RNAS C Practice Test Review 437 Questions with Verified Answers
A capacitor and resisitor in parallel - CORRECT ANSWER will have same voltage across
... [Show More] since in parallel.
if in series, voltage drops would occur
they can be treated together
If the absolute pressure of a gas is increased from 3 atm to 4 atm at constant volume, then the absolute temperature of the gas will increase by:
A. 25%.
B. 33%.
C. 67%.
D. 75% - CORRECT ANSWER B. Assuming the validity of the Ideal-Gas law, PV = nRT, an increase in pressure by a factor of 4/3 at constant volume will result in an increase in temperature by the same factor (since P is proportional to T if V and n are constant). Multiplying the temperature by 4/3 = 133% implies an increase by 33%
Which of the following statements regarding RNA molecules is NOT true?
A. RNAs can act as enzymes to catalyze reactions.
B. Some RNAs have more than four different types of bases.
C. Some RNAs are synthesized in the nucleolus.
D. RNAs are insusceptible to alkaline hydrolysis - CORRECT ANSWER D. RNA molecules have decreased stability compared to DNA in part because of their susceptibility to alkaline hydrolysis due to the presence of hydroxyl group at 2'-C position (choice D is not true of RNA and is the correct answer choice). Some RNAs have enzymatic function (such as in telomerase) and they are termed ribozymes (choice A is true and can be eliminated). tRNA has unique and modified bases apart from the traditional four bases A,U,C, and G (such as inosine, choice B is true and can be eliminated). rRNA is synthesized in the nucleolus (choice C is true and can be eliminated).
A Q-switched laser can be used to treat skin blemishes and to remove tattoos. The Q switch momentarily interrupts the inducing light creating a build-up of energy within the crystal. This does not increase the overall energy of the laser, but concentrates it into shorter time periods or pulses. A longer interruption with the Q-switch most likely would increase the:
A. total amount of work done by the laser.
B. power of each laser pulse.
C. wavelength of the laser light.
D. frequency of the laser light. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Since the overall energy of the laser does not change, neither will the frequency, wavelength, nor work done by the laser. This leaves choice B: Concentrating the energy into a shorter time period increases the power of each pulse (since power equals energy delivered per unit time, by definition).
E=hf
How many grams of NaI should be added to 500 mL of a saturated solution of AgI to make a solution that is 1.5 x 10-15 M Ag+?
A. 9.0 g
B. 4.5 g
C. 0.06 g
D. 0.03 g - CORRECT ANSWER B. Figure 1 indicates that when [AgI] = 1.5 x 10-15 M, the concentration of NaI = 0.06 M. In 500 mL (0.5 L), this solution should contain 0.030 mol NaI. Since the molar mass of NaI is 150 g/mol, this amounts to 4.5 g of NaI.
If a fully saturated solution of AgI, with precipitate present, were treated with NaCl instead of NaI, which of the following observations is likely?
A. As NaCl is added, all precipitates are dissolved into the aqueous solution.
B. The decrease in [AgI] is even more drastic than with the addition of NaI in Figure 1.
C. There is no change in the amount of undissolved AgI.
D. The concentration of [I-] increases. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Unlike NaI, NaCl does not have a common ion with AgI and will therefore NOT cause a decrease in the solubility for AgI with increasing concentration (eliminate choice B). The following will act as a competing reaction when [Cl-] concentrations become sufficiently large:
Ag+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) → AgCl (s)
With this in mind, there will be no situations wherein the solution is free of precipitate (eliminate choice A). As the dissolved [NaCl] concentration increases, AgCl will be precipitated from solution, which will enable additional AgI to dissolve (eliminate choice C). The increased dissolution of AgI will cause the increase in [I-], even as [Ag+] levels remain low.
Elimination reaction - CORRECT ANSWER The removal of a molecule from a saturated molecule to make an unsaturated molecule
any kind of unsaturation created including a c=o bond. COOH derivatives undergo addition then elimination reactions when lone pair on oxygen comes down
half equivalence point - CORRECT ANSWER The point in a titration at which exactly half the molar equivalence of reactant is consumed by the titrant being added. At this point in an acid-base titration, the pKa of the unknown solution is revealed.
pKa=pH
ExperimentIn a first trial, hydrogen peroxide was titrated with potassium permanganate in the absence of catalase. In a second trial, hydrogen peroxide was again titrated with potassium permanganate after the addition of catalase. The following observations were made.
Finding 1: 28 mL of potassium permanganate was required to titrate 5 mL of 0.005 M hydrogen peroxide to water.
Finding 2: Three minutes after the addition of catalase, the amount of potassium permanganate required for titration was one-third of the amount required in the absence of catalase.
Finding 3: Data obtained for the first fifteen minutes following addition of catalase indicated a nearly constant rate of hydrogen peroxide decomposition, evidenced by a decline in the amount of permanganate required for titration.
Extreme high temperature would have which of the following effects on the second trial?
A. It would increase the required amount of pota - CORRECT ANSWER B. Although enzyme activity normally increases with increasing temperature, extreme high temperature denatures the enzyme and renders it inactive. Twenty-eight milliliters of potassium permanganate were required to titrate the hydrogen peroxide in the absence of enzyme (Finding 1). With catalase rendered inactive by extreme high temperature, the reaction vessel would be functionally devoid of enzyme. As in the first trial, 28 mL of potassium permanganate solution would be required to titrate the hydrogen peroxide (choice B is correct and choices A, C and D are eliminated).
gluconeogenesis enzymes - CORRECT ANSWER 1) pyruvate carboxylase
2) phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)
3) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
4) glucose 6-phosphatase
Which of the following best describes the role of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate?
A. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and inhibiting phosphofructokinase.
B. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating phosphofructokinase and inhibiting hexokinase.
C. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating phosphofructokinase and inhibiting fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.
D. It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating hexokinase and inhibiting fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis through phosphofructokinase and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, and has no impact on hexokinase activity (eliminate choices B and D). Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate stimulates phosphofructokinase, which is used in glycolysis, and inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which is used in gluconeogenesis (choice C is correct and eliminate choice D).
Tryptophan, an essential amino acid found in banana, turkey, and milk proteins, can induce sleep in some people. Warm milk causes greater sleepiness than cold milk because heating the milk:
A. reduces the solubility of tryptophan in the milk.
B. causes hydrolysis of lactose, releasing tryptophan.
C. releases free tryptophan from proteins, causing more rapid intestinal absorption.
D. increases the rate of absorption of tryptophan by the stomach - CORRECT ANSWER C. If heating the milk reduced tryptophan solubility, this would decrease, not increase the sleep-inducing properties of milk (eliminate choice A). Lactose is a disaccharide, not a protein, and its hydrolysis cannot release an amino acid (eliminate choice B). Amino acids, like most nutrients, are absorbed in the small intestine mostly, not the stomach (eliminate choice D). Although heating the milk does not create more tryptophan, it might help to hydrolyze some of the milk proteins and release tryptophan so it can be absorbed more rapidly after ingestion and cause greater sleepiness (choice C is correct).
Based on Figure 1, which of the following is least supported?
A. The OCA2 proteins in the eight species studies would be considered homologous.
B. The OCA2 protein is conserved across eukaryotes.
C. Zebrafish and Japanese killifish have a OCA2 common ancestor protein which is more related that that between horse and human.
D. Humans and chimpanzees are more closely related than fission yeast and the wild boar - CORRECT ANSWER D. Homologous proteins or genes are those that have evolved from a common ancestor. This matches the information in Figure 1, since the OCA2 protein in all organisms on the figure originated with the ancestor protein represented by the point at the bottom (choice A is supported and can be eliminated). The eight organisms on the figure are all eukaryotes and from diverse families (fungi, mammals, fish; choice B is supported and can be eliminated). Remember that yeast are fungi and therefore eukaryotic. OCA2 in zebrafish and Japanese killifish share a common ancestor which is not far away in evolutionary terms (i.e., is not very far down the diagram). In contrast, the common ancestor protein between human and horse OCA2 protein is the point at the bottom of the diagram; this is farther away in evolutionary terms (choice C is supported and can be eliminated). While choice D may be true based on logic and background information on evolution, it is not supported by Figure 1; this phylogenetic tree contains information on how the OCA2 proteins are evolutionarily related, not how organisms are related (choice D is the least supported and the correct answer choice).
Bacterial Reproduction - CORRECT ANSWER binary fission
NO SEXUAL REPRODUCTION- conjugation bridge is just a method of exchanging genetic makeup
A bacteriologist initiated an E. coli culture from one E. coli cell and hypothesized that some of the progeny in the culture would be genetically different from the original parent cell. Is this hypothesis true?
A. Yes; bacteria are capable of undergoing genetic recombination through a variety of mechanisms.
B. Yes; bacteria reproduce sexually, and the progeny of any one cell are genetically distinct from the parent cell.
C. No; bacteria are asexual organisms, and in the absence of mutation, all progeny of any one cell are genetically identical to the parent cell.
D. No; bacteria can reproduce only by meiosis, which ensures preservation of the genome. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Bacteria reproduce asexually, by one cell replicating its genome and then splitting into two cells that are genetically identical to the original cell. The only potential sources of genetic variation in bacteria are mutation and the transfer of genetic information through conjugation, transduction, or transformation, none of which are linked to reproduction. In the absence of mutation, all progeny of a cell will be identical to the original cell (choice C is correct). Bacteria only perform recombination under special circumstances such as through the presence of Hfr plasmids that replicate a portion of the bacterial genome to make it transiently diploid (eliminate choice A). There is no indication of a role for Hfr in this case and in a clonal cell line, it could not play a role. Bacteria do not perform the recombination, independent assortment and independent segregation that create genetic diversity in eukaryotes that reproduce sexually (eliminate choice B). They also do not perform meiosis (eliminate choice D).
Security personnel trained a dog to growl whenever a person appeared on the other side of a car lot fence by using a live cat as the unconditioned stimulus. After several trials, the dog growled every time that a person approached the fence, even without the cat. At that point, use of the live cat was discontinued. After several weeks, the dog ceased to growl at the sight of a person nearing the fence. The owner took the dog to his home as a house pet for several weeks and then brought the dog back to the lot. Which of the following behaviors should the owner now expect from the dog?
A. The dog will growl at the next person who approaches the fence.
B. The dog will no longer growl, even at the sight of a live cat.
C. The dog will growl continuously until an electric shock is administered.
D. The dog will run away from the next person who approaches the fence. - CORRECT ANSWER A. This question addresses the classical conditioning theory of spontaneous recovery, which becomes relevant after the process of extinction has occurred. In extinction, the conditioned stimulus is presented consistently without the unconditioned stimulus, and, eventually, the conditioned stimulus loses its excitatory power. However, if, after a delay wherein the conditioned stimulus is not presented either, the conditioned stimulus is presented again, it will elicit the conditioned response. In the case described in the question stem, the live cat is the unconditioned stimulus, the sight of a person approaching the fence is the conditioned stimulus, and growling at the approaching person is the conditioned response. The passage indicates that extinction has occurred when it states that use of the live cat was discontinued and the dog ceased to produce the conditioned response of growling. A delay is implied by the owner's taking the dog to his home. After the dog is brought back to the lot, according to the principle of spontaneous recovery, the dog should produce the conditioned response (growling) when next presented with the conditioned stimulus (a person approaching the fence; choice A is correct). There is no principle of classical conditioning that posits that, given the scenario in the question stem, the unconditioned stimulus (cat) will lose its excitatory value (choice B is wrong) or that the conditioned stimulus will produce a new response (choice D is wrong). The use of an electric shock to stop growling behavior would constitute a positive punishment, which is an operant (not classical) conditioning principle (choice C is wrong).
While completing a ritual, such as repeated locking and unlocking of the front door, an individual with obsessive-compulsive disorder would most likely feel:
A. distressed.
B. profound relief for the rest of the day.
C. content.
D. happy. - CORRECT ANSWER A. People with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel the need to perform certain rituals or routines repeatedly. These individuals are often compelled by intrusive thoughts. An individual compelled to perform behavior repeatedly, such as continually locking and unlocking a door, will often feel distressed by these intrusive thoughts and the need to perform these behaviors (choice A is correct). While performing these rituals can sometimes cause a temporary sense of relief, there is no profound relief for the rest of the day, only a transient sense of relief that may come from temporarily satisfying the intrusive thoughts (choice B is wrong). An individual compelled to perform repeated behavior would have no particular reason to feel content or happy (choices C and D are wrong).
Many health disparities exist among social groups in the United States based on sociodemographic characteristics, including gender. For example, men have a shorter lifespan and higher rates of death by all leading causes. This can be explained by which of the following?
I. Men experience greater occupational demands and stress as a result of persistent patriarchal patterns of authority in families.
II. The traditional approach to medical research recruited more female than male participants, thus leading to a dangerous misunderstanding of male health.
III. Gender biases present in health care structures cause differences in treatment for the same disease for men and women, and tend to offer more aggressive treatments to save the lives of women.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only - CORRECT ANSWER A. Item I is true: patriarchal social structures are those in which men, rather than women, are the authoritative members in families. According to the traditional patriarchal structure, men are responsible for providing for their families. Despite the increasing presence of dual-income families, patriarchal attitudes persist and place a disproportionate amount of economic pressure on men (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is false: historically, more medical research studies have been conducted on men than women, thus leading to misconceptions about women's health (choice C can be eliminated). Item III is false: gender biases in health care tend to offer more aggressive treatment to men than women (choice D can be eliminated and choice A is the correct answer). In fact, these biases contribute to the fact that women experience higher rates of both chronic and acute illnesses that are not leading causes of death.
Socialized medicine is a term used to describe governmental regulation of health care, with this public administration of health services being funded through taxation. This is also often referred to as universal health care. In the United States, there are some socialized insurance programs, such as military medicine. However, despite the implementation of the Affordable Care Act, private companies continue to provide most of the nation's health care. Public opinion has been slow to accept the notion of universal health care, as evidenced by the opposition to presidential reform efforts during the Truman, Clinton, and Obama administrations. This hesitation could be attributed to several factors, such as the public's agreement with conservative critics. and best matches the approach to inequalities described in the theories of:
A. Emile Durkheim.
B. Karl Marx.
C. Ludwig Gumplowicz.
D. Max Weber. - CORRECT ANSWER D. The theoretical perspective most concerned with social inequalities is conflict theory. Classical sociologists associated with this theory include Karl Marx, Ludwig Gumplowicz, and Max Weber. In contrast, Emile Durkheim is more associated with structural functionalism, which is focused on contributions to social stability (choice A is wrong). The persistent opposition to forms of socialized medicine best reflects the theories of Max Weber. Unlike the other theorists, Weber argued that the presence of inequalities would not necessitate the collapse of capitalism. He suggested that responses to inequalities are moderated through additional social factors, such as agreement with authority figures (e.g., public political figures; choice D is correct). The public's persistent opposition challenges the theories of Karl Marx. Marx argued that social inequalities, and subsequent conflict and internal tensions as a result of power differentials, would lead to the rise of socialism. The Marxist perspective then suggests the rise of socialized medicine, as opposed to the continuation of capitalistic private systems (choice B is wrong). Finally, the theories of Ludwig Gumplowicz focus on cultural and ethnic conflicts that are not relevant to the question (choice C is wrong).
Symbolic Interactionism - CORRECT ANSWER a micro-level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behind people's actions
Symbolic interaction was conceived by George Herbert Mead and Charles Horton Cooley. Mead argued that people's selves are social products, but that these selves are also purposive and creative, and believed that the true test of any theory was that it was "useful in solving complex social problems"
Soloman Asch Experiment - CORRECT ANSWER conformity experiments or the Asch paradigm were a series of studies directed by Solomon Asch studying if and how individuals yielded to or defied a majority group and the effect of such influences on beliefs and opinions
Moro reflex - CORRECT ANSWER Infant reflex where a baby will startle in response to a loud sound or sudden movement.
Proprioceptors (location) - CORRECT ANSWER muscle spindles, which are embedded in skeletal muscle fibers, Golgi tendon organs, which lie at the interface of muscles and tendons, and joint receptors, which are low-threshold mechanoreceptors embedded in joint capsules.
what kind of capital is education? - CORRECT ANSWER cultural capital
including knowledge and skills
Ethnocentrism - CORRECT ANSWER evaluation of other cultures according to preconceptions originating in the standards and customs of one's own culture.
cultural relativism - CORRECT ANSWER the practice of judging a society by its own standards
androcentric - CORRECT ANSWER focused or centered on men
private acceptance - CORRECT ANSWER conforming by altering private beliefs as well as public behavior
bacterial transformation - CORRECT ANSWER ability of bacteria to alter their genetic makeup by uptaking foreign DNA from another bacterial cell and incorporating it into their own
Stearic acid (or octadecanoic acid) is a saturated fatty acid with the formula CH3(CH2)16COOH After undergoing β-oxidation, it will generate:
A. 9 acetyl-CoA, 9 NADH and 9 FADH2.
B. 9 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2.
C. 8 acetyl-CoA, 8 NADH and 8 FADH2.
D. 8 acetyl-CoA, 7 NADH and 7 FADH2. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Stearic acid has 18 carbons and so will undergo 8 rounds of β-oxidation. This will generate 9 molecules of acetyl-CoA (eliminate choices C and D), 8 molecules of NADH and 8 molecules of FADH2 (choice B is correct, eliminate choice A).
Based on Figure 2, the critical angle between Media a and b:
A. is less than 45°.
B. is equal to 45°.
C. is greater than 45°.
D. cannot be determined. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Figure 2 shows that if the angle of incidence is 45°, then the beam is totally internally reflected. Since total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, 45° must be greater than the critical angle. (Or, said the other way, the critical angle must be less than 45°.)
Which of the following statements best supports why two equivalents of hydroxide are used in the basic hydrolysis of dichorine monoxide in Reaction 1?
A. The second hydroxide is necessary to neutralize the HCl produced in situ during the course of the reaction.
B. Adding a second equivalent of hydroxide will double the rate of reaction.
C. Adding only one equivalent will lead to the formation of a buffer solution of hypochlorous acid and its conjugate base, and therefore an incomplete reaction.
D. Chlorine in the +1 oxidation state is highly reactive, and only stable in highly basic environments. - CORRECT ANSWER C. In Reaction 1, chlorine is in the +1 oxidation state throughout, and there is no redox reaction available to take it to the -1 state it would require to form HCl (eliminate choice A). Choice B is a true statement only if the hydroxide ion is part of the overall rate law for the reaction and is first order in hydroxide. Regardless, this statement doesn't address the exact stoichiometric amount in question (eliminate choice B). Choice D is false because Cl+ should find no problem with an acidic environment where the most active species is H+. One equivalent of hydroxide will hydrolyze the dichlorine monoxide as follows: Cl2O + OH- HOCl + OCl-. Since this reaction forms a weak acid and its conjugate base in equal amounts, a buffer solution is produced. When the second equivalent of OH- is added, it will undergo another acid/base reaction to deprotonate the hypochlorous acid to the hypochlorite ion, giving the products in Reaction 1 of the passage.
Eukaryotic cells use reciprocal regulation to make sure β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis do not occur at the same time. This is accomplished by malonyl CoA, which inhibits the carnitine shuttle required to transfer activated fatty acids from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix. Each of the following is a true statement EXCEPT:
A. both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in four steps; fatty acid biosynthesis involves elongation, two redox reactions and a dehydration.
B. β-oxidation involves the reduction of both FAD and NAD+; fatty acid biosynthesis oxidizes two NADPH (generated by the pentose phosphate pathway) to two NADP+.
C. because of this reciprocal regulation, both β-oxidation and fatty acid biosynthesis occur in the mitochondrial matrix.
D. β-oxidation generates acetyl CoA, while fatty acid biosynthesis uses malonyl CoA, which is made from acetyl CoA by acetyl CoA carboxylase - CORRECT ANSWER C. Choices A, B and D are true statements. Choice C is false (and the correct answer); β-oxidation occurs in the mitochondrial matrix and fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in the cytoplasm.
slow twitch fibers - CORRECT ANSWER red muscle fibers that are slow to contract but have the ability to continue contracting for long periods of time
have high[mitochondria]
why are these not tautomers? - CORRECT ANSWER only electrons have moved.
structural isomers must have diff bond formation
for example, moving hydrogen from CH3 to oxygen while pushing the oxygen electrons down to form carbonyl
The serotonin transporter (or SERT) removes serotonin from the synaptic cleft and recycles it back into the presynaptic cell. It thus terminates the effects of serotonin and this mechanism has been targeted in treatments for alcoholism, clinical depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and hypertension. SERT spans the plasma membrane 12 times and is also a:
A. glycosylated phospholipid, with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
B. peptide chain with at least four levels of protein structure, held together by disulphide and peptide bonds.
C. protein with twelve hydrophobic domains, none of which contain the amino acid proline and at least some of which contain -sheets stabilized by covalent bonds.
D. protein with twelve transmembrane domains, each of which is an -helix with no proline and external hydrophobic residues, stabilized by hydrogen bonds. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Membrane transport is mediated by proteins, not phospholipids (eliminate choice A). All proteins have at least three levels of protein structure, but only some have quaternary structure. There is no information in the question stem to support the fact that SERT contains more than one peptide chain (eliminate choice B). Transmembrane domains are -helices with external hydrophobic residues. They cannot contain proline because of its secondary amine structure. Both -helices and -sheets are stabilized by hydrogen bonds, not covalent bonds (eliminate choice C, choice D is correct).
Trial 2
At 25°C, 50.0 mL of 2.0 M NaOH was combined with 50.0 mL of 2.0 M HCl. The mixture temperature was recorded as 71°C.
If a neutralization similar to Trial 2 were performed with the same molar values of NaOH and acetic acid, which of the following results is the most likely to occur?
A. A higher temperature due to a larger |ΔH|
B. A lower temperature due to a larger |ΔH|
C. A higher temperature due to a smaller |ΔH|
D. A lower temperature due to a smaller |ΔH|
If Trial 2 were performed with 25.0 mL of NaOH instead of 50.0 mL, the resulting solution would have: A. pH < 1
B. T = 71°C
C. [H3O+] = [OH-]
D. the same ΔH
the heat capacity of the calorimeter system (including the lid, thermometer, and stirring bar while holding 1200 mL of water) was determined before conducting any experimental trials. It was known that when mixed in a 1:1 ratio, the stock solutions would release 4.5 kJ per 100 mL of fin - CORRECT ANSWER D. This is a 2 × 2 style question, and in this case two choices can be eliminated for being internally inconsistent. If the ΔH is larger for an exothermic reaction, more energy will be given off, resulting in a larger increase in temperature (eliminate choice B). Similarly, if less energy is given off, the temperature change should be smaller (eliminate choice C). The heat of neutralization is defined as the enthalpy change resulting from 1 mole of water being produced from the reaction H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l). Since weak acids (like acetic acid) are only partially ionized, their neutralization by a strong base will not result in an equal production of water molecules compared with a strong acid/strong base neutralization (eliminate choice A).
A. Only 0.05 mol of NaOH is added (instead of 0.1 mol). Therefore, only half of the HCl will be neutralized (so [H3O+] > [OH-], eliminate choice C), less heat is liberated (eliminate choice D), and the temperature will not increase as much (eliminate choice B). Although not necessary to answer the question, here's the calculation to show that choice A is indeed correct: 0.05 mol of HCl remains active—in 0.075 L of solution—after the addition of the (reduced amount of) NaOH; since HCl is a strong acid, this means [H+] = (0.05 mol)/(0.075 L) = 2/3 M, which is greater than 0.1 M. As a result, -log[H+] will be less than 1.
D. The passage tells us (in the Calibration section) that Q is 4.5 kJ (since we used 100 mL), and ΔTcalibration is 35°C - 25°C = 10°C. Therefore, the heat capacity is CP = Q/ΔTcalibration = (4.5 kJ)/(10°C), eliminating choices A and B. The value of ΔT in Trial 1 was 38°C - 25°C = 13°C, so the heat evolved was Q = CPΔT = (4.5 kJ)/(10°C) × 13°C = (13/10) × 4.5 kJ (eliminate choice C).
Can glucogenic amino acids be converted into glucose?
A. Yes: pyruvate and oxaloacetate can be converted directly into glyceraldehyde-3-P, which is a major intermediate in both gluconeogenesis and glycolysis.
B. Yes: pyruvate and Krebs cycle intermediates can be converted into oxaloacetate, then phosphoenolpyruvate, which can enter gluconeogenesis.
C. No: pyruvate and Krebs cycle intermediates are formed as part of glucose breakdown and this process is important to generate ATP for the cell.
D. No: glucose is obtained from the diet and stored in the liver; it cannot be made as a new molecule because cellular respiration has several steps with a -ΔG - CORRECT ANSWER B. This is a typical two by two question. The passage says that glucogenic amino acids are broken down into citric acid cycle intermediates or pyruvate. The Krebs cycle regenerates oxaloacetate (OAA), and in the first step of gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is also converted into OAA (by the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase). OAA is converted into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) by the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (or PEPCK). Gluconeogenesis can then continue to run, and will generate glucose from these non-carbohydrate precursor molecules (choice B is correct). Although glyceraldehyde-3-P is a major intermediate in both gluconeogenesis and glycolysis, pyruvate and oxaloacetate cannot be converted directly into this molecule (choice A is incorrect). Both choices C and D are incorrect because they start with "No"; as discussed above, glucogenic amino acids can be converted into glucose (choices C and D are wrong).
The standard potential for the reaction K+ + e- K(s) equals -2.93 V, as referenced against 2H+ + 2e- H2(set to 0.0 V by definition). If solid potassium is placed into an aqueous solution of HCl, then:
A. H2(g) and KCl(aq) are produced.
B. Cl2(g) and KCl(aq) are produced.
C. Cl2(g), H2(g), and KCl(aq) are produced.
D. no reaction occurs. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Since the reduction of K+ as given in the question has a potential more negative than the reduction of H+, the oxidation of K(s) to K+ with transfer of electrons to H+ will have a positive potential and be spontaneous. This eliminates choice D. Hydrochloric acid (HCl, a strong acid) will dissociate nearly completely in water into H+ and Cl-. In the presence of a reducing agent (K), H+ ions can accept electrons and be reduced to H2, and K+ and Cl- will remain in solution. Since there is no oxidant which can accept the extra electron from Cl-, Cl2 will not be formed, eliminating choices B and C.
The amphoteric character of amino acids best explains their ability to:
A. form dipolar ions.
B. form peptide bonds.
C. contribute directly to a protein's secondary structure.
D. dissolve in nonpolar solvents - CORRECT ANSWER A. The amphoteric character of amino acids describes their ability to do two things: accept a proton or donate a proton. In other words, amino acids can act as either an acid or a base. When the amino portion of an amino acid deprotonates its own carboxylic acid, a dipolar ion (or zwitterion) forms. This is a direct result of the amphoteric character of the amino acid.
Which of the following would be the most effective method to determine if transcription of a gene had been silenced?
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. ELISA
C. RT-PCR
D. DNA sequencin - CORRECT ANSWER C. RT-PCR uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA from mRNA. The cDNA can then amplified, and then tested for. This is the only method listed that can be used to test for the presence of mRNA and determine if transcription of the gene is occurring or not (choice C is correct). Both DNA Fingerprinting and DNA Sequencing are methods used to analyze DNA sequences; this does not provide information about transcription (choices A and D can be eliminated). While ELISA could be used to test for the presence of a protein product, it would not be the best test to use in this situation (choice B is incorrect). The absence of a protein could be due to a variety of reasons, including problems with translation, protein degradation, etc. Thus, RT-PCR would be a better method to specifically test for gene expression (i.e., transcription).
coercive organizations - CORRECT ANSWER organizations that people do not voluntarily join, such as prison or a mental hospital
McDonaldization - CORRECT ANSWER the process by which the principles of the fast-food restaurant are coming to dominate more and more sectors of American society as well as of the rest of the world
differential association theory - CORRECT ANSWER learning theory of deviance in which individuals learn deviance in proportion to number of deviant acts they are exposed to
a theory that states individuals learn deviant behavior from those close to them who provide models of and opportunities for deviance
labeling theory - CORRECT ANSWER symbolic interactionism:
self-identity and the behavior of individuals may be determined or influenced by the terms used to describe or classify them
^self fulfilling prophecy
^stereotyping
xenophobia - CORRECT ANSWER a fear or hatred of foreigners or strangers
egalitarian - CORRECT ANSWER promoting equal rights for all people
Symbolic Interactionism - CORRECT ANSWER a micro-level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behind people's actions
George Mead- I and the me
Charles Cooley- looking-glass self is a social psychological concept stating that a person's self grows out of society's interpersonal interactions and the perceptions of others.
It is described as our reflection of how we think we appear to others.
avoidance learning - CORRECT ANSWER the process by which one learns to perform a behavior in order to ensure that a negative or aversive stimulus will not be present
operant conditioning
attachment styles - CORRECT ANSWER secure: comfortable with intimacy and autonomy (child distressed but easily comforted)
anxious resistant or dismissive-avoidant: strongly independent
anxious-preoccupied: dependent on others for self worth
anxious-avoidant: fear intimacy (child doesnt care mother left)
Kohlberg's - CORRECT ANSWER stages of moral development
preconventional: punishment/obedience, based on selfishnesss
conventional: please others, law/order
postconventional: personal values
one acetylCoA ATP yield - CORRECT ANSWER TCA from one AcetylCoA produces 10 ATP
glycolysis ATP yield - CORRECT ANSWER 25 ATP from 2 pyruvate
2 ATP + 3-5 (depending on NADH shuttle) = 5-7 ATP from glycolysis
= 30-32 ATP aerobic respiration total
Fatty Acid Biosynthesis - CORRECT ANSWER Occurs in liver and the products are transported to adipose tissue for storage
Major enzymes: acetyl-CoA carboxylase and fatty acid synthase (stimulated by insulin)
Primary end product: palmitic acid (palmitate)
fatty acid catabolism DO WHITEBOARD - CORRECT ANSWER •Takes place in mitochondria
•CoA carries the fatty acid chain as it is degraded
•NADH, FADH2 are produced
•Going down; removing 2 carbons
ATP yield - CORRECT ANSWER
fermentation (anaerobic respiration) - CORRECT ANSWER the breakdown of sugars without the use of oxygen, regenerate NAD+ so glycolysis can continue
insulin, glucagon, somatostatin - CORRECT ANSWER pancreas peptide hormones
a cells-glucagon
b cells-insulin
somatostatin is a growth hormone inhibiting hormone
gluconeogenesis enzymes - CORRECT ANSWER pyruvate carboxylase with 2 ATP and HCO3- (2 pyruvate into 2 OAA)
Rate limiting step: PEP carboxykinase with 2 GTP (loss of CO2; 2 OAA into 2 PEP)
2 atp and 2 NADH used
fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase produce 1 ATP (1 F1,6BP into F6P)
thyroid hormone - CORRECT ANSWER increases basic metabolic rate
peptide hormone but is the exception to extracellular signalling. Thyroid hormone go across membrane via facilitated diffusion
DNA gyrase - CORRECT ANSWER Prokaryotic topoisomerase
acetic acid - CORRECT ANSWER CH3COOH
spirometry - CORRECT ANSWER
polarized light - CORRECT ANSWER electric field and magnetic field are perpendicular to eachother.
An electromagnetic wave such as light consists of a coupled oscillating electric field and magnetic field which are always perpendicular to each other; by convention, the "polarization" of electromagnetic waves refers to the direction of the electric field
by convention, the "polarization" of electromagnetic waves refers to the direction of the electric field. I
mitotic spindle - CORRECT ANSWER An assemblage of microtubules and associated proteins that is involved in the movements of chromosomes during mitosis.
Meiosis and aneuploidy - CORRECT ANSWER Cell division that produces reproductive cells in sexually reproducing organisms
reduction potential - CORRECT ANSWER most positive is the best
most negative is better oxidized
gravitational force - CORRECT ANSWER an attractive force that acts between any two masses
F=Gm1m2/r2
endothermic reaction - CORRECT ANSWER positive deltaH
spontaneous reaction - CORRECT ANSWER all spontaneous ractions increase entropy
speed of sound
doppler eqaution - CORRECT ANSWER 340 m/s
f-f'(v+-Vd)/(v+-Vs)
enzyme inhibition - CORRECT ANSWER .
where does fatty acid synthesis occur - CORRECT ANSWER Fatty acids are synthesized in the cytosol, whereas acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvate in mitochondria. Hence, acetyl CoA must be transferred from mitochondria to the cytosol. Mitochondria, however, are not readily permeable to acetyl CoA. Recall that carnitine carries only long-chain fatty acids
Muscle Fiber Types and energy sources - CORRECT ANSWER slow twitch I ox (red)
Fast twitch IIA ox & glyc (red)
IIB glycolytic
fastest: creatine phosphate in skeletal muscle
long term anaerobic glycolysis and
long term aerobic resp. switch off: high [myoglobin] to store oxygen in muscle cells
skin innervation - CORRECT ANSWER sympathetic AcH and AcH
vasoconstriction
diaphragm innervation - CORRECT ANSWER somatic
immunity - CORRECT ANSWER
heart sounds - CORRECT ANSWER lub: AV valves close-systole beginning
dub: semilunar valves close-diastole beginning
tricuspid bicuspid
highly specialized cardiac cells - CORRECT ANSWER autorythmic cells with leaking Na+ channel
SA node is pacemaker
AV node delays impulse so that atrium can fully contract
Proto-oncogenes - CORRECT ANSWER the corresponding normal cellular genes that are responsible for normal cell growth and division
-if mutated will turn into oncogenes which permanantly activate cell cycle
Why is there a G1 S checkpoint? - CORRECT ANSWER The primary G1/S cell cycle checkpoint controls the commitment of eukaryotic cells to transition through the G1 phase to enter into the DNA synthesis S phase
colligative properties - CORRECT ANSWER properties of a solution that depend only on the number of particles dissolved in it, not the properties of the particles themselves. The main ones are boiling point elevation and freezing point depression.
vant hoff factor= number of ions produced from single dissolved molecule
adrenal medulla
adrenal cortex - CORRECT ANSWER innervated by SNS: epinephrine and norepinephrine PEPTIDE hormones
secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones
intensity of stimulus - CORRECT ANSWER frequency of action potentials
can only increase number of impulses. cant increase strength of one AP
VIRUSES - CORRECT ANSWER
The degradation of connective tissue components in emphysema is most likely caused by which of the following?
A. Proteases
B. Lipases
C. Monoanime oxidases
D. Glycoside hydrolases - CORRECT ANSWER A. The connective tissue components damaged in emphysema include collagen and elastin, which are extracellular proteins. Choice A is correct. Therefore, proteases released from the alveolar macrophages would be the culprits. Lipases degrade lipids (choice B can be eliminated), monoanime oxidases degrade certain neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and epinephrine (choice C can be eliminated), and glycoside hydrolases degrade carbohydrates (choice D can be eliminated).
steroid hormones - CORRECT ANSWER hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex
secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones
In a male individual with Down's Syndrome (trisomy 21), how many chromosomes would be visible at metaphase I of spermatogenesis?
A. 23
B. 24
C. 46
D. 47 - CORRECT ANSWER D. An individual with trisomy 21 has an extra copy of chromosome 21 (three total copies). During metaphase I, the developing gametes are still diploid (separation of homologues has not yet occurred), so this individual would have the normal 46 chromosomes plus the extra copy of chromosome 21, for a total of 47 chromosomes (choice D is correct; eliminate choices A, B and C).
Thirteen amino acids, including methionine, valine and proline, are glucogenic in humans. This means their α-keto acid carbon skeleton is converted to pyruvate during amino acid catabolism. After deamination, valine can therefore:
I. Be converted into CO2 and H2O to generate ATP.
II. Generate at least three NADH and two FADH2.
III. Enter gluconeogenesis to generate glucose. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Item I is true: Amino acids are catabolized via deamination into α-keto acids and ammonia. Based on the information in the question stem, the α-keto acid formed from valine will be converted to pyruvate. Pyruvate can keep going through cellular respiration to generate CO2, H2O and ATP. Eliminate choice B. Item II is false: Pyruvate is converted into one acetyl-CoA (during which 1 NADH is made), and the acetyl-CoA would then generate three NADH and only one FADH2 as it cycles through the Krebs cycle. Eliminate choice C. Item III is true: Pyruvate can also enter gluconeogenesis to generate glucose. Eliminate choice A and choice D is correct.
cell size of G2/M border is inhibited - CORRECT ANSWER smaller cell since would enter mitosis early
allosteric regulation - CORRECT ANSWER The binding of a regulatory MOLECULE to a protein at one site that affects the function of the protein at a different site.
this is not protein assocaition
Which of the following would be true about cis-oleic acid, a monounsaturated fatty acid with the formula CH3(CH2)7(CH)2(CH2)7COOH?
A. It will generate approximately 119 ATP after 9 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain.
B. It will generate approximately 119 ATP after 8 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain.
C. It will generate 90 ATP after 9 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain.
D. It will generate 90 ATP after 8 rounds of β-oxidation, followed by the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Recognize the ability to treat this question as a 2x2 elimination. cis-Oleic acid has 18 carbons and thus will undergo 8 rounds of β-oxidation (eliminate choices A and C). This will generate 9 molecules of acetyl-CoA, 8 molecules of NADH and 7 molecules of FADH2 since it is a monounsaturated fatty acid. Each of the 9 acetyl-CoAs will go through the Krebs cycle and this will generate 27 NADH (which will give 67.5 ATP), 9 FADH2 (which will give 13.5 ATP) and 9 GTPs (9 ATP equivalents). This means the acetyl-CoAs alone generate 90 ATP equivalents. Since the NADH and FADH2 made in β-oxidation will generate even more ATP, the total will exceed 90 (eliminate choice D and choice B is correct). The 8 molecules of NADH made in β-oxidation will lead to 20 ATP and the 7 FADH2 will give 10.5. Also remember that fatty acid activation (which must occur before β-oxidation) costs the cell two high energy bonds, or ATP equivalents. This means the electron carriers made in β-oxidation will give a net yield of 28.5 ATP. Overall then, cis-oleic acid will generate 118.5 ATP molecules. [Show Less]