Science Practice Test 166 Questions with Verified Answers
How many milligrams of epinephrine is contained in a dental cartridge of prilocaine with
... [Show More] 1:200,000 epinephrine? - CORRECT ANSWER a
A 30-year-old male patient has a slightly raised purple mass on his cheek measuring 25 mm in diameter for as long as he can remember. This lesion is most likely a
A.hemangioma.
B.hematoma.
C.nevus. - CORRECT ANSWER a
Guanethidine is especially prone to produce which adverse effect?
A.Agranulocytosis
B.Lupus erythematosus
C.Orthostatic hypotension
D.Severe depression - CORRECT ANSWER C
Which is the cell that is found in a lacuna of cartilage?
A.Chrondoclast
B.Chondrocyte
C.Osteoblast
D.Osteocyte - CORRECT ANSWER a
The two buccal roots are normally about the same length in
A.the maxillary first molars only.
B.the maxillary second molars only.
C.the maxillary third molars only.
D.both maxillary first and second molars. - CORRECT ANSWER B
Which is an anticholinergic drug used to reduce airway secretions?
A.Acetylcholine
B.Atropine
C.Neostigmine
D.Pilocarpine - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which cause of macroglossia is developmental?
A.Hemangioma
B.Myxedema
C.Neurofibromatosis
D.Primary herpetic stomatitis - CORRECT ANSWER a
Deep cervical lymph nodes are distributed along which vessel?
A.External carotid artery
B.Internal carotid artery
C.External jugular vein
D.Internal jugular vein - CORRECT ANSWER Internal jugular vein
Which microorganism found in periodontal pockets is motile?
A.Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
B.Campylobacter rectus
C.Prevotella intermedia
D.Tannerella forsythia - CORRECT ANSWER Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
Which RNA virus is associated with the common cold?
A.Hepatitis A
B.Influenza A
C.Norovirus
D.Rhinovirus - CORRECT ANSWER D.
Rhinovirus
Which characteristic of bacteria influences relative numbers in early plaque?
A.Adherence to pellicle
B.Formation of bacterial coaggregations
C.Multiplication in an aerobic environment
D.Survival in an acid environment - CORRECT ANSWER a
In a normal differential blood count, which is the most numerous white blood cell?
A.Basophils
B.Lymphocytes
C.Monocytes
D.Neutrophils - CORRECT ANSWER Lymphocytes
One fluid ounce is equal to
A.5 ml.
B.30 ml.
C.500 ml.
D.1,000 ml. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 30
Which is a pathologic wearing-away of tooth structure through some abnormal mechanical process?
A.Abrasion
B.Attrition
C.Bruxism
D.Erosion - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which is produced in the nucleolus?
A.DNA
B.Protein
C.Ribosomal RNA
D.Transfer RNA - CORRECT ANSWER DNA
Slightly damaged tissue completely returns to its normal structure and function in which healing process?
A.Primary intention
B.Regeneration
C.Repair
D.Secondary intention - CORRECT ANSWER repair
Which primary teeth are the first to erupt?
A.Mandibular central incisors
B.Mandibular first molars
C.Maxillary central incisors
D.Maxillary first molars - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which is the functional unit of striated muscle?
A.A band
B.I band
C.H zone
D.Sarcomere - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of the following is a rule for antibiotic selection when managing an oral infection EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Debride infectious debris
B.Provide effective environment for host immune system
C.Select agent to which infecting organism is susceptible
D.Select agent with broadest spectrum of activity - CORRECT ANSWER b
Pain sensation might be blocked from going to the central nervous system by other stimuli. This is best explained by which theory of pain?
A.Gate control
B.Pattern
C.Perception
D.Specificity - CORRECT ANSWER C
Thyroxine increases each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Metabolic rate and heat production
B.Oxygen consumption, breathing, and cardiac output
C.Production of thyroid stimulating hormone by the pituitary gland
D.Protein synthesis and enzyme production by cells - CORRECT ANSWER d
The anti-inflammatory action of aspirin is in part due to
A.a decrease in capillary permeability.
B.an increase in capillary permeability.
C.inhibition of bradykinin synthesis.
D.its action on the white blood cells. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which is correct concerning the primitive groove?
A.Assists in the formation of trilaminar germ disc
B.Located on the endoderm
C.Located on the mesoderm
D.Precursor of the bilaminar germ disc - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of the following statements is correct regarding saltatory conduction EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.It involves the nodes of Ranvier.
B.It is associated with unmyelinated axons.
C.It is energy saving.
D.It is faster. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which lipoprotein contains the greatest amount of protein?
A.Very low-density
B.Low density
C.Medium density
D.High density - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which is NOT a characteristic of salivary glycoproteins?
A.Block binding of bacteria to pellicle
B.Enhance binding of bacteria to tooth surfaces
C.Interact with calcium and phosphate in hydroxyapatite
D.Result from lysis of bacterial cell walls - CORRECT ANSWER b
The most common autopsy finding in instances of sudden death as a result of myocardial infarction is
A.aneurysm of the heart wall.
B.coronary thrombosis.
C.fibrous pericarditis.
D.valvular prolapse. - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which generalization is correct about proximal contact areas?
A.Anterior teeth have contact areas that are generally centered faciolingually..
B.On individual teeth the distal contact area is generally located more incisal (occlusal) than the mesial contact area.
C.Posterior teeth have contact areas that are generally centered faciolingually.
D.The relative size of the contact areas decreases from anterior to posterior. - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which term refers to a complete obstruction of blood flow to a particular area?
A.Aneurysm
B.Hematoma
C.Infarction
D.Petechiae - CORRECT ANSWER c
Which is the agent of choice for final polishing of gold restorations?
A.Aluminum oxide
B.Flour of pumice
C.Silex
D.Silicon dioxide
E.Zirconium silicate - CORRECT ANSWER a
Fluoridation of municipal water supplies is often achieved by adding appropriate amounts of
A.calcium fluoride.
B.monofluorophosphate fluoride.
C.sodium silicofluoride.
D. Stannous flouride - CORRECT ANSWER a
In evaluating sealant placement, a dental hygienist should assess each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Occlusal interference
B.Penetration depth
C.Pit and fissure coverage
D.Proximal overrun - CORRECT ANSWER b
The space between two adjacent teeth that are NOT in contact is
A.a cervical embrasure.
B.a diastema.
C.an open bite.
D.torsoversion.. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Staying informed regarding the scope of practice for dental hygienists is the responsibility of the
A.dental hygienist.
B.employer of the dental hygienist.
C.federal government.
D.state regulations board. - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which is the primary reason to place sutures following periodontal surgery?
A.Control bleeding
B.Position the flap
C.Prevent infection
D.Prevent trauma - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which oral hygiene aid is contraindicated as a bacterial plaque control tool for a patient with dental implants?
A.Pipe cleaner
B.Rubber tip stimulator
C.Toothpick-in-holder
D.Waxed dental floss - CORRECT ANSWER a
Primordial cysts are most often found radiographically in
A.mandibular canine and first premolar areas.
B.maxillary anterior regions.
C.primary dentitions.
D.the area of the third molar. - CORRECT ANSWER c
Biological monitoring of sterilization equipment should occur
A.daily.
B.at least once a week.
C.monthly.
D.with each sterilization cycle. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which factor is least important to the setting time of dental stone?
A.Chemical accelerator
B.Chemical retardant
C.Method of spatulation
D.Water temperature
E.Water-powder ratio - CORRECT ANSWER c
Which is the appropriate term for mechanical wear due to improper tooth brushing?
A.Abfraction
B.Abrasion
C.Attrition
D.Erosion - CORRECT ANSWER b
According to the hydrodynamic theory, what leads to the sensation of pain?
A.Calculus deposits
B.Fluid flow within the dentinal tubules
C.Increased activity of odontoblasts
D.Microleakage of bacterial endotoxins - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which is characterized by a progressive weakness and loss of the use of symmetrical groups of muscles?
A.Autism
B.Cerebral palsy
C.Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D.Scleroderma - CORRECT ANSWER c
Objectives of root planing include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Reduction of gingival inflammation
B.Removal of calculus
C.Removal of dentin
D.Removal of plaque - CORRECT ANSWER c
Which represents the most effective time to introduce school-based tobacco use intervention programs?
A.Kindergarten
B.Primary school
C.Middle school
D.High school - CORRECT ANSWER c
In the pathogenesis of periodontal infections, which best explains the role of systemic factors? They
A.alter the position of the gingival margin.
B.alter tooth mobility.
C.determine the pattern of bone loss.
D.directly affect pocket depth.
E.modify the patient's response to local factors. - CORRECT ANSWER e
The final stage in plaque biofilm formation is
A.establishment of unattached plaque biofilm.
B.extension to the apex of the root.
C.mineralization to form calculus.
D.selective adherence of pathogenic bacteria. - CORRECT ANSWER c
The steam-under-pressure method of sterilization is primarily used for which products?
A.Jointed and geared instruments
B.Latex products
C.Metal, glass, and paper products
D.Oils, powders, and greases - CORRECT ANSWER c
If the film was placed correctly but lacks desired mesial structures, which error occurred?
A.Horizontal angle positioned too distally
B.Horizontal angle positioned too mesially
C.Vertical angle positioned too high
D.Vertical angle positioned too low - CORRECT ANSWER a
A patient presents with painful membranous ulceration of the gingiva, poor oral hygiene, and fetor oris. Which rinse is best indicated?
A.Cetylpyridium chloride
B.Chlorhexidine
C.Essential oil
D.Sodium fluoride - CORRECT ANSWER b
In chronic gingivitis, what causes the soft tissues to be dark in color?
A.Excessive fibrin production
B.Necrosis of the epithelia
C.Sclerosis of blood vessels
D.Stagnation of blood - CORRECT ANSWER d
A dental hygienist seats a patient to obtain an accurate blood pressure reading. Each of the following steps is necessary EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Cuff is deflated at a rate of 2 - 3mm Hg/sec
B.Diaphragm of stethoscope is placed over brachial artery
C.Patient's arm is at his/her chest level
D.Sphygmomanometer has a cuff width 20 percent smaller than the circumference of the patient's upper arm - CORRECT ANSWER d
The design feature of the curet that allows it to be used in the deepest area of the pocket with the least amount of tissue trauma is the
A.angulated shank.
B.convex back.
C.off-set face.
D.round toe. - CORRECT ANSWER d
A patient presents with a pulse rate of 104. Which best describes this patient's condition?
A.Bradycardia
B.Hyperventilation
C.Normal pulse rate
D.Tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWER d
The maxillary first premolar normally occludes with which mandibular teeth?
A.Canine and first premolar
B.Canine and lateral incisor
C.First and second premolars
D.Second premolar and first molar - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of the following is appropriate for implant home maintenance EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Chlorhexidine rinse
B.Powered toothbrush
C.Tufted floss
D.Ultrasonic scaler - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which bacteria is the most difficult to remove during root planing and continues to repopulate following root planing?
A.Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B.Porphyromonas gingivalis
C.Prevotella intermedia
D.Streptococcus viridians - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which must occur before designing a treatment plan for a patient?
A.Assess baseline data
B.Case presentation
C.Determine financial status
D.Research insurance coverage - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which device is the most effective at cleaning concave interproximal surfaces that have a history of bone and attachment loss?
A.End-tuft brush
B.Floss
C.Interdental brush
D.Powered toothbrush - CORRECT ANSWER a
If a dental hygienist discusses a patient's medical history with a friend, this constitutes a breach of
A.beneficence.
B.confidentiality.
C.standard of care.
D.veracity. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Each of the following is true about the utilization of dental services in the USA EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Age and gender do not play a significant role in utilization of dental services.
B.Demand for services is influenced by third-party coverage.
C.Each generation demands a different variety of dental services.
D.Higher education and income is associated with better utilization rate. - CORRECT ANSWER a
Hypersensitive dentin can best be treated with application of which solution?
A.Eugenol
B.Fluoride
C.Glyoxide
D.Topical anesthetic - CORRECT ANSWER b
During which stage of tooth formation does chronic fluoride toxicity occur?
A.Post-eruptive
B.Pre-eruptive - maturation
C.Pre-eruptive - mineralization
D.Prenatal - CORRECT ANSWER c
The safety device that prevents inadvertent attachment of the N2O cylinder to the O2 yoke on a portable N2O/O2 sedation unit is called the
A.diameter index safety system.
B.oxygen fail-safe system.
C.pin index safety system.
D.quick connect positive-pressure oxygen system. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Nitrous oxide enters air-filled cavities within the body causing an increase in pressure or volume. Which area is most affected by an increase in pressure due to a rigid confine?
A.Corneal space
B.Intestinal tract
C.Maxillary sinus
D.Pleural space - CORRECT ANSWER d
If a patient expresses opposition to having dental radiographs exposed, the dental hygienist should
A.ask the patient to sign a document releasing the practitioner from liability.
B.perform dental hygiene treatment without the radiographs.
C.postpone all treatment until the patient agrees to undergo the procedure.
D.provide a rationale for and explain the benefits of the prescribed radiographs. - CORRECT ANSWER d
A topical anesthetic applied in the gingival sulcus on the facial surface of tooth 25 will provide a few minutes anesthesia for
A.gingival sensitivity.
B.pulpal pain.
C.root planing.
D.the lingual sulcus. - CORRECT ANSWER a
Billing the insurance company for treatment that was NOT performed is
A.breach of contract.
B.fraud.
C.negligence.
D.technical battery. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Patients with diabetes type I
A.cannot be treated successfully.
B.may only receive non-surgical periodontal treatment.
C.must only be given local anesthetics without vasoconstrictor.
D.show an increased incidence and severity of periodontitis. - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which structure appears most radiopaque on a radiograph?
A.Cementum
B.Dentin
C.Enamel
D.Trabecular bone - CORRECT ANSWER c
During the dental appointment, a conscious diabetic patient is demonstrating signs of hypoglycemia and is unable to respond to questions. Which should the dental hygienist administer prior to the arrival of emergency medical services (EMS)?
A.IM glucagon
B.IV glucose
C.Oral carbohydrate
D.Oral insulin - CORRECT ANSWER c
Which is the small fifth cusp seen on the maxillary first molar?
A.Cusp of carabelli
B.Cusp hyperplasia
C.Cusp of monte cristo
D.Mesiolingual lobe - CORRECT ANSWER a
Each of the following is correct of oral irrigation devices EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Excessive pressure can force bacteria into underlying connective tissue.
B.Remove calculus
C.Remove food debris
D.Remove materia alba - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which cells are at greatest risk for radiation damage?
A.Embryonic and immature
B.Highly specialized
C.Radioresistant
D.Slowly dividing - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which is the phase of treatment planning that examines the success of dental hygiene intervention?
A.Assessment
B.Diagnosis
C.Evaluation
D.Implementation
E.Planning - CORRECT ANSWER c
Assisting an arthritic patient with toothbrushing might include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Educate caregiver on proper toothbrushing technique to provide assistance
B.Modify handle of toothbrush
C.Use a powered toothbrush
D.Use an interproximal brush - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which is the primary collimator in the x-ray tubehead?
A.Diaphragm
B.Filter
C.Focusing cup
D.Transformer - CORRECT ANSWER b
Ketoacidosis is commonly associated with
A.Addison disease.
B.Cushing disease.
C.diabetes.
D.Sjögren syndrome. - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of these conditions would most likely be better managed with the bisecting instead of the paralleling technique for exposing periapical radiographs EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Hypersensitive gag reflex
B.Large palatal/mandibular tori
C.Severe periodontal disease
D.Shallow palatal vault - CORRECT ANSWER c
In a healthy mouth, the attached gingiva is between the
A.epithelial attachment and the free gingival groove.
B.free gingival groove and the mucogingival junction.
C.gingival margin and the free gingival groove.
D.mucogingival junction and the base of the vestibule. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which ingredient is utilized for air-powder polishing?
A.Aluminum oxide
B.Calcium carbonate
C.Flour of pumice
D.Sodium bicarbonate - CORRECT ANSWER d
Where is the parotid papilla located?
A.Buccal mucosa
B.Dorsum of the tongue
C.Floor of the mouth
D.Vestibule - CORRECT ANSWER d
The terminal 1 to 2 mm of the working end of a Gracey curet is the
A.blade.
B.end.
C.point.
D.tip.
E.toe. - CORRECT ANSWER e
Overjet refers to the
A.distance between the mandible and maxilla with the mandible in its most protrusive position.
B.horizontal distance between the lingual surface of the maxillary incisors and the facial surface of the mandibular incisors.
C.measured distance the mandible moves forward in the condyle upon opening of the jaw.
D.vertical distance of the overlap between the maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth. - CORRECT ANSWER b
A continuing care patient complains of root hypersensitivity. Upon examination, the dental hygienist sees plaque accumulation near the gingival margins of many teeth. Each of the following may be considered for this patient EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Educate the patient about plaque removal.
B.Provide iontophoresis treatment.
C.Recommend a desensitizing dentifrice.
D.Remove plaque and apply fluoride. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which leukemia most frequently infiltrates the gingivae and causes gingival swelling?
A.Aleukemic
B.Granulocytic
C.Lymphocytic
D.Monocytic - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of the following products can be used on an existing sealant because it will not increase sealant wear EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Air-powder polishing
B.Disclosing solution
C.Essential oil mouthrinse
D.Sodium fluoride - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which is the best visual cue for proper working angulation with a Gracey curet?
A.Shank is tilted toward the tooth surface
B.Handle is perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
C.Terminal shank is parallel to the surface being scaled
D.Terminal shank is parallel to the long axis of the tooth - CORRECT ANSWER d
Fluoride toxicity manifests in bones as
A.hypercalcemia.
B.hypocalcemia.
C.osteoporosis.
D.osteosclerosis. - CORRECT ANSWER b
The apices of permanent incisors may bend slightly toward the
A.distal.
B.facial.
C.lingual
D.mesial. - CORRECT ANSWER a
N2O/O2 sedation equipment used in a dental setting will NOT allow oxygen delivery less than that in ambient air. Which best approximates the percentage of O2 in ambient air?
A.5%
B.20%
C.30%
D.70% - CORRECT ANSWER d
One purpose of a high strength base is to
A.neutralize acids from cements.
B.provide thermal protection for the pulp.
C.seal open margins.
D.stimulate secondary dentin formation. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which best describes the Bass brushing technique?
A.Circular technique
B.Horizontal (scrubbing technique)
C.Rolling technique
D.Sulcular technique - CORRECT ANSWER d
Each of the following is considered to be an implied contract between the dental hygienist and the patient EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.Keep patients informed of treatment progress
B.Make appointment referrals when necessary
C.Proper licensing to perform treatment
D.Use of experimental or cutting edge dental procedures - CORRECT ANSWER d
Bleeding upon probing is a key diagnostic sign of
A.alveolar bone loss.
B.gingival inflammation.
C.inactive periodontitis.
D.traumatic occlusion. - CORRECT ANSWER b
A public health dental hygienist is asked by the school district's superintendent to plan and implement a preventive dental health program for a school district in a large metropolitan area. The superintendent has indicated that there is an excessive absentee rate due to dental problems. The community water supply is naturally fluoridated at 0.5 ppm. The school administrators and public health officials were consulted as the first step in planning this program.
Which is the next step in planning this program?
A.Conduct a needs assessment
B.Develop program goals
C.Prioritize objectives
D.Secure funding - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which is the most appropriate method to collect the baseline data for this program?
A.Conduct a Basic Screening Survey
B.Interview school administrators
C.Obtain CPITN scores of representative students
D.Survey students regarding days of school missed - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which is the LEAST costly method for surveying teachers in the district?
A.Mail questionnaire
B.Online survey
C.Person-to-person interview
D. Telephone interview - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which would be the best method for communicating details to potential participating families regarding the program?
A.Mailing to parents and school personnel
B.Mass media announcements
C.School district newsletter
D.Telephone tree communication - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which is the most cost-effective fluoride program for this population?
A.Implement a fluoride varnish program
B.Implement a school-based water fluoridation program
C.Increase community water fluoridation
D.Maintain existing fluoride level - CORRECT ANSWER c
A city with a population of 30,000 in the upper midwest, scheduled a referendum in three months' time to decide whether or not to fluoridate its community water supply. A state university located in the city is its largest employer. As such, the population is characterized as generally young and well-educated, with moderate to upper-level incomes.
Five years ago, the city held a similar referendum but the issue failed to pass. The fluoridation opponents, at the time, were organized by a chemistry professor at the university. He claimed the compounds used in water fluoridation were environmental toxins. The only organized involvement of the local dental and dental hygiene societies was an advertisement supporting fluoridation in the city paper.
Each of the following political tactics can help assure that the referendum will pass EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.
Analysis of the last referendum
B.
Distribution o - CORRECT ANSWER c
The benefit that adults will receive from water fluoridation is primarily
A.
developmental.
B.
interproximal.
C.
pit and fissures
D.
topical. - CORRECT ANSWER c
Which factor will determine the ppm of fluoride that will be added to the water if the referendum passes?
A.
All communities are recommended to be fluoridated at 0.7 ppm
B.
Caries prevalence of the population
C.
Number of children under 12 years of age
D.
Number of homes using municipal water - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which current dental trend is most likely to dissuade voters from passing the fluoridation referendum in the city?
A.
Decreased modalities of fluoride administration
B.
Increased dental health awareness of the public
C.
Numbers of subscribers to dental insurance plans
D.
Unsubstantiated claims by antifluoridationists - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which strategy is NOT recommended prior to a fluoride referendum to implement community water fluoridation?
A.
Follow an organized plan of action
B.
Hold a debate with antifluoridationists
C.
Volunteering to serve on a speaker's bureau
D.
Work as a change agent to promote approval - CORRECT ANSWER b
A dental hygienist coordinates the oral hygiene program at an assisted-living home for middle SES elderly. Duties include conducting assessments for new residents, developing individual dental hygiene treatment plans, planning educational and other community-based programs to meet resident needs, ongoing needs assessment of the population, and program evaluation. Two calibrated examiners collect screening data during initial assessment. Denture cleanings and labeling are done at this assessment.
Which is the general growth trend for the population targeted by this program?
A.
Decreasing
B.
Increasing
C.
No change
D.
Insufficient information provided to determine - CORRECT ANSWER c
Which term best describes the ongoing, routine measurement of the residents' oral health status to detect changes?
A.
Assessment
B.
Epidemiology
C.
Evaluation
D.
Monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which would be the most effective and efficient use of the dental hygienist's time in this program?
A.
Provide daily oral care for the residents
B.
Train clinical nurse aides in daily oral care
C.
Provide professional fluoride treatments for residents
D.
Provide routine cleaning and labeling of dentures for residents
E.
Create a network for providing emergency dental care - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which is increased by the calibration of the two examiners?
A.
Reliability
B.
Sensitivity
C.
Statistical probability
D.
Validity - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which topic would be most beneficial for the dental hygienist to educate the nurses' aides on?
A.
Denture cleaning and care
B.
Medicare coverage
C.
Nutrition
D.
Silver diamide fluoride - CORRECT ANSWER a
The prostheses used to replace the maxillary right and left first molars would best be described as
A.
abutment teeth.
B.
cantilevers.
C.
implants.
D.
porcelain crowns. - CORRECT ANSWER b
The abnormal vital signs in this patient are most likely associated with
A.
anxiety.
B.
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C.
degenerative arthritis.
D.
medication. - CORRECT ANSWER a
The gingival tissue seen on the lingual view of the mandibular incisors demonstrates
A.
clefting.
B.
edema.
C.
hyperplasia.
D.
purulent exudate. - CORRECT ANSWER b
The radiopaque linear structure indicated by the arrow in the maxillary right molar periapical radiograph represents the
A.
floor of nasal cavity.
B.
floor of maxillary sinus.
C.
hamular process.
D.
zygomatic process. - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which treatment issue should be considered in the management of this patient?
A.Bleeding time
B.Orthostatic hypotension
C.Premedication regimen
D.Seating position - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which treatment regimen is most appropriate for this patient?
A.
Chlorhexidine irrigation and gross debridement
B.
Chlorhexidine rinse and quadrant debridement
C.
Minocycline microspheres and full-mouth debridement
D.
Systemic antibiotics and quadrant debridement - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which AAP classification best describes this patient's periodontal status?
A.
Aggressive periodontitis
B.
Chronic periodontitis
C.
Necrotizing periodontal disease
D.
Periodontitis associated with systemic disease - CORRECT ANSWER a
The radiopaque structure on the crown of tooth 7 represents a
A.
broken endodontic instrument.
B.
post.
C.
retention pin.
D.
silver point. - CORRECT ANSWER b
The patient's history of lower leg edema is most likely due to
A.
allergy to penicillin.
B.
congestive heart failure.
C.
degenerative arthritis.
D.
obesity. - CORRECT ANSWER b
The radiolucency on the distal surface of the mandibular right second premolar represents
A.
a fractured root.
B.
an open margin.
C.
cervical burnout.
D.
recurrent caries. - CORRECT ANSWER a
The G. V. Black classification of the restoration indicated by the arrow on the mandibular left first premolar is
A. I.
B. III.
C. IV.
D. V.
E. VI. - CORRECT ANSWER a
CASE 2
Medical consultation is suggested for which patient finding?
A.
Blood pressure
B.
History of ADHD
C.
History of trauma
D.
Pulse rate - CORRECT ANSWER a
The patient's medications place her at increased risk for which condition?
A.
Dental caries
B.
Early exfoliation of primary teeth
C.
Geographic tongue
D.
Intrinsic staining of teeth - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which most likely explains the appearance of the apical portion of the root of the maxillary right central incisor?
A.
Apical abscess
B.
Dentigerous cyst
C.
Incomplete root formation
D.
Internal root resorption - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which method of plaque removal is most appropriate during prophylaxis?
A.
Air abrasive system
B.
Rubber cup and abrasive paste
C.
Toothbrushing
D.
Ultrasonic scaler - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which statement represents the most appropriate use of sealants in this patient?
A.
Consider application of sealants now.
B.
Defer sealant application until age 12.
C.
Unnecessary; fluoride treatment alone is sufficient.
D.
Unnecessary; the patient is not at risk for caries. - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which behavior management technique is best for this patient?
A.
General anesthesia
B.
Late afternoon appointments
C.
Oral sedation
D.
Short appointment times - CORRECT ANSWER d
Which in-office fluoride application is most appropriate for this patient?
A.
Fluoride foam tray for four minutes
B.
Fluoride gel tray for one minute
C.
Fluoride varnish
D.
Sequential fluoride rinses - CORRECT ANSWER c
The teeth indicated by the arrows on the radiograph are expected to erupt at which age?
A.
5-7 years
B.
8-9 years
C.
10-12 years
D.
13-14 years - CORRECT ANSWER A
The amount of oral pigmentation in this patient is most likely related to which circumstance?
A.Ethnicity
B.Trauma to oral tissues
C.Use of methylphenidate (Ritalin®)
D.Use of oral inhaler - CORRECT ANSWER a
CASE 3
Which patient positioning error resulted in the appearance of the occlusal plane in the panoramic radiograph?
A.
Chin too high
B.
Head not centered
C.
Patient too far forward
D.
Tongue not against the palate - CORRECT ANSWER a
The root canals in the maxillary first premolars seem to disappear at the mid-section. Which explains this appearance?
A.
Canal bifurcation
B.
Denticles
C.
Incomplete development
D.
Internal resorption - CORRECT ANSWER d
The artifact in the maxillary right molar periapical radiograph is most likely due to which cause?
A.
Fingernail crease
B.
Fixer contamination
C.
Scratched emulsion
D.
Water spotting - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which probe should be used to determine if this patient has furcation involvement?
A.
Marquis
B.
Michigan-O
C.
Nabers
D.
Williams - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of the following materials has been used to restore the teeth EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.
Amalgam
B.
Composite resin
C.
Glass ionomer
D.
Porcelain fused to metal - CORRECT ANSWER a
Which best explains the appearance of the attached gingiva indicated by the arrow in photograph 4?
A.
Amalgam tattoo
B.
Melanoma
C.
Physiologic pigmentation
D.
Varicosities - CORRECT ANSWER c
Each of the following treatments is contraindicated for this patient EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A.
Acidulated phosphate fluoride
B.
Air abrasive polishing
C.
Piezoelectric powered scaler
D.
Sodium fluoride - CORRECT ANSWER b
Which adjunctive therapy would be most beneficial for this patient?
A.
Acidulated fluoride rinse
B.
Interdental brush
C.
Potassium nitrate dentifrice
D.
Toothpick-in-holder - CORRECT ANSWER b
In the context of prokaryotic gene expression, which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an operator?
a) A cluster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter.
b) A DNA-binding protein that regulates gene expression.
c) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA polymerase.
d) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor protein. - CORRECT ANSWER *d) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor protein.*
Which of the following statements, concerning regulation of trp operon expression by attenuation, is correct?
a) The leader peptide sequence encodes enzymes required for tryptophan synthesis.
b) The leader peptide sequence contains no tryptophan residues.
c) Rapid translation of the leader peptide allows completion of the mRNA transcript.
d) Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of the mRNA transcript. - CORRECT ANSWER *d) Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of the mRNA transcript.*
Which of the following statements regarding regulation of transferrin-receptor protein synthesis is correct?
a) The iron-responsive element is an iron-binding sequence in the mRNA that encodes transferrin-receptor protein.
b) The iron-responsive element is in the 5' untranslated region of the mRNA that encodes transferrin-receptor protein.
c) When iron is abundant the IRE-binding protein binds to and stabilizes the mRNA that encodes transferrin-receptor protein.
d) When iron is scarce the IRE-binding protein binds to and stabilizes the mRNA that encodes transferrin-receptor protein. - CORRECT ANSWER *d) When iron is scarce the IRE-binding protein binds to and stabilizes the mRNA that encodes transferrin-receptor protein.*
'RNAi' stands for which of the following?
a) RNA inducer.
b) RNA insertion.
c) RNA interference.
d) RNA intron. - CORRECT ANSWER *c. RNA interference.*
Which of the following are reasons to perform audits as part of your organization's Quality Assurance Programs?
a. To assure all patient protection measures are followed
b. To ensure protocol adherence
c. To find and correct errors
d. To ensure study results are valid
e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER *e. All of the above*
What is the most likely attribution of this Adverse Event?
a. Unlikely
b. Probably
c. Definitely
d. Unrelated - CORRECT ANSWER *b. Probably*
*c. Definitely*
Mr. X is admitted on the research study with a baseline GI assessment of normal bowel function. During the first cycle of study agent with a pre-clinical toxicity profile including nausea, diarrhea, alopecia, headache, and pancytopenia, he experiences 5 liquid stools a day for approximately 3 days and was treated with 1L IV fluids. Using the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 3.0, the grade of this AE is _________.
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. Grade 4
e. Unable to assess - CORRECT ANSWER *e. Unable to assess*
Electronic data management systems enhance data integrity by:
a. Eliminating redundancy
b. Limiting free-text responses and maximizing the use of standard vocabularies
c. Validating data values whenever possible
d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER *d. All of the above*
What best describes the mechanism by which the coactivator CREB-binding protein (CBP) activates transcription?
a) CBP has DNA methyltransferase activity.
b) CBP has histone acetyl transferase activity.
c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex.
d) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and also has histone acetyl transferase activity. - CORRECT ANSWER *c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex.*
A disease caused by an autosomal primary nondisjunction is
A) Turner syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Klinefelter syndrome
E) PKU - CORRECT ANSWER *B. Down Syndrome*
A individual who has two of the same allele is said to be
A) homozygous
B) heteromologous
C) homologous
D) heterozygous
E) diplozygous - CORRECT ANSWER *A. Homozygous*
The appearance resulting from a given gene combination is referred to as the
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) phototype
D) alleleotype
E) stereotype - CORRECT ANSWER *B. phenotype*
Compared to previous geneticists, the unique characteristic of Mendel's work was
A) keeping records of numbers of different progeny
B) choosing the garden pea for his experiment
C) producing hybrids
D) studying more than one generation
E) crossing true-breeding plants - CORRECT ANSWER *A. keeping records of numbers of different progeny*
A genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele is
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) PKU
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) hemophilia (royal)
E) Huntington's disease - CORRECT ANSWER *E. Huntington's disease*
Early ideas about heredity include
A) traits can be masked in some generations
B) traits were segregated among progeny
C) alleles do not influence each other
D) traits are transmitted directly
E) not all copies of a factor are identical - CORRECT ANSWER *D) traits are transmitted directly*
If a signal sequence is removed from an ER protein, what happens to the altered protein? - CORRECT ANSWER It remains in the cytosol.
Investigators have engineered a gene that encodes a protein bearing an ER signal sequence followed by a nuclear localization signal. What would be the likely fate of that protein? - CORRECT ANSWER The protein will be recognized by an SRP and enter the ER.
Which proteins bind to nuclear localization signals on newly synthesized proteins? - CORRECT ANSWER nuclear import receptors
Proteins destined for the Golgi apparatus, endosomes, lysosomes, and even the cell surface must pass through which organelle? - CORRECT ANSWER ER
As a polypeptide is being translocated across the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum, a stop-transfer sequence can halt the process. What eventually becomes of this stop-transfer sequence? - CORRECT ANSWER It forms an α-helical membrane-spanning segment of the protein.
What is the main function of intermediate filaments? - CORRECT ANSWER They enable cells to withstand the mechanical stress that occurs when cells are stretched.
Which of the following cytoskeletal structures grows out from a centrosome toward the cell periphery? - CORRECT ANSWER microtubules
Dynamic instability is the ability of a microtubule to do which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER switch back and forth between polymerization and depolymerization
If GTP hydrolysis occurs on a tubulin molecule at the plus end of a microtubule protofilament before another tubulin molecule is added, what typically happens? - CORRECT ANSWER The microtubule depolymerizes.
Cell cycle events can be studied in the C. elegans roundworm model system as the worms have a set pattern of cell division and the early embryos are easy to observe in the microscope. The cells can also be treated with RNAi (RNA interference), which blocks gene expression of specific genes leading to a decrease in the specific protein. C. elegans oocytes are triggered to mature at the correct time by a specific M-Cdk family member. Treatment of oocytes with Wee1 RNAi triggers precocious, or early, oocyte maturation. Which of the following statements would be true in an oocyte treated with Wee1 RNAi? - CORRECT ANSWER M-Cdk/cyclin is activated more quickly.
Describe the complete process that leads to the regulation and activation of the M Cyclin/CDK - CORRECT ANSWER
What is the role of the nuclear localization sequence in a nuclear protein? - CORRECT ANSWER It is bound by cytoplasmic proteins that direct the nuclear protein to the nuclear pore.
List the 4 MAJOR cellular and molecular events associated with apoptosis - CORRECT ANSWER - Cytoskeleton collapsed
- Shredding Genomic DNA
- Destroying nuclear envelope
- Phospholipid flips
Stages of Mitosis - CORRECT ANSWER prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase [Show Less]