Portage Final Exam BIOD 171
Portage
Final
Exam
BIOD 171
Final Exam
Attempt History
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Question 1
2 / 2 pts
* Some questions not yet graded
Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply.
Yeast
Correct!
Algae
Bacteria
Correct!
Amoeba
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form
tissue layers.
Correct!
True
False
Question 3
0 / 2 pts
The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply):
Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes
To produce energy (ATP)
Correct!
Protein synthesis
Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells.
Lipid synthesis
You Answered
Protein modification and distribution
Question 4
5 / 5 pts
Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description.
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Cell wall
E. Plasma membrane
F. Centriole
G. Lysosome
Correct!
1
Correct!
2
C
Correct!
3
Correct!
4
Correct!
5
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the
(select all that apply):
Correct!
Cell envelope
The cell wall is also known as the 'outer membrane' and does not apply. A capsid is relative to a
virus. The outer leaflet is only a partial description of the cell membrane.
Outer leaflet
Capsid
Cell wall
Question 6
0 / 2 pts
G
E
B
A
The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply):
Correct Answer
Protein modification and distribution
To produce energy (ATP)
Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes
You Answered
Lipid synthesis
Protein synthesis
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic.
True
Correct!
False
They are heterotropic.
Question 8
0 / 2 pts
How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate?
Correct Answer
1 ATP
You Answered
2 ATP
4 ATP
34 ATP
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy
sources? Select all that apply.
Carbohydrates
Correct!
Nucleic acids
Lactose
Fatty acid chains
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
True or False. The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the anabolism of fatty acid
chains.
True
Correct!
False
The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the catabolism of fatty acid chains.
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants.
Correct!
True
False
Question 12
0 / 2 pts
The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that
apply.
You Answered
CO2
You Answered
H2O
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Correct!
NADPH
Correct!
ATP
Question 13
Not yet graded / 5 pts
What is one of the main functions of light reactions?
Your Answer:
Its main function is to generate more energy in the form of ATP from the photons.
Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a
proton concentration gradient to generate ATP.
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light.
Correct!
True
The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in
photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.
False
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative
bacteria will appear colorless.
Correct!
True
Even together, the LPS and thin peptidoglycan layer are unable to retain the crystal violet dye
during decolorization.
False
Question 16
Not yet graded / 2 pts
Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.
Your Answer:
Ethanol or methanol.
Any of the following are true: Paraformaldehyde, ethanol or methanol.
Question 17
Not yet graded / 5 pts
You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique
that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.
Your Answer:
Simple strain. We can use safranin or fuschin dye can be used.
Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet,
safranin or fuschin.
Question 18
Not yet graded / 5 pts
You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to
the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you
would expect to see on the stained slide.
Your Answer:
We would expect to see the red cells (TB+) on the blue background which is TB
(negative). Useually red stain in the blue bacground confirms TB infection.
You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an
appropriate differential test to perform.
Correct!
True
Giemsa stains are often used in the clinical setting to aid in the diagnosis of blood parasites.
False
Question 20
Not yet graded / 5 pts
Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and
explain your choice.
Your Answer:
The image shown is captured by a TEM (Transmission Electron Microscope), Even the
image 20nm is visible and its subcellular structure is also visible. The image lacks the
outside "shell"as it can give 2D-images.
The above image is captured via a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Even
at 20nm resolution (inset image), subcellular substructures are still visible. The
image lacks the outside ‘shell’ only appearance of SEM.
Question 21
0 / 2 pts
True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population.
You Answered
True
Correct Answer
False
Question 22
Not yet graded / 5 pts
When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as
way as to form what?
Your Answer:
The dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should contain within the growth
of indiviual colonies.
We use back and forth motion to create growth .
A dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should always contain within
it the growth of individual colonies.
Question 23
Not yet graded / 5 pts
In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of
bacteria, P2 or P4?
Your Answer:
P4 (Phase 4) dilution will contain lowest concentration of bacteria compared to P2
(Phase 2).
The order are as follows: P1> P2> P3> P4. The P4 zone bacteria are weakened ,
thinned and diluted and are found in isolated colonies.
P4 (Phase 4) would contain the lowest concentration of bacteria. The phases rank
(from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4.
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used
for each phase.
Correct!
True
Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial
concentration would be spread across both phase regions.
False
Question 25
Not yet graded / 5 pts
The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a
previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens?
Your Answer:
We can accepth the either deviation, provided the resulting gradient contains within the
growth of individual colonies. If this is not seen than experiment will be repeated.
Either deviation is acceptable in practice provided the resulting gradient contains
within it the growth of individual colonies—if not, the experiment must be
repeated.
Question 26
2 / 2 pts
True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might
decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C.
Correct!
True
Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, so
researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth.
False
Question 27
Not yet graded / 5 pts
When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial
population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?
1. MSA agar
2. LB media
3. MacConkey agar
4. Columbia CNA agar
Your Answer:
LB media. The other options are forms of selective media, which means they inhibits the
growth of the unkown samples. the culture is expanded first and placed in selective agar
plates.
Correct Answer
LB media. All other options (A, C and D) are all forms of selective media, meaning
they may potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. The culture
should be first expanded and then place onto selective/differential agar plates.
Question 28
2 / 2 pts
True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the
bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults.
Correct!
True
The mature (adult) microbiota is capable of killing the bacteria/spores.
False
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus.
Correct!
True
Although the symptoms can be treated it is only to manage the discomfort not to cure.
False
Question 30
2 / 2 pts
The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by
Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria?
Tetanus
Botulism
Leprosy
Correct!
Gas gangrene
The bacterium that produces the alpha toxin perfringolysin is aptly named Clostridium
perfringens.
Question 31
2 / 2 pts
True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph
nodes.
True
Correct!
False
Pneumonic plague targets the respiratory system while bubonic targets the lymph system.
Question 32
5 / 5 pts
Identify the following disease:
Frost bite
Gas gangrene
Tetanus
Correct!
Anthrax
Anthrax—the distinct black center at the site of infection is a hallmark of anthrax infection.
Question 33
2 / 2 pts
True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar
plates alone.
True
Correct!
False
An obligate parasite requires a host (viable cells) to be present for its growth.
Question 34
2 / 2 pts
True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the
entire body.
True
Correct!
False
False. Unlike chickenpox blisters, which can form anywhere, the blisters associated with
shingles are localized and limited to small areas.
Question 35
Not yet graded / 5 pts
While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either
the Variola major or Variola minor viruses?
Your Answer:
No. This disease causing virus had been eradicated since October 1977. Due to global
vaccinnation effort, this disease is not active anymore. It is another name for small pox
virus. We should not be worried travelling due to these virus.
No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977. You would
not need to worry about coming into contact with the virus.
Question 36
Not yet graded / 5 pts
By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed?
Your Answer:
It was developed by Jonas Salk. This was developed in Moscow, Russia.
Jonas Salk and his research team developed the polio vaccine at the University of
Pittsburgh in 1955.
Question 37
Not yet graded / 5 pts
A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly
produced viral particles. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or
neuraminidase proteins? Why?
Your Answer:
Hemagglutinin protein would be the targets as they are directly involved in viral
attchment and entry into the host. Neuraminidase are involved in budding and release of
new viral particles, so they will not be a target.
Neuraminidase (N) proteins are directly involved in the budding and release of
new viral particles and would thus be the correct target. Hemagglutinin (HA)
proteins would not be advisable targets as they are directly involved in viral
attachment and entry into the host cell.
Question 38
0 / 2 pts
True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the
viral protein p24.
Correct Answer
True
You Answered
False
Question 39
Not yet graded / 5 pts
What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus targets the CNS (central
nervous system), causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons?
Your Answer:
Polio or Poliomyelitis. It enters through the cental nervous system and replicate and
damage the motor neurons.
Polio, also known as poliomyelitis. [Show Less]