PSI 2 Exam Questions and Answers 2023/24
A 68-year-old patient with a recent diagnosis of mild transient ischemic attack has been placed on aspirin, 325
... [Show More] mg PO daily
with food. The patient develops an aspirin allergy. You would discontinue aspirin and:
1. change to clopidogrel (Plavix).
2. change to valproic acid (Depakote).
3. refer for immediate endarterectomy.
4. change to butalbital.
To assess ability to think abstractly, you could ask the patient:
1. the meaning of a common proverb.
2. what action would be taken if there was a fire in the house.
3. to count backward from 100 by 7s.
4. to spell a word backward.
A 29-year-old male with noncomplicated Chlamydia infection may exhibit:
1. urticaria.
2. no remarkable clinical symptoms.
3. a green mucoid penile discharge.
4. a penile ulcer.
Which class of antihypertensive agents has been associated with acute renal failure, and is absolutely CONTRAINDICATED
in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis?
1. Calcium channel blockers
2. Thiazide diuretics
3. Potassium-sparing diuretics
4. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Which of the following statements about preventive health care for the elderly is incorrect?
1. Femoral fractures are more often caused by uncoordinated muscle action than by the impact of a fall.
2. Elderly people usually have adequate insurance coverage.
3. Exercise has been demonstrated to reduce mortality from cardiovascular disease.
4. Caloric needs are reduced in the elderly.
An 18-year-old patient presents with complaints of maxillary facial pain and yellow nasal discharge for 14 days. What is
the appropriate initial pharmacologic intervention?
1. Amoxicillin
2. Diphenhydramine
3. Doxycycline
4. Erythromycin
The management of COPD in the elderly is best guided by:
1. pulse oximetry.
2. arterial blood gases.
3. radiologic imaging.
4. symptomatology.
An 87-year-old long-term care facility resident was hospitalized for an abdominal surgery procedure, and the incision has
become infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The hospital is planning to return the patient to
the same facility, which has no private rooms. According to CDC guidelines, the alternative placement would be to:
1. have the patient share a room with a resident who also has MRSA.
2. inform the hospital that the patient will have to go to another facility.
3. delay discharge until the infection has been resolved.
4. have the patient share a room with a resident who is infected with vancomycin-resistant enterococci.
A 65-year-old overweight patient is diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. Initial therapy of NSAIDs, stretching, ice, and rest has
proven ineffective after 3 weeks. The best follow-up plan of care would be to:
1. continue the NSAIDs, X-ray the foot, and apply a short-leg night splint.
2. continue the NSAIDs, X-ray the foot, and apply a metatarsal bar.
3. continue the NSAIDs, apply an orthotic arch support, and encourage weight loss through diet and exercise.
4. discontinue the NSAIDs, apply an orthotic heel cup, and begin a weight loss program.
A 55-year-old patient exhibits a verified serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL [normal = 8.9-10.2 mg/dL]. The next step in
determining the presence of pathology is to order a:
1. parathyroid hormone level.
2. 24-hour urine for creatinine clearance.
3. BUN and serum creatinine.
4. thyroid panel.
After a 3-week camping trip, a 17-year-old is seen for a target lesion with central clearing, located in the inguinal area. The
patient has had a severe headache, malaise, fatigue, and generalized musculoskeletal pain for several days.
Pharmacologic management of this condition includes:
1. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim).
2. azithromycin (Zithromax).
3. metronidazole (Flagyl).
4. doxycycline (Doryx).
A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 complains of midcycle spotting. She has not missed
any doses and uses no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?
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