Portage Learning AP2 All Answers 1-6 Questions and Answers
Pre Exam
Identify the parts of the neuron shown in the diagram below
g. Node of
... [Show More] Ranvier
h. axon terminal
a. dendrite
List the four parts of the human brain
The human brain is made up of the cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, brain stem, and cerebellum.
List and describe the 3 meninges of the human brain.
The leathery dura mater is the double-layered outer meninx.
The middle arachnoid meninx is a loose layer separated from the dura mater by the subdural space. The inner pia mater meninx is composed of connective tissue and is tightly attached to the brain.
Using the image below, identify the following six items: D: Right atrium
Q: Pulmonary semilunar valve I: Right ventricle
N: Left pulmonary artery T: Left ventricle
M: Aorta
Answer the following three questions: List the four major heart chambers.
Left & right atria, left & right ventricle
The QRS complex represents what? Ventricular depolarization (systole)
Define Diastole.
the heart is relaxing and filling with blood.
List 3 functions of the female reproductive system.
The female reproductive system has the following functions: eggs and estrogen production as well as serving as the site for the development of a baby after fertilization of an egg occurs.
Name the three types of ligaments associated with the ovaries and the function of each. The ovaries are held in place by the suspensory, ovarian, and broad ligaments.
The suspensory ligaments attach the ovaries to the pelvis wall. The ovarian ligaments attach the ovaries to the uterus.
The broad ligaments hold the ovaries in place in the pelvis.
Match the description with its corresponding structure. Structure:
Sperm midpiece l. Supplies locomotive energy for sperm Vas deferens a. Connects seminal vesicle to ejaculatory duct Bulbourethral gland h. Secretes urine-clearing mucus Endoderm c. Liver producing layer of blastocyst
Tell whether each of the following describes mitosis or meiosis:
Can occur to cause growth in humans mitosis
One division cycle mitosis
Crossing-over occurs meiosis
Two daughter cells are produced mitosis
Produces cells which are genetically identical to the parent mitosis
Each tRNA is attached to its amino acid by :
a. RNA polymerase
b. tRNA synthetase
c. DNA polymerase
d. ribozyme
Does transcription or translation occur primarily in the nucleus? Transcription Which requires ribozyme, transcription or translation?
Translation
Amino acids are transferred from one tRNA to another during translation or transcription? Translation
If a codon reads: AUC, what is the correct anticodon? UAG
Describe the location of the right kidney and why it lies lower than the left kidney.
The right kidney is located in the lumbar region between the T-12 and L-3 vertebra. It lies lower than the left kidney because of the liver's location just above it.
What volume of blood per minute flows to the kidney and why is there such a large volume flowing to the kidney?
About 1200 ml of blood per minute of blood flows into the kidney so that all of the blood can be filtered.
Answer the following:
You are treating a patient in the hospital who was admitted with signs of orthostatic hypotension (decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, lightheaded) secondary to having severe diarrhea and dehydration. Which of the following would you expect to be their GFR (glomerular filtration rate) given their symptoms? Explain your answer.
a. 85 ml/min.
b. 120 ml/min.
c. 142 ml/min
a. 85 ml/min. Dehydration decreases glomerular filtration rate.
Explain, in detail, how the cardiovascular baroceptors work to maintain blood pressure.
The cardiovascular baroceptors monitor and regulate blood volume (which is influenced directly by Na+ ion concentration) to maintain blood pressure. If blood volume (and consequently blood pressure) rises, the baroceptors signal the kidney causing a dramatic increase in the filtration rate, increasing the output of water and Na+ which reduces blood volume to quickly normalize the pressure.
Describe what occurs in extreme acidosis and alkalosis.
If acidosis causes the blood pH to drop below 7.0, the central nervous system is markedly depressed causing coma and imminent death.
If alkalosis causes the blood pH to rise above 7.8, the nervous system is markedly excited causing extreme nervousness, muscle contraction, convulsion and death usually due to cessation of breathing.
Module 1 Exam
Answer the following questions.
Which nervous system contains the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions?
a. Central nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Autonomic nervous system
e. Sympathetic nervous system
f. Parasympathetic nervous system
If you were hiking in the woods and came across a mountain lion, which division of your nervous system would have increased activity? Explain your answer.
(my answer- can type exactly as is) The sympathetic system which activates and prepares the body for vigorous muscular activity, stress and emergencies.
Identify the parts of the neuron shown in the diagram below
b. cell body c. nucleus d. axon
Answer the following questions.
If you were to touch a hot iron, map out (in detail) the nervous pathway that would signal your body to remove your hand from the iron.
Receptors in the skin generate nerve impulses, which move along the dendrite of a sensory neurons toward the cell body and the central nervous system. The cell body of a sensory neuron is located in the dorsal- root ganglion outside the spinal cord. From the cell body, the impulses travel along the axon of the necessary nerve. The impulses then pass to many interneurons, one of which connects with a motor neuron. The short dendrites and the cell body of the body lead to the axon, which leaves the cord by way fo the ventral root of the spinal nerve. The nerve impulses travel along the axon to the muscles fibers which then contract so that you withdraw your hand from the hot object.
The nerve impulse travels across this area to the dendrite of another neuron
a. Node of Ranvier
b. Cell body
c. Dendrite
d. Axon
e. Schwann cell
f. Synapse
This type of neuroglial cell protects the central nervous system by scavenging dead cells.
a. Ependymal cell
b. Oligodendrocyte
c. Astrocyte
d. Microglial cell
This type of neuron is found as receptors cells in the visual and olfactory systems.
a. Multipolar neuron
b. Bipolar neuron
c. Unipolar neuron
d. Motor neuron
e. Interneuron
True or False: A sensory neuron is signaling the body of EXTREME pain. This means that the strength of the action potential is greater than usual.
False – there is no variation in the strength of action potentials. There is variation in the number of neurons firing.
Describe what is occurring at the axon cell membrane during the phase described in section 1 of the diagram.
Both the sodium and potassium gates that control the relative charges on sides of the membrane are closed.
The Oculomotor nerve is one of the cranial nerves. What type of nerve is it and what does it control?
It is a motor nerve that is responsible for eye movement.
The phrenic nerve is one of spinal nerves. What is its function?
The phrenic nerve supplies both motor and sensory fibers to the diaphragm
List the 3 parts of the diencephalon
It's made up of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus.
Describe the functions of the 4 lobes of the brain.
1. Frontal- controls motor functions and allows us to control our muscles consciously.
2. parietal- Receives information from receptors located in the skin, like those used for touch, pressure and pain.
3. Temporal- sensory areas for hearing and smelling
4. Occipital: interprets visual input
Describe the 3 spinal cord meninges and their associated tissues and fluids.
The outer meninx, a single layer called the spinal dural (mater) sheath is separated from the vertebral column by a cushioning fat-filled epidural space. The space between the middle arachnoid and inner pia mater meninges is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
Explain the steps in the hearing process.
Hearing is caused by (1) sound waves passing into the external auditory canal and (2) causing the ear drum to vibrate which (3) transmits the vibrations to the ossicles which (4) push against fluid in the cochlear duct which
(5) causes the hairs in the organ of Corti to move which (6) stimulates nearby neurons to (7) send impulses through the cochlear nerve to the brain.
One of your patients has suffered a stroke. You notice that their gait is very unsteady. It almost appears as if they are intoxicated. What portion of the brain was most likely affected by the stroke? Explain your answer.
The cerebellum was most likely affected as it is responsible for coordinating body movements including gait.
If someone sustains an injury to the anterior spinal cord, would you be more likely to see muscular weakness/paralysis or decreased sensation? Explain your answer.
Damage to the anterior horn cells result in the in paralysis of the associated skeletal muscles because nerve impulses cannot reach these muscles which will eventually begin to atrophy.
You would be more likely to see muscular weakness because motor neurons exit the spinal cord anteriorly.
Module 2 Exam
Using the terms given below, put each of the following vessels and structures in the order in which the blood travels through them from a capillary in the finger to the lungs to be oxygenated and then back to a capillary in the finger.
Terms:
right ventricle, artery, vein, left ventricle, venule, right atrium, arteriole, left atrium, vena cava, aorta, pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, tricuspid valve, mitral valve, aortic valve, pulmonic valve
Start Capillary in finger
1 venule
2 vein
3 vena cava
4 right atrium
5 tricuspid valve
6 right ventricle
7 pulmonic valve
8 pulmonary artery
Oxygenation Lungs
9 pulmonary veins
10 left atrium
11 mitral valve
12 left ventricle
13 aortic valve
14 aorta
15 artery
16 arteriole
Finish Capillary in finger
Answer the following five questions:
Which vessels actually feed the heart itself?
A. aorta
B. cardiac vessels
C. coronary arteries
D. vena cava
The electrical impulse that controls cardiac muscle contraction physically originates in:
A. R atrium
B. L ventricle
C. Both ventricles
D. The septum
Which vessel should have the strongest pulse?
A. Artery in the finger
B. superior vena cava
C. vein in the leg
D. Artery in the neck
Three functions of the lymphatic system include:
transporting excess tissue fluid back to the blood include various glands and organs, like the spleen
providing immunological defenses against disease-causing agents.
What cavity in the thoracic cavity contains the heart? Pericardial cavity
Using the image below, identify the following six items:
C: pulmonary trunk H: tricuspid valve
L: inferior vena cava P: left pulmonary veins
Q: pulmonary semilunar valve X: visceral pericardium
B: right pulmonary artery F: fossa ovalis
O: left atrium M: aorta
S: aortic semilunar valve W: myocardium
Answer the following questions:
A patient is suspected to have pulmonary edema due to heart failure. Which side of the heart would be in failure? Explain your answer.
Left sided heart failure tends to cause pulmonary edema, or a back up of fluid in lungs known as congestive heart failure.
A patient has a diagnosis of right sided heart failure. Which of the following signs/symptoms would they most likely present with?
a. Shortness of breath at rest
b. Swollen ankles
c. All of the above
B. right sided heart disease tends to cause peripheral edema or a back up of fluids in the body/limbs.
Answer the following three questions:
Explain the difference between plasma and serum.
The plasma, liquid portion of blood and the "cells" or formed elements consists of red and white cells and platelets. Serum is identical to plasma except that the clotting proteins have been removed.
The heart is innervated by nerves.
A. sympathetic
B. neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic
C. parasympathetic
D. both parasympathetic and sympathetic
Which WBC cell stains dark pink? Eosinophils
Answer the question.
A patient is experiencing pooling of blood in their lower legs due to venous insufficiency (a.k.a. bad valves.) What is a physical exercise that they could do to help assist in increasing the blood flow back to the heart? Explain your answer.
They could do ankle pumps which would utilize the skeletal calf muscles to aid with pushing the blood upward since the valves can no longer prevent back flow. Any lower extremity exercise with an explanation of the skeletal muscle pump is an acceptable answer, i.e. walking, calf raises, mini squats, etc
Answer the following three questions:
List the four major heart chambers.
left and right atria, left & right ventricle The QRS complex represents what? ventricular depolarization (systole) Define Diastole.
When the heart is relaxing and filling with blood.
Explain in detail why it may take longer for you to fight off the flu virus the first time this season than it would if you caught the same strain a second time.
Your body would take longer to fight it because there aren't any antibodies or memory B cells. Specific immune responses take several days to activate.
When the same pathogen enters the body again, the antibody immediately binds with the antigen and targets it for destruction.
Answer the following two questions:
Which type of immune cell continues to produce a small amount of antibody after the infection is over:
a. Killer T cells
b. memory T cells
c. memory B cells
d. cytokines
Interferon inhibits what type of infectious agent. Virus
Explain why antibodies are considered a specific immune response:
Antibodies react with specific antigens (foreign molecules)
Module 3 Exam
What cell is produced by union of a human egg and a human sperm cell and how many chromosomes does it possess?
A zygote cell is formed and it will have 46 chromosomes.
After human egg and sperm cells combine, by what process does the offspring grow in size?
The process it called mitosis where it develops into a human baby.
A pregnant woman is experiencing sudden sharp groin pain, based upon location of her symptoms, which of the following ligaments is being affected?
a. Broad ligament
b. Uterosacral ligament
c. Round ligament
A breastfeeding mother becomes pregnant with another child. The pediatrician recommends that she supplement her nursing child with formula. Explain why this recommendation was made.
This was recommended because milk will not be produced during pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone stops milk production
List 3 functions of the female reproductive system. Three functions are:
1. being the developmental site of a baby after egg fertilization occurs.
2. Producing eggs
3. Producing estrogen
Name the three types of ligaments associated with the ovaries and the function of each.
1. Broad ligaments- holds/keeps the ovaries in place in the pelvis
2. Ovarian ligaments- these attach the ovaries to the uterus
3. suspensory- attaches the ovaries to the pelvis wall.
Match the description with its corresponding structure. Structure:
1. Cervix
h. Protects fetus from bacteria
2. Fallopian tube
a. Captures egg during ovulation or e. fertilization site
3. Fundus
m. Upper part of uterus
4. Isthmus
d. End of oviduct closest to uterus
An older male patient reports to his doctor that he has recently been experiencing difficulty with urination. What might the doctor suspect is the problem? Explain your answer given what you know from the module in regards to the male anatomy.
The problem may be caused by an enlarged prostate gland. When this occurs it constricts the urethra which makes urination slow or difficult.
Enter the correct fetal trimester with each development process listed below. 3rd trimester fetus regulates its own body temperature
first trimester brain, spinal cord, and limbs begin to form 2nd trimester mother typically begins to feel fetal movement Define oogenesis and when it occurs in a human female.
Oogenesis is where the production of eggs occur.
Oogenesis occurs during the development of the fetus in the womb. It's completed by the time the baby is born.
Describe, in detail, the development of primary oocytes to form a fertilized egg.
When a females reaches puberty the anterior pituitary gland begins secreting FSH. On a monthly basis this hormone causes some follicle to mature and the primary oocyte has its first meiotic division into 2 daughter cells, which are the secondary oocyte and the first polar body. When the secondary oocyte pair with a sperm after ovulation the second meiotic division happens. This produces an ovum with 23 chromosomes and a second polar body. The combined chromosomes of the ovum and the sperm form a fertilized egg that has 46 chromosomes.
What is the identity and source of the substance that causes a positive home pregnancy test?
Corpus luteum simulation secretes progesterone by the blastocysts secreting HCG, which in turn yields a positive pregnancy.
Describe, in detail, the structure and function of mature sperm.
The accessory organs of the male reproductive system (epididymis, vas deferens, and urethra) are in the duct system. The duct system provides a
place where sperm can mature and are eventually released from the body. The testes produce sperm which are matured in the epididymis. The epididymis are tightly coiled tubules that start at the superior end of the testes and eventually move inferiorly along the posterior lateral side of the testes. In order for sperm to be able to swim the must mature because the swimming process can last about 20 days.
After maturing they move to the vas deferens by muscular contractions. The vas deferens moves superiorly through the inguinal canal and turns posteriorly over the bladder and finally descends inferiorly to the base of the prostate gland. This is where the duct of the seminal vesicle connects to form the ejaculatory duct. Which then connects the urethra which is where the sperm leaves the body.
The spermatic cord is where the vas deferens and it surrounds the vas deferens as well as other blood vessels and nerves. The smooth muscles in the vas deferens contract when males become sexually aroused. Sperm then enters the urethra.
For fertilization to take place, why must sexual intercourse take place in the period that starts two days before and ends one day after ovulation?
Sexual intercourse has to happen within this timeframe because sperm is viable for 3-5 days after ejaculation and an egg can survive for unto 24 hours after ovulation.
What is the term used to describe the production of sperm and how
long does this take?
Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm and it can take between 64-72 days.
Match the description with its corresponding structure. Structure:
Spermatogonia
k. Sperm-producing stem cells
Spongy urethra
e. Runs through penis to external opening
Acrosome
b. Contains enzymes that break down egg membrane Ectoderm
i. Skin producing layer of blastocyst
Module 4 Exam
While watching a single cell divide, you notice that it has produced two daughter cells which then divide to produce a total of four cells. Each of those four cells is genetically identical to the original single cell. Have you observed mitosis or meiosis?
mitosis
In a cell there are 23 double stranded chromosomes. How many chromatids are there? 46
For the first three questions on this page, answer true or false:
Mitosis produces daughter cells which are haploid. FALSE
The diploid number contains two chromosomes of each kind. TRUE
Sex cells are haploid.
TRUE
Fill in the blank:
The haploid number in humans is 23
A cell has 28 chromosomes. After it divides by meiosis, how many chromosomes will be in each cell? 14
Tell whether each of the following describes mitosis or meiosis:
Occurs only to produce new offspring meiosis
One division cycle mitosis
Crossing-over occurs meisis
Four daughter cells are produced. meiosis
Produces cells which are genetically identical to the parent mitosis
Identify each phase of mitosis below (prophase, metaphase, anaphase or telophase). Use each phase once:
Microtubules attach to each centromere. metaphase
New nuclear membranes form.
telophase
Chromatids separate and move toward opposite poles. anaphase
The nuclear membrane breaks down. prophase
The number of homologous pairs in humans is 22
For the following four questions on this page, answer true or false:
Each homologous pair is made of chromosomes of the same length. true
Homologous pairs are present in haploid cells. false
Homologous pairs have their centromere at the same site. true
Homologous pairs are required for crossing-over to occur. true
Answer the following questions.
Based upon what you know from the module, explain why siblings with the same biological parents are not identical.
Siblings wouldn't be identical because the daughter cells produced in meiosis aren't genetically identical to one another or their parents. There are so many cells and different combination of cells can cause one sibling to be shorter and darker and another to be taller and lighter.
What is the benefit of sexual reproduction occurring via meiosis as opposed to mitosis?
The benefit would be that everyone continues to be different. They'll look and speak and act differently. With mitosis everyone would look exactly like their parents and there wouldn't be any changes with personalities, etc.
With meiosis there would always be variety. Not only that but meiosis is necessary to make offspring.
Match each of the following with either DNA or mRNA:
Forms a double helix- DNA Contains the codon- mRNA Is single stranded- mRNA
Can move from the nucleus to the ribosomes- mRNA Contains uracil- mRNA
What is the purpose of replication? to produce an identical copy of DNA
What is the purpose of translation?
to send the DNA code to the ribosomes for protein synthesis
What is the purpose of transcription?
to ensure the correct order of amino acids
Each tRNA is attached to its amino acid by :
a. RNA polymerase
b. tRNA synthetase
c. DNA polymerase
d. ribozyme
Does transcription or translation occur primarily in the nucleus? Transcription
Which requires ribozyme, transcription or translation? Translation
Amino acids are transferred from one tRNA to another during translation or transcription? Translation
If a codon reads: AUC, what is the correct anticodon? UAG
Tell if each of the following describes initiation, elongation, or termination.
The ribosome attaches to the mRNA strand initiation
A “stop” codon is reached on the mRNA termination
Peptide bonds form between two amino acids. elongation
Methionine is important in this process initiation
The ribosome continues to slide along the mRNA strand. elongation
Module 5 Exam
What are the functions of the four parts of the urinary system?
The functions of the urinary system are: fluid homeostasis, homeostasis of blood volume and chemical makeup, and filtration of wastes.
Name the 3 sections of the kidney and what structures are located in each.
1. Renal cortex: It contains the glomerular capsule. As well as the distal convoluted tubules and blood vessels.
2. Renal medulla: The loop of Henie is contained here. This collects ducts and blood vessels.
3. Renal pelvis: This connects to the ureter. It has extensions called calyces, which collects urine.
Match the description with its corresponding structure. Structure:
1. Peritubular capillaries
o. Low-pressure capillaries that follow nephron tubules
2. Proximal tubule
f. Connects glomerulus to Loop of Henle
3. Trigone
e. Center region of urinary bladder
4. Vasa recta capillary
c. Capillaries associated with juxtamedullary nephrons
Name the main functions of the kidneys.
Its main functions are to eliminate wastes from the body, control the concentration of water and soluble materials, regulate blood volume, pH and pressure, as well as to control levels of electrolytes.
What causes the very high pressure in the glomerular capillaries and what is the result
of this high pressure?
When the afferent arteriole is bigger in size/diameter that the efferent arteriole it causes high blood pressure.
You are treating a patient in the hospital who was admitted with signs of orthostatic hypotension (decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, lightheaded) secondary to having severe diarrhea and dehydration. Which of the following would you expect to be their GFR (glomerular filtration rate) given their symptoms? Explain your answer.
a. 85 ml/min.
b. 120 ml/min.
c. 142 ml/min
A. 85 ml/min. This is because dehydration decreases the glomerular filtration rate.
What type of filtration takes place in the glomerulus? What materials are prevented from moving through this filter and why?
Mechanical filtration takes place in the glomerulus. The materials that are prevented form moving through this filter are blood cells and most blood proteins. This is because the blood plasma has lost all water by retaining the plasma proteins in the capillaries because they keep the osmotic pressure of the glomerular blood.
It can retake/reclaim almost all of the water and Na+ when needed by abnormal blood
pressure or blood volume, low Na+ concentration, or high K+ concentration in the extracellular fluid. ADH secretion of the posterior pituitary, prompts the collecting ducts to be more permeable with the reabsorption of more water in the peritubular capillaries. Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. At the same time this causes an increase of water reabsorption and an increase in potassium ion secretion. via the Na+-K+ pump in the tubule cells.
Identify the parts of the urinary system/nephron shown in the diagrams below.
A2.
Ureter
B2.
Proximal tubule
B4.
Distal tubule
What are the 3 mechanisms that regulate the GFR by regulating the renal flow and what system causes each of these effects?
1. Renal autoregulation: Is caused by the kidneys.
2. nervous system control: This controls the sympathetic nervous system release of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla.
3. hormone control: This is caused by the release of renin by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Under what conditions and for what purpose is ADH released?
The posterior pituitary releases ADH, which stops urine output. This is caused by an increase in the channels of cells of the collecting ducts so water is able to pass easily into the surrounding interstitial space which causes the osmolarity of the filtrate to be equal to that of the interstitial fluid.
ADH is released as the body responds to conditions of dehydration. This includes excessive water loss caused by sweating, diarrhea, or reduced blood volume, blood pressure, or hemorrhages. The body retains up to 99% of the water filtrate, and only allows a very small amount of highly concentrate urine to be excreted.
If a patient is dehydrated would you expect a higher or lower amount of ADH in their blood? Explain your answer.
I would expect a high amount of ADH in the blood because dehydration causes the body to produce less urine by retaining up to 99% of the water filtrate. This causes only a small amount of highly concentrated urine to be excreted.
How is the normal density of urine affected by whether it is dilute or concentrated? The density of urine will be higher if it's concentrated or lower if it is diluted
Define micturition and explain it in detail.
Micturition "is the act of emptying the bladder. As urine accumulates the rugae flattens and the walls of the bladder thins out as it stretches." This allows the bladder to store more urine. (The rugae acts similarly here as it does in the stomach to stretch to hold more food.) The need to urinate begins when around 200ml of urine is held in the bladder. As the bladder fills more and more, the need/urge to urinate becomes "stronger and harder to ignore". Micturition occurs involuntarily if the amount of urine reaches 100% of the bladder's capacity.
Identify the parts of the urinary bladder shown in the diagram below.
2. detrusor muscle
4. fibrous connective tissue
6. trigone
Module 6 Exam
Answer the following:
Rank the following people in regards to the percentage of water in their body composition (assume that they are all healthy individuals) in a vertical list from lowest (at the top) to greatest (at the bottom).
1. 85 year old male
2. 23 year old female
3. 45 year old male
4. 6 month old female
Describe the order in which water is lost from the body compartments during dehydration. With dehydration, plasma and interstitial compartment is the first place water is lost. This then causes an osmotic flow of water from the intracellular compartment.
Describe the treatment for water intoxication and how this works to correct the condition.
To correct water intoxication it involves an IV treatment with hypertonic NaCl/saline solution which removes the excess water out of the cells.
What are the 2 main ways in which potassium balance is maintained?
1. The function of the cortical collecting ducts of the renal medulla
2. hormone aldosterone effect
Explain, in detail, how calcitonin and parathyroid hormones act to maintain calcium balance. Calcium balance is kept through the action of calcitonin and parathyroid hormones. This causes the reabsorption of calcium by the kidney, small intestines and bones. If there is a decrease in calcium levels the parathyroid glands will secrete PTH. This causes a major increase in calcium levels by:
• it activates bone digesting osteoclasts that release phosphate from the bones to the blood
• stimulate the small intestine to absorb Ca+2
• and increase the reabsorption of Ca+2 by the renal tubes
Explain, in detail, how the kidneys act to regulate pH by the excretion or reabsorption of bicarbonate. The major kidney acid base regulating process happens by excreting or reabsorbing bicarbonate ions. Loss of bicarbonate ion amounts to the loss of H+ since the reactions will shift to the right. This will cause the renal excretion of bicarbonate to result in the retention of H+, while also reabsorbing bicarbonate. This results in the excretion of H+. [Show Less]