite regardless of symptoms.
The medication should be taken orally in one single dose and repeated in 2 weeks.
Apply only to the body area infested with scabies and repeat treatment in 5 days.
Apply to all areas of the body from the neck down, wash off after 8 to 14 hours, then repeat treatment in one week
SaveQuestion 21 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that the proper
management of an asymptomatic woman with a small
fbroid should include:
Question 21 options:
Start combination COC therapy.
Repeat ultrasound in 3-4 months.
Reassess in 6 to 12 months.
Refer for myomectomy.
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Question 22 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is teaching a patient about
pediculosis. Which of the following statements by the
nurse practitioner is correct?
Question 22 options:
Nits can survive in hot and humid climates up to 21 days.”
“Adult pubic lice can survive 72 hours off their host.”
“Pruritus is not a common manifestation.”
“The condition is treated with Permethrin cream.”
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Question 23 (2.5 points)
All of the following medications may be used for
neuropathic pain management of vulvodynia, except:Question 23 options:
Neurontin
SSRIs
Methotrexate
Tricyclics
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Question 24 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that which of the
following lab tests is appropriate for the patient who
presents with symptoms of dysesthetic vulvodynia?
Question 24 options:
RPR
Pap smear
Wet mount
Endometrial biopsy
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Question 25 (2.5 points)
Which of the following is a common antibiotic for
treatment of an infected Bartholin's cyst?
Question 25 options:
Minocycline
LevaquinBactrim
Ampicillin
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Question 26 (2.5 points)
The patient presents with complaints of a painful, swollen
lump in her vaginal area. She reports difculty sitting and
walking due to the pain. Which of the following is a likely
diagnosis for this patient?
Question 26 options:
Syphilis chancre
Lichen Planus
Genital Wart
Bartholin's cyst
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Question 27 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that which of the
following are differential diagnoses in an adult female
patient with acute pelvic pain. Select all that apply:
Question 27 options:
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Appendicitis
C) Ovarian cyst with rupture
D) Pelvic Congestion SyndromeSave
Question 28 (2.5 points)
When women experience mild premenstrual symptoms,
such as mild breast tenderness, abdominal bloating, and
mild weight gain from water retention, this is known as:
Question 28 options:
Luteal phase deficiency
Premenstrual dysmorphic disorder
Premenstrual syndrome
Follicular phase deficiency
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Question 29 (2.5 points)
A patient with intraductal papilloma will commonly
present with a chief complaint of:
Question 29 options:
A palpable mass
Bloody nipple discharge
Bilateral milky discharge
Mild localized pain
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Question 30 (2.5 points)The nurse practitioner understands that the necessary
screening techniques in a patient suspicious of ovarian
cancer should include the following: Select all that apply.
Question 30 options:
CA-125
Transvaginal ultrasound
Bimanual pelvic exam
Pap smear
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Question 31 (2.5 points)
Early symptoms experienced by a woman with ovarian
cancer include all of the following except:
Question 31 options:
Vague abdominal pain
Abdominal bloating
Fatigue
Unexplained weight gain
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Question 32 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient's risk of
ovarian cancer. All of the following factors are associated
with an increased risk for ovarian cancer except:
Question 32 options:
First degree relative with ovarian cancerBRCA -1 and 2 mutations
Obesity
Oral Contraceptive Use
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Question 33 (2.5 points)
Patient education for condylomata acuminata should
include all the following except:
Question 33 options:
The cause of the condition is a virus of the HPV type
Sexual partners should be checked and condoms used to decrease incidence of transmission
Treatment and elimination of visible warts is a sign of cure, and transmission will not occur
The virus does not always cause a lesion, subclinical infection may occur
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Question 34 (2.5 points)
Tina is evaluated and diagnosed with Molluscum
Contagiosum. The nurse practitioner understands that
clinical presentation of this disease is characterized by:
Question 34 options:
Fleshy, papular skin colored lesions with indented centers that contain white curdlike material.
Ulcerated ragged edge lesions that are painful
Clusters of vesicles that itch and are painful to palpationPainless fleshy clusters of growths that resemble grapes or cauliflower
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Question 35 (2.5 points)
Sara is 72 years old and has been a widow for 12 years.
She presents for her yearly well woman exam. Sara has
not been sexually active since age 60. She has had
regular pap screenings in her life and has had no
abnormal pap tests. Sara asks if she needs a Pap test.
Your response would be:
Question 35 options:
Yes, you need a Pap test with HPV testing every 5 years.
Yes, you should have a Pap test every 3 years.
No, you do not need a Pap test or a pelvic exam again, unless you notice a vaginal discharge, have discomforts, or anything
of the ordinary.
No, you do not need a Pap test, but I do recommend we do a pelvic exam to assess for abnormalities.
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Question 36 (2.5 points)
Misty presents with a painful “sores” in her perineal area,
dysuria and dyspareunia. On exam she has 2 shallow
ulcerated lesions on the right labia majora and one on the
left. She also presents with enlarged inguinal lymph
nodes. Based on these fndings you suspect she has:
Question 36 options:
HSV-2
Genital warts
ChancroidSyphilis lesions
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Question 37 (2.5 points)
Which of the following is not true for HIV infection
evaluation?
Question 37 options:
The CDC recommends HIV testing for all persons seeking evaluation for STIs.
HIV evaluation is recommended if a patient has a history of unprotected sex with a previously incarcerated male, an
uncircumcised male, or participates in anal penetration.
If a patient is fearful they have been exposed to HIV, but denies all risk factors, it is not recommended to test for HIV.
Aids is caused by HIV, mainly by sexual contact (anal, vaginal, or oral), contaminated blood and blood products, contamina
semen used for artificial insemination, intrauterine acquisition, and breastmilk.
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Question 38 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that the risk factors
for developing vaginal candidiasis include which of the
following?
Question 38 options:
Hypoglycemia
A diet high in refined sugar
Use of Vit C supplement
A habit of consuming live culture yogurt several times a week
SaveQuestion 39 (2.5 points)
Cindy presents to your clinic for STI testing after realizing
her current boyfriend has been seeing other women. She
states she was told that one of the women has hepatitis
B. Your patient education regarding hepatitis B includes
all the following except:
Question 39 options:
Hepatitis B is transmitted enterically
Hepatitis B has an incubation period of 6 weeks to 6 months
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAG) indicates if the patient has hepatitis B infection
Hepatitis B infection primarily affects the liver
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Question 40 (2.5 points)
Stacy has made an appointment at your clinic for c/o
dysuria. During the HPI she explains, “My bottom hurts
when I pee, and I have bumps there”. She has never had
this before and is worried. She denies fever, although she
feels “a little like I have the flu” explaining she has a
headache and feels achy and tired. She denies exposure
to a STI noting she and her partner have been
monogamous for 6 years. On exam you notice a cluster of
painful vesicles adjacent to the vaginal introitus. The
most likely diagnosis is:
Question 40 options:
Syphilis
Genital HerpesChancroid
Chlamydia
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Question 41 (2.5 points)
You see an 18-year-old woman with a history of
Chlamydia infection and a total of fve lifetime partners.
Based on the latest evidence-based guidelines, you
recommend:
Question 41 options:
Pap smear only
Pap smear with HPV testing
Pap smear and STI testing
STI testing only
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Question 42 (2.5 points)
Karen was recently diagnosed with primary syphilis. The
nurse practitioner understands that the frst-line
treatment option for primary syphilis include:
Question 42 options:
Penicillin
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin
CeftriaxoneSave
Question 43 (2.5 points)
While educating Karen about the different stages of
syphilis, which of the following is not representative of
the presentation of secondary syphilis?
Question 43 options:
generalized rash
chancre
arthralgia
lymphadenopathy
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Question 44 (2.5 points)
Karen was recently diagnosed with primary syphilis by
her primary care provider, she is very upset and inquires
how long after sexual contact do syphilis symptoms
typically occur. What is the correct response by the
primary care provider?
Question 44 options:
3-4 days
1 week
3 weeks
6 weeks
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Previous PageNext Page
Page 1 of 2Question 45 (2.5 points)
Which of the following terms describe the mechanism of
action of Imiquimod (Aldara) in the management of
genital warts?
Question 45 options:
keratolytic
immune modifier
cryogenic
cytolytic
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Question 46 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that HPV types _____
and ____are most often associated with cervical and
anogenital cancer.
Question 46 options:
1, 2, and 3
6 and 11
16 and 18
22 and 24
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Question 47 (2.5 points)Jenna was evaluated and diagnosed with condyloma
acuminatum. Treatment options for Jenna will include all
of the following except:
Question 47 options:
A) Topical acyclovir
B) Cryotherapy
C) Podofilox
D) Tricholoroacetic acid .
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Question 48 (2.5 points)
Which of the following is a treatment option for a 30-yearold woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form
reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin?
Question 48 options:
A) Ofloxacin with metronidazole
B) Amoxicillin with gentamicin
C) Cefixime with vancomycin
D) Clindamycin with azithromycin
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Question 49 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that a complication of
gonoccocal and chlamydial genitourinary infection in
women include which of the following:Question 49 options:
A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Acute pyelonephritis
D) Prostatitis
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Question 50 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that women with PID
typically present with all of the following except:
Question 50 options:
A) Fever
B) Leukopenia
C) Cervical motion tenderness
D) abdominal pain
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Question 51 (2.5 points)
Elizabeth was evaluated and diagnosed with a primary
outbreak of genital herpes in the clinic today. The
treatment plan for Elizabeth will include a prescription
for:
Question 51 options:
A) Ribavirin
B) IndinavirC) Valacyclovir
D) Cyclosporine
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Question 52 (2.5 points)
Elizabeth was recently diagnosed with genital herpes
after having unprotected intercourse with a new partner.
The nurse practitioner explains to Christine that the
incubation period for HSV Type 2 is approximately:
Question 52 options:
A) 4 to 7 days up to 4 weeks
B) 24 hours
C) 24 days
D) 1 to 3 days up to 14 days
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Question 53 (2.5 points)
Kristin returns to the clinic for follow-up on STI results.
The nurse practitioner informs her the Chlamydia test
was positive. Which of the following agents will the nurse
practitioner prescribe for treatment?
Question 53 options:
A) Amoxicillin
B) MetronidazoleC) Azithromycin
D) Tinidazole
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Question 54 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner student is studying the CDC
guidelines for treating sexually transmitted infections.
Which of the following agents is recommended for
Gonorrhea treatment?
Question 54 options:
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Doxycycline
C) Ketoconazole
D) Amoxicillin
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Question 55 (2.5 points)
A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but
states that her male partner has dysuria without penile
discharge. Examination of the woman reveals a friable
cervix with yellow discharge from the cervical os. This
description is most consistent with an infection caused
by: Select all that apply.
Question 55 options:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeaeC) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
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Question 56 (2.5 points)
Karen was diagnosed with trichomoniasis by her primary
care provider and treated with:
Question 56 options:
A) Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days
(If single-dose metronidazole treatment fails and reinfection is excluded, metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 7
days should be prescribed.) this is the correct answer if first treatment doesn’t work
B) Terconazole vaginally Q HS x 5 days
C) Azithromycin 1 gm po x 1 dose
D) Bactrim DS i po Q 12 hours x 3 days
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Question 57 (2.5 points)
A 24-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of
thin, greenish yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal
irritation. Physical examination fndings include vaginal
erythema with petechial hemorrhages on the cervix,
numerous white blood cells, and motile organisms on
microscopic examination. These fndings most likely
represent:
Question 57 options:
A) motile sperm with irritative vaginitis
B) trichomoniasisC) bacterial vaginosis
D) condyloma acuminatum
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Question 58 (2.5 points)
For patients needing topical treatment for vulvovaginitis
caused by Candida albicans, the nurse practitioner will
prescribe:
Question 58 options:
A) metronidazole gel
B) clotrimazole cream
C) hydrocortisone ointment
D) clindamycin cream
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Question 59 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that women with
bacterial vaginosis typically present with:
Question 59 options:
A) vulvitis
B) pruritus
C) dysuriaD) malodorous discharge
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Question 60 (2.5 points)
The U.S. Preventative Services Task Force (USPSTF)
recommends ____________ of folic acid supplement daily at
least one month before conception for all women with
average risk for neural tube defects.
Question 60 options:
A) 8000 mg
B) .4 to .8 mg
C) 4 to 8 mg
D) 4000 mg
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Question 61 (2.5 points)
The American College of Obstetrician &Gynecologists
recommend that all pregnant women be offered
aneuploidy screening before 20 weeks gestation. This
test identifes women whose fetuses are at increased risk
for which of the following? Select all that apply.
Question 61 options:
A) Trisomy 11
B) Trisomy 13
C) Trisomy 18
D) Trisomy 21Save
Question 62 (2.5 points)
An important part of patient education for the patient
with bacterial vaginosis who is receiving a prescription for
oral Metronidazole is:
Question 62 options:
The patient should be treated prophylactically for a yeast infection.
The medication may cause constipation.
Avoid alcohol for 48 hours after completing medication.
The patient's partner will need treatment also.
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Question 63 (2.5 points)
For the patient with chronic bacterial vaginosis, the nurse
practitioner will prescribe:
Question 63 options:
A) Metronidazole 500 mg po weekly for 2 months
B) Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days
C) Metronidazole gel .75% vaginally BID x 5 days
D) Metronidazole gel .75% vaginally 1-2 times a week for 4 to 6 months
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Question 64 (2.5 points)The nurse practitioner's exam fndings on a patient with
vaginal Candidiasis is positive for all of the
following except:
Question 64 options:
A) erythematous vaginal mucosa
B) thick, white, curd-like vaginal discharge
C) vaginal ph of 7
D) hyphae visualized on wet prep
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Question 65 (2.5 points)
A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. Her
last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2017. Using
Nageles Rule, what is the client's expected date of birth
(EDB)?
Question 65 options:
A) September 17, 2017
B) November 7, 2017
C) November 21, 2017
D) December 17, 2017
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Question 66 (2.5 points)
Which documentation on a woman's chart on postpartum
day 14 indicates a normal involution process?Question 66 options:
A) Moderate lochia rubra
B) Breasts soft and symmetrical
C) Fundus below the symphysis pubis and nonpalpable
D) Episiotomy pink and healing
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Question 67 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands that the hormone,
__________, remains elevated in breastfeeding women in
the postpartum period.
Question 67 options:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Human placental lactogen
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Question 68 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is recommending daily Calcium
supplementation of ___________ to her female patients
that are older than 50 years of age.
Question 68 options:
A) 800 mg
B) 1000 mgC) 1200 mg
D) 1500 mg
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Question 69 (2.5 points)
Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the patient's bone
density is more than ______ standard deviation(s) below
the average bone mass for women younger than 35 years
old.
Question 69 options:
A) 1
B) 1.5
C) 2.5
D) 4
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Question 70 (2.5 points)
Based on the latest ACOG guidelines, the nurse
practitioner understands that the recommended time to
initiate screening for cervical cancer in women is:
Question 70 options:
A) prior to becoming sexually active
B) at age 18 yearsC) at age 21 years
D) three years after first sexual intercourse
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Question 71 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner understands the following lifestyle
approaches may be used to prevent osteoporosis after
menopause: Select all that apply.
Question 71 options:
Limit alcohol intake
Performance of regular weight-bearing activities
Increase caffeine consumption
Adequate calcium &vitamin D intake
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Question 72 (2.5 points)
What is the primary role of a nurse practitioner in the
research process?
Question 72 options:
A) Designing research studies
B) Collecting data for other researchers
C) Identifying researchable problems
D) Seeking funding to support research studies
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Question 73 (2.5 points)Whether you order diagnostic testing or refer the patient
to an HIV-specifc facility, laboratory confrmation is
rendered. The test confrming HIV infection is
_____________.
Question 73 options:
A) Western blot assay
B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent HIV RNA
C) CD4+ lymphocyte count
D) quantitative plasma HIV RNA
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Question 74 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is examining a twenty-nine-yearold female with a three day history of dysuria and urinary
frequency. On examination, the patient is positive for
suprapubic tenderness and negative for costovertebral
angle (CVA) tenderness. This most likely represents which
of the following?
Question 74 options:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Cystitis
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Asymptomatic Bacteriuria
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Question 75 (2.5 points)A patient has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which
of the following single dose medications would be the
best option?
Question 75 options:
A) Azithromycin 1 g
B) Clindamycin 300 mg
C) Ofloxacin 500 mg
D) Metronidazole 2 g
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Question 76 (2.5 points)
When educating patients about the use of combination
oral contraceptive medications, they should be advised
that pregnancy is prevented primarily by ____________.
Question 76 options:
A) cervical mucus thinning
B) inflammation of the endometrium
C) ovulation suppression
D) decreased fallopian tube motility
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Question 77 (2.5 points)
A twenty-four-year-old female presents to the ofce with
a complaint of a “yucky” vaginal discharge. On exam, amilky vaginal discharge is noted. A wet mount
preparation reveals a positive whiff test and 75% clue
cells. There were no trichomonads or WBCs visualized.
Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis
in this patient?
Question 77 options:
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Herpes simplex
C) Chlamydia
D) Cystitis with cervicitis
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Question 78 (2.5 points)
A ffty-fve-year-old postmenopausal female patient
presents with pain in the upper outer quadrant of her left
breast for over one month now. The best course of action
would be to _______.
Question 78 options:
A) reassure the patient that pain is often not a presenting symptom of breast cancer
B) teach the patient breast self-examination
C) order laboratory studies as most likely this is secondary to a hormonal fluctuation
D) perform a breast examination and order a mammogram
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Question 79 (2.5 points)A thirty-nine-year-old female has just completed a course
of Amoxicillin for the treatment of streptococcal
pharyngitis. Her LMP was two weeks ago and reports that
it was normal for her. On physical examination, there is
some erythema of the external genitalia with a small
amount of white discharge. The microscopic wet prep
examination reveals few clue cells but an abundance of
budding hyphae. There are no WBCs present. Considering
the differential diagnoses and results of the microscopic
examination, which of the following would be the most
appropriate treatment?
Question 79 options:
A) Metronidazole 500 mg BID for seven days
B) OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
C) Fluconazole 150 mg tablet as a onetime dose
D) Erythromycin 500 mg TID for ten days
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Question 80 (2.5 points)
A forty-nine-year-old female patient presents with a chief
complaint of dark, watery brown vaginal discharge. Part
of the differential diagnosis includes that of cervical
cancer. Which of the following best describes what might
be visualized on physical examination in patients with
cervical cancer?
Question 80 options:
A) Ulcerated firm cervix
B) Lower abdominal pain that is vague
C) Enlarged tender femoral lymph nodesD) Soft, still shaped cervix
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Question 81 (2.5 points)
A twenty-fve-year-old female presents with vaginal
irritation and discharge. On examination, the cervix is
easily friable and erythematous. There is no adnexal
tenderness. The wet prep (wet mount) microscopic
examination reveals mobile protozoa on the normal saline
slide. This most likely represents _________.
Question 81 options:
A) trichomoniasis
B) mucopurulent cervicitis
C) bacterial vaginosis
D) gonorrhea
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Question 82 (2.5 points)
A twenty-two-year-old female presents with an initial
onset of herpes simplex on the external genitalia. During
the patient education, which of the following statements
is most important to include?
Question 82 options:
A) Cesarean section will be necessary for any pregnancy and delivery.
B) Antiviral medications will be useful in treating and curing an outbreak.C) The sexual partner will not contract herpes if lesions are not present.
D) Symptoms of the initial outbreak of the lesions are typically worse than subsequent outbreaks.
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Question 83 (2.5 points)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released from the
anterior pituitary gland and is responsible for which of the
following normal physiologic response of the female
menstrual cycle?
Question 83 options:
A) Breast milk production
B) Stimulation of ovarian follicles
C) Maturation of ovarian follicles
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH) inhibition
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Question 84 (2.5 points)
A thirty-two-year-old patient comes in for a workup of
infertility. During the history, the nurse practitioner
suspects that the patient may be experiencing
anovulatory cycles. In order to confrm ovulation, which of
the following tests would be most appropriate to order?
Question 84 options:
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Basal body temperature
C) HysterosalpingogramD) Postcoital testing
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Question 85 (2.5 points)
A nurse practitioner is performing a wet mount with
potassium hydroxide (KOH) to assist with a diagnosis in a
woman experiencing vaginal discharge. Which of the
following would this confrm?
Question 85 options:
A) Herpes simplex
B) Trichomonas
C) Candidiasis
D) Chlamydia
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Question 86 (2.5 points)
A nurse practitioner is completing a speculum exam on a
female patient. Which of the following fndings would be
considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix?
Question 86 options:
A) Small, yellow, raised area on the cervix
B) Friable, bleeding tissue opening of the cervical os
C) Red patch areas with occasional white spotsD) Irregular, granular surface with red patches
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Question 87 (2.5 points)
There are several phases to the menstrual cycle. What
phase begins with menses cessation and ends with
ovulation?
Question 87 options:
A) Ovulatory phase
B) Follicular phase
C) Proliferative phase
D) Luteal phase
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Question 88 (2.5 points)
A nurse practitioner is participating in a women’s health
fair. When educating the women about risk factors for
breast cancer, which of the following statements
is incorrect?
Question 88 options:
A) Pregnancy after age of thirty-five years
B) Late menopause after age of fifty-seven years
C) History of maternal breast cancer
D) Fibrocystic breast disease
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The frst line treatment of severe menstrual cramps that
have been occurring for four months in a patient with
primary dysmenorrhea includes which of the following?
Question 89 options:
A) Acetaminophen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Combination hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
D) Amitriptyline
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Question 90 (2.5 points)
Which of the following choices represents a disorder of
the reproductive tract that causes pain, erythema,
dyspareunia, and a perineal mass?
Question 90 options:
A) Syphilis
B) Bartholin’s cyst
C) Labial adhesion
D) Herpes simplex type 2
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Question 91 (2.5 points)A woman is concerned that she may develop breast
cancer and is discussing her concerns with the nurse
practitioner. Which of the following is not an associated
risk factor for this?
Question 91 options:
A) Late menarche
B) Family history
C) Nulliparity
D) Late menopause
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Question 92 (2.5 points)
A sixty-one-year-old thin, Caucasian female presents to
your practice for a well-woman examination. She remarks
that she feels like she is shrinking over the past year,
despite keeping active and incorporating sources of
calcium in her diet. Which of the following is not a risk
factor for osteoporosis?
Question 92 options:
A) Excessive exercise
B) History of maternal osteoporosis
C) Smoking
D) Using hormone therapy
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Question 93 (2.5 points)A thirty-fve-year-old woman, presents with a six-month
history of hypermenorrhea, backache, and pelvic
pressure. On examination, you discover a twelve-week
size uterus with irregular contour. Which of the following
does this most likely represent?
Question 93 options:
A) Uterine cancer
B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
C) Uterine fibroid
D) Fecal impaction
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Question 94 (2.5 points)
It is known that a woman who is menopausal has an
increased risk of heart disease. Which of the following
lipid changes occur with estrogen withdrawal in
menopause?
Question 94 options:
A) Decrease in HDL, LDL, and triglycerides
B) Decrease in HDL, LDL, and increase in triglycerides
C) Increase in HDL with a decrease in LDL and triglycerides
D) Decrease in HDL with an increase in LDL and triglycerides
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Question 95 (2.5 points)Which of the following is true regarding education of a
forty-two-year-old woman diagnosed with a uterine
myoma?
Question 95 options:
A) Myomas usually does not resolve with menopause.
B) Myomas will decrease with the withdrawal of estrogen.
C) Hysterectomy is the treatment of choice.
D) Myomas are never responsible for uterine bleeding.
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Question 96 (2.5 points)
Sheryl, a seventeen-year-old, complains of a vaginal
discharge for the past month. When she wipes after
urinating, there is "white stuff" on the tissue. Sheryl
denies urinary problems but has had some genital
itching, but no odor. She also denies sexual activity. Her
vaginal discharge is most likely a result of ______.
Question 96 options:
A) a yeast infection
B) a chlamydia infection
C) retained foreign body
D) physiologic leukorrhea
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Question 97 (2.5 points)Urinary tract infections are commonly seen in primary
care. A twenty-fve-year-old female presents with a new
onset of dysuria and suprapubic pain for the last twentyfour hours. The examination reveals only mild tenderness
without any peritoneal signs on the lower abdomen. A
urinalysis reveals the presence of WBCs. The urine is sent
for a culture and sensitivity. In addition to Escherichia
coli one might typically expect to see the presence of
which bacterium?
Question 97 options:
A) Klebsiella
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D) Pseudomonas
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Question 98 (2.5 points)
The pituitary gland is responsible for a variety of
functions with respect to hormonal regulation and is
composed of two lobes, the anterior and posterior
sections. Which of the following list of hormones are
secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
Question 98 options:
A) Growth hormone (GH) and thyroid-stimulating hormone
B) Prolactin and T4
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and T3
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and oxytocinSave
Question 99 (2.5 points)
The nurse practitioner is counseling a patient on the side
effects associated with some birth control methods. The
woman complains that she has developed acne and
hirsutism while taking oral contraceptives. The nurse
practitioner understands that these changes result from
_____.
Question 99 options:
A) increased estrogen levels
B) decreased estrogen levels
C) increased free androgens
D) decreased free androgens
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Question 100 (2.5 points)
You are meeting with twenty-two-year-old Emily to
discuss birth control options. She has tried “the pill” in
the past but failed to take it regularly. She is interested in
depo because she only has to come in every three
months for a shot. She also heard that one does not get a
period on depo, and she likes the thought of that. Which
of the following would be a specifc consideration with
depo that you would need to discuss with Emily based on
her desires for a birth control method?
Question 100 options:
A) Depo offers no protection from STIs.
B) Depo can cause break through bleeding up to the second or third injectionC) As with any hormonal birth control, changes in weight can occur.
D) Depo does not offer pregnancy protection for those who are obese. [Show Less]