Pharmacology Final Exam Review Questions (Open book quizzes & NCLEX Review Questions)
Quiz 6
1.) Potassium chloride 10 mEq intravenously has been
... [Show More] ordered for a client whose potassium is 2.9
following diuretics. How will the nurse administer the potassium dose?
A) Dilute the dose in a 50 ml IV rider and infused over 1 hour
B) Push the dose as a rapid IV push because of the patient’s dangerously low potassium level
C) Push the dose slowly over 10 minutes
D) Ask to give the dose in a large muscle since the intravenously route is too dangerous
2.) A client who has been taking Lisinopril (an ace inhibitor) for 2 weeks complains of a dry cough. How
should the nurse respond to this complaint?
A) The cough will subside within 5 to 7 days when the body becomes accustomed to the medicine.
B) The cough is a sign of impending angioedema. The client should stop the medicine immediately.
C) The cough is a result of immune suppression. The client should stop the medicine immediately
D) The cough is a common side effect of prils. Sartans may be prescribed instead if it becomes
intolerable
3.) A client is experiencing edema. Which over-the-counter medication might be reducing the diuretic
effects of her lisinopril?
A) St John’s Wort
B) Glucosamine
C) Vitamin C
D) Ibuprofen
4.) A client, who has been seeing multiple doctors, reports that she is taking Lisinopril and another
antihypertensive medication, the name of which she can’t recall. What type of antihypertensive is
contraindicated when people are taking ACE inhibitors due to risk of compound effects?A) Thiazide diuretics
B) Beta blockers
C) Potassium-sparing diuretics
D) Calcium channel blockers
5.) In preparing discharge education for a client who has just begun hydrochlorothiazide therapy, a nurse
reviews the client's lab results. Which finding should the nurse be concerned about in relationship to the
discharge prescription?
A) blood sugar level of 80 mg/dL
B) potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
C) hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
D) potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L.
6.) A client has had hypertension for approximately 7 years and now is interested in becoming pregnant.
What is the safest anti-hypertensive for a woman in the early stages of pregnancy?
A) Amlodipine
B) Lisinopril
C) Methyldopa
D) Valsartan
7.) If a client is taking carvedilol, a beta blocker, which adverse effect should the nurse watch for?
A) Hypoventilation
B) Sinus tachycardia
C) Hypergylcemia
D) Dizziness8.) While preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin, the nurse finds a new lab result showing a
digoxin level of 0.7 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A) Hold the drug for an hour and reassess the level.
B) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Administer Digibind to counteract the toxicity.
D) Check the patient’s apical pulse, and if it is within a safe range, administer the digoxin.
9.) A client has been taking digoxin 0.25 mg, and furosemide 40 mg, daily. Upon routine assessment by
the nurse, the client states, “I see yellow halos around the lights.” The nurse should perform which of the
following actions based on this assessment?
A) Consult the provider then request a digoxin and potassium level check
B) Withhold the next dose of furosemide.
C) Continue to monitor the patient for heart failure.
D) Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.
10.) A client with angina is preparing to go home with a prescription for Nifedipine, a calcium channel
blocker. What should the client be taught?
A) Elevate your feet when you are sitting to avoid edema side effects
B) Drink grapefruit juice with breakfast to reduce your risk of plaque.
C) Eat cheese regularly to restore calcium and manage loose stools.
D) Use salt substitute to replenish your potassium losses due to diuretic effects
11.) A client with stable angina asks why the physician told her to put her nitro patch on at 8am and take
it off at 8pm. What explanation should he be given?
A) The doctor is trying to reduce your risk of night falls.
B) Patch-free intervals are needed to sustain medication effectiveness.C) The patch should be replaced, not removed at bedtime
D) You should follow this advice for any patch medications you use.
12.) A client with stable angina as starting treatment with nifedipine a calcium channel blocker. The
client’s spouse asks how nifedipine alleviates chest pain. How should the nurse respond?
A) “They reduce platelet aggregation.”
B) “They reducing the work of the heart by reducing aortic pressure (afterload).”
C) “They increase the heart rate and contractility.”
D) “They improve cardiac circulation through vasoconstriction.”
13.) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who has just been given a new prescription for
sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Which statement by the client would indicate a need for additional
teaching?
A) “I should take the nitro every 2 to 3 minutes until my pain goes away.”
B) “I should take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to a total of three tablets if needed.”
C) “I should store my nitroglycerin in its original dark bottle to protect it from light.”
D) “I should keep the bottle of nitro tightly closed to protect the tablets.”
14.) A client presents to the emergency department with chest pain. On a scale of 1:10 he rates the pain
as a 6. His respiratory rate is 22. His blood pressure is 156/92. His heart rate is 110. He is afebrile. What
other information should the nurse obtain before administering nitroglycerin?
A) Has the patient experienced any dizziness or nausea within the last two weeks?
B) Has the patient used any alcohol or drugs for erectile dysfunction recently?
C) Has the patient taken any drugs within the past 12 hours?
D) Has the patient had a previous heart attack?15.) A client is being discharged to his home on enoxaparin (Lovenox) injections for treatment of deep
vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following statements made by the client indicates a need for further
discharge teaching by the nurse?
A) “I will inject the enoxaparin into the fatty tissue of my abdomen.”
B) “I hate needles, but I know enoxaparin doesn’t come in pill form.”
C) “I will need to go to my doctor’s office each day to have my enoxaparin blood drawn."
D) “I will call my physician if I pass black tarry stools or pink urine.”
16.) A client is brought to the emergency department for accidental warfarin (Coumadin) overdose. The
nurse determines that the client has no apparent signs of bleeding. Which action should the nurse take
next?
A) Obtain a stat PTT level.
B) Administer protamine sulfate.
C) Type and cross-match the patient’s blood.
D) Draw a stat blood level for PT or INR.
17.) In which of the following situations should the nurse prepare to administer of protamine sulfate?
A) A patient on warfarin with an INR of 4 and tarry stools
B) A patient on warfarin with a PT of 12 seconds and bleeding from a laceration
C) A patient on a heparin drip with a PTT >120 seconds and active GI bleeding
D) A patient on a heparin drip with a PTT of 60 seconds and pink-tinged urine
18.) A client is starting sildenafil (Viagra) for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension. Which of these
medications could cause a serious reaction if they are taken with sildenafil?
A) nitroglycerin, an antianginalB) clopidigrel, and antiplatelet
C) simvastatin, an antilipemic
D) CoEnzyme Q, an herbal remedy
E) doxazosin, an alpha blocker
Table for Individual Question Feedback
19.) Atenolol (Tenormin) has been prescribed for a client who is recovering from a recent heart attack.
The nurse would consult the provider before giving the medicine in which of these situations? (Select all
that apply.)
A) Pulse 52
B) BP 108/86
C) Respirations 32 with wheezes
D) Blood glucose 50
E) Tension headache
F) Parkinsonian tremors
20.) A client presents in the clinic with concerns of having taken his dabigitran (Pradaxa) twice this
morning. Realizing that this is a new oral anticoagulant (NOAC), what should the nurse do next? (Select
all that apply.)
A) Seek advice from the physician
B) Ask the client to share how the overdose happened
C) Have the client eat a spinach salad
D) Have the lab check a stat INR
E) Calm the client by explaining that the medication has a 12 hour half life
F) Assess for signs of active bleedingCorrect Answers:
Quiz 7
1.) In preparing to administer albuterol (Proventil) and beclomethasone (Beconase) inhalers to an
asthmatic client, what is most important for the nurse to remember?
A) Change the schedule, because these medications should not be administered concurrently.
B) Administer the albuterol first, wait 5 minutes, and then administer the beclomethasone.
C) Call the prescriber, because these medications are the same.
D) Administer the beclomethasone before breakfast and the albuterol after breakfast.
2.) A hospitalized patient receives codeine as an antitussive. What type of client could be harmed by
cough suppression?
A) A client with asthma
B) A client with reflux and impaired swallowing who aspirates
C) A client with loose stoolsD) A client who is allergic to bee stings
3.) A patient with a pneumonia-related cough has been advised to add guaifenesin to the regimen of
antibiotics. The client asks about the purpose of the drug. How should the nurse’s respond? guaifenesin
will
A) Guaifenesin will potentiate the antibiotics you are taking to fight the infection.”
B) Guaifenesin will relieve any pain associated with your cough.”
C) Guaifenesin will help dry your secretions so that you produce less mucus with your cough.”
D) Guaifenesin will help stimulate the flow of secretions and help you bring them up.”
4. ) The nurse is providing patient education to an elderly being treated for duodenal ulcers with Carafate
(Sucralfate). The client asks the nurse how sucralfate helps heal ulcers. How should the nurse respond?
A) “It creates a protective barrier against pepsin and acid.”
B) “It suppresses gastric acidity, irreversibly.”
C) “It inhibits the enzyme that generates gastric acid.”
D) “It enhances prostaglandin production.”
5.) The nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed both an antacid and ranitidine
(Zantac). Which instruction should the nurse give the client about taking the medications?
A) “Take the ranitidine before meals and take the antacid for heartburn if needed after meals.”
B) “The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect.”
C) “The antacid should be taken 15 minutes before the ranitidine.”
D) “Both medications should be taken on a full stomach.”6.) The nurse is preparing to give medications to a client taking sucralfate (Carafate) and ciprofloxacin
(Cipro). The drugs are ordered for 0900. In what manner should the nurse proceed to administer the
drugs?
A) The nurse should administer the drugs with a full glass of water.
B) The nurse should ask the prescriber to stagger the medication times.
C) The nurse should administer the two drugs at same time with food.
D) The nurse should administer the ciprofloxacin 15 minutes before the sucralfate.
7.) The nurse who is caring for a post-operative client administers Compazine, a phenothiazine (related
to Thorazine). What side effects should the nurse watch for, given this classification?
A) Extrapyramidal symptoms
B) Hyper-vigilance
C) Hiccups
D) Drooling
8.) For patients who don’t require PPIs or H2 inhibitors, antacids should be taken
A) Routinely before meals
B) Routinely after meals
C) Whenever heartburn occurs (prn) qid
D) At bedtime only9.) When teaching a client with renal insufficiency how to manage constipation, what teaching point
should the nurse convey about laxatives?
A) Laxatives containing magnesium are the best remedy for renal patients
B) Laxatives should only be given after suppositories or enemas have failed
C) Laxatives are an unavoidable fact of life for people over the age of 80
D) Laxatives can be habit forming if taken repeatedly
10.) Which of these teaching points about gastro-esophageal reflux would be helpful to a client with
reflux?
A) Proton pump inhibitors like Protonix should be taken with every meal
B) Reflux is triggered by carbonated beverages
C) People who experience reflux at night should eat cheese and crackers before retiring
D) Alcohol is a good remedy for reflux because it neutralizes acid
11.) The ventrogluteal site is recommended when intramuscular opiates are ordered to treat abdominal
pain. What are the Landmarks for the ventrogluteal site?
A) Palm over trochanter, fingertips over anterior & superior ileac crests
B) Two finger breadths below the acromium process
C) Two inches above or below the umbillicus
D) The right lower quadrant of the buttocks12.) A mother brings her 17-year-old daughter to the emergency department and states that the
daughter took 40 extended-release acetaminophen tablets. What medication should the nurse procure
so it is available when the provider's orders that it should be given.
A) flumazenil (Romazicon)
B) Solumedrol (methylprednisolone)
C) acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
D) protamine sulfate
13.) A spouse is requesting that an alternative for lactulose be given to a constipated client with elevated
liver enzymes. How should the nurse respond?
A) Explain that Lactulose is the only laxative the Veterans Administration will pay for
B) Validate the concern, given the patients liver issues
C) Explain that Lactulose binds ammonia in the gut when the impaired liver can't.
D) Explain that Lactulose is the final stop. It creates ultimate Laxative dependency
14.) Which antiepileptic medication is considered safer than others in pregnancy
A) Lamictal (lamotrigine)
B) Dilantin (phenytoin)
C) Depakote (valproic acid)
D) Neurontin (gabapentin)
15.) Which of these immune modifiers would the nurse question in pregnancy?
A) Methotrexate (Trexall)
B) Etanercept (Enbrel)C) Infliximab (Remicade)
D) Anakinra (Kineret)
16.) A pregnant client is suffering from acid indigestion. The nurse would question giving which of these
medicines for epigastric distress to a woman who was pregnant?
A) misoprostol (Cytotec)
B) metoclopramide (Reglan)
C) calcium carbonate (TUMS)
D) magnesium calcium combinations (Rolaids)
17.) An asthmatic client comes into the emergency room with rapid pulse, rapid respirations, minimal
breath sounds in the bases. Which of these therapies should the nurse anticipate, and have available,
pending providers order
A) Duoneb (albuterol and ipratropium) via nebulizer
B) methylprednisolone (Solumedrol) Intravenous
C) oxygen
D) diphenhydramine (Benadryl) by mouth
E) Codeine syrup to suppress cough
18.) A client has been prescribed Librax (chlordiazepoxide and clidinium), an anticholinergic
benzodiazepine, for irritable bowel syndrome. Which of these conditions would constitute a
contraindication for Librax?
A) History of substance abuse
B) GlaucomaC) Attention deficit disorder
D) History of migraines
E) History of anemia
19.) A spouse of a hospice client wants to know why the sublingual dose of morphine is so much lower
than the MS Contin dose that was given orally, and the IM injection dose that was given in the hospital.
How should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply)
A) The oral dose was a slow delivery dose. Sublingual is rapid, and given more often
B) He is losing consciousness, so his need for pain control is less
C) The MS Contin was partly metabolized in the liver before it started working
D) Sublingual medications enter the bloodstream more quickly than IM doses
E) This must be a mistake. He should need more pain control, not less.
20.) A client who is taking Haldol, Aricept, Colace, TUMs and Ampicillin is having loose stools. Which of
these may be contributing to the diarrhea?
A) Ampicillin
B) Haldol (haloperidol)
C) Aricept (donepezil)
D) Colace (docusate)
E) TUMs (calcium carbonate)
Mixed Review Questions from Previous Open Book Quizzes (Quizzes 2, 3, 4, 5)
1.) When metronidazole (Flagyl) is a component of the H. pylori treatment regimen, what instructions
should the client receive?
A) Avoid foods containing tyramine.
B) Take the drug with food.
C) Take the drug on an empty stomach.
D) Avoid any alcoholic beverages.
2.) What advice should the nurse offer a client who is being started on a significant amount of
Prednisone? Select all that apply.
A) Consult your doctor if nausea prevents you from taking this drug. Don’t stop it abruptly *
B) Take the medication on an empty stomach. This will help assure full absorption
C) Snack often on simple starches and comfort foods. This will help you avoid hypoglycemiaD) Use table salt. Avoid salt substitute because steroids cause potassium retention & sodium
losses
3.) In which of these situations would the nurse question the administration of steroid eye drops?
A) during an eye infection
B) after cataract surgery
C) after a corneal abrasion
D) after a chemical eye splash
4.) Lantus Insulin (glargine) is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who is diabetic. When will the nurse
administer this drug?
A) Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal
B) In the morning and at 4 PM
C) Once daily at bedtime
D) After meals and at bedtime
5.) A client in ketoacidosis needs intravenous insulin. What should the nurse understand before giving IV
insulin?
A) Either aspart or glargine insulin can be administered IV, so the nurse should ask which one to give
B) It is customary to administer the same dose IV that would be given subcutaneously per sliding scale
C) Insulin should never be given IV, so this order should be questioned.
D) Only regular insulin can be administered IV. It is given in smaller increments.
6.) A client calls from home to report that his lispro (Humalog) insulin appears cloudy. What would be
the nurse’s best response?
A) “Agitate the solution, and the granules should disperse.”
B) “Discard the vial. The solution should be clear.”C) “Proceed with the injection. Drawing the solution into the syringe will mix the particles.”
D) “Lispro is always cloudy. Proceed with the injection.”
7.) A client with type I diabetes who takes insulin reports taking propranolol for hypertension. Why
would this cause the nurse to be concerned?
A) the beta blocker can cause insulin resistance and hyperglycemia.
B) using the two agents together increases the risk of ketoacidosis.
C) propranolol increases insulin requirements because of receptor blocking.
D) the beta blocker can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.
8.) The nurse manages care for a client with diabetes who takes metformin (Glucophage). Which
laboratory result would cause the nurse to question the prescription?
A) Elevated creatinine
B) Decreased hemoglobin
C) Decreased platelets
D) Increased iron
9.) The nurse is providing client education after laboratory findings reveal am elevated thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH). How would the nurse best explain the implications of the laboratory finding
to the client?
A) “Hypothyroidism causes a decrease in TSH.”
B) “The test probably is erroneous, because you don’t have a goiter.”
C) “TSH is not a good screening test for thyroid disease.”
D) “The low TSH is consistent with hyperthyroidism.”
10.) A steroid dependent client has a blood glucose level of 249 mg/dL. Her blood pressure is 178/99 and
she is complaining of muscle aches and weakness. Her face appears very round and puffy.” What would
the nurse suspect? What type of advocacy does the client need?A) Advocacy for a TSH level is needed because these symptoms indicate Graves’ disease
B) Advocacy for fludrocortisone is needed because these symptoms are consistent with Addison’s
disease
C) Diuretics and glucose control may be needed. Cushing’s syndrome presents this way
D) Diabetic ketoacidosis is causing the clients sodium pump to shut down. An IV insulin drip is needed.
11.) A client being followed for latent tuberculosis has been on isoniazid therapy for 2 months. The nurse
notes that the liver function test results have become grossly abnormal during that interval. What should
the nurse do?
A) Continue the drug unless jaundice, nausea, or itching develops.
B) Continue the drug and have liver function tests repeated weekly.
C) Hold the medication, and seek an alternative medication from the prescriber.
D) Stop the drug and restart it when liver function returns to normal.
12.) A client, who is taking rifampin, telephones the nurse to say, “My urine and saliva have looked
orange-red for the past 2 days.” Select the nurse’s best response.
A) “This is consistent with an allergic response, and the drug should be stopped.”
B) “Continue the drug for another week to see if the color returns to normal.”
C) “Stop the drug, because it is likely that hepatitis has developed.”
D) “This is a normal effect of the drug and is harmless.”
13.) A client with persistent pain due to cancer is brought to the emergency department by his spouse.
Upon assessment, the nurse notes pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. The
nurse should immediately prepare for administration of which medication?
A) Naloxone (Narcan)
B) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
C) Methamphetamine hydrochloride (Desoxyn)
D) Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)14.) A client taking amitriptyline (Elavil) complains of having blurred vision and dry mouth, and he states
that he hasn’t had a bowel movement in 3 days, whereas he normally has one daily. His vital signs are
temperature 97.6° F, pulse 90/minute, blood pressure 130/79 mm Hg, and respirations 20/minute. Based
on this assessment, the nurse should suspect which of the following causes?
A) Medication incompatibilities
B) Sympatholytic effects
C) Dehydration
D) Anticholinergic effects
15.) The nurse is preparing to administer lithium (Eskalith), to a client with bipolar disorder whose
lithium level is 2.0 mEq/L. What symptoms might the nurse expect to see? (Select all that apply.)
A) Irregular heart rate
B) Hunger
C) Slurred speech
D) Unsteady gate
E) Pacing
F) Drooling
16.) A client who has been taking an antiepileptic medication with a narrow therapeutic window for 2
weeks seems confused and forgetful. What should be the priority action of the nurse?
A) Call the prescriber and have them change the seizure medication changed.
B) Give an antihistamine like diphenhydramine under house protocol for a suspected allergy.
C) Seek a plasma drug level from the client’s physician.
D) Set up oxygen and obtain an order for activated charcoal.
17.) A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client whose family reports that she had taken
an overdose of diazepam. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to reverse
the CNS depression caused by this drug?A) Ondasteron (Zofran)
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Flumazanil (Romazicon)
D) Protamine sulfate
18.) A nurse is reviewing a client’s list of medications and notices that he is taking two anticholinergics.
Which of his recent symptoms could be caused by his anticholinergic medications? (Select all that apply)
A) Epigastric distress
B) Tachycardia
C) Dry mouth
D) Frequent loose stools
E) Blurred vision
19.) A client is using a prn scopolamine patch for motion sickness. Knowing that the medication has
anticholinergic side effects, the client should be taught to anticipate which side effects? (Select all that
apply!)
A) Urine retention
B) Blurred vision
C) Dry mouth
D) Diarrhea
E) Wheezes
20.) A nurse recognizes that the actions of benzodiazepines include which of the following benefits?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Sleep facilitation
B) Relief of general anxiety
C) Suppression of seizures and/or seizure activityD) Reversal of Parkinsonism
E) Improvement of muscle coordination
21.) A 68 year old male has a history of seizures and has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for years. His
last seizure occurred 2 years ago, so he has decided that he no longer needs the medication. What would
be the best action of the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
A) Recommend that he start cutting his pills in half, and see how it goes
B) Affirm his plan to stop taking it, but advise that he should restart it if tremors occur
C) Recommend that he develop a withdrawal plan with his prescriber
D) Educate the client that suddenly stopping the drug could precipitate seizures.
E) Advise the client that once a medication for seizures is started it can never be stopped.
Correct Answers:
NCLEX Study Questions from textbook
Respiratory1.) A patient tells the nurse that he has started to take an over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamine,
diphenhydramine (Benadryl). In teaching about side effects, what is most important for the nurse to tell
the patient?
A. Do not to take this drug at bedtime to avoid insomnia.
B. Avoid driving a motor vehicle until stabilized on the drug.
C. Nightmares and nervousness are more likely in an adult.
D. Medication may cause him to have excessive secretions.
2.) A patient complains of a sore throat and has been told it is due to beta-hemolytic streptococcal
infection. The nurse anticipates that the patient has which acute condition?
A. Rhinitis
B. Sinusitis
C. Pharyngitis
D. Rhinorrhea
3.) A patient is prescribed the decongestant oxymetazoline (Afrin) nasal spray. What will the nurse teach
the patient?
A. Take this drug at bedtime because it may cause drowsiness.
B. Directly spray the medication away from the nasal septum, and gently sniff.
C. This drug may be used in maintenance treatment for asthma.
D. Limit use of the drug to 5 to 7 days to prevent rebound nasal congestion.
4.) A patient has been prescribed guaifenesin (Robitussin). The nurse understands that the purpose of
the drug is to accomplish what?
A. Treat allergic rhinitis and prevent motion sickness.
B. Loosen bronchial secretions so coughing can eliminate them.
C. Compete with histamine for receptor sites, thus preventing a histamine response.
D. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors, thus producing vascular constriction of capillaries in
nasal mucosa.
5.) Beclomethasone (Beconase) has been prescribed for a patient with allergic rhinitis. What should the
nurse teach the patient regarding this medication?A. This may be used for an acute attack.
B. An oral form is available if the patient prefers to use it.
C. Avoid large amounts of caffeine intake because an increased heart rate may occur.
D. With continuous use, dryness of the nasal mucosa/lining may occur.
6.) The nurse is teaching a patient about diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Which instructions should the
nurse include in the patient's teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A. Take medication on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
B. Avoid alcohol and other central nervous system depressants.
C. Notify the health care provider if confusion or hypotension occurs.
D. Use sugarless candy, gum, or ice chips for temporary relief of dry mouth.
E. Avoid handling dangerous equipment or performing dangerous activities until stabilized on
the medication.
Correct Answers:
Respiratory
1.) An Advair Diskus, fluticasone propionate (Flonase) and salmeterol (Serevent) 100 mcg/50 mcg, is
ordered for a patient with COPD. What does the nurse know about this medication? (Select all that
apply.)
A. It can be used to treat an acute attack.
B. It is delivered as a dry powdered inhaler.
C. It contains a beta1 agonist and Cromolyn.D. It is taken as one puff two times a day.
E. It promotes bronchodilation.
2.) A patient with COPD has an acute bronchospasm. The nurse anticipates that the health care provider
will prescribe which medication?
A. zafirlukast (Accolate)
B. epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C. dexamethasone (Decadron)
D. oxtriphylline-theophyllinate
3.) A patient is prescribed aminophylline–theophylline. For what adverse effect should the nurse monitor
the patient?
A. Drowsiness
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Increased heart rate
D. Decreased white blood cell count
4.) A patient is receiving IV aminophylline. The nurse checks the patient's lab values. The serum
theophylline level is 32 mcg/mL. What action should the nurse take?
A. Assess the patient's breath sounds for improvement.
B. Increase the dosage per sliding scale directions.
C. Notify the health care provider of the level.
D. Have the laboratory collect another sample to verify the results.
5.) A patient with COPD is taking a leukotriene antagonist, montelukast (Singulair). The nurse is aware
that this medication is given for which purpose?
A. Maintenance treatment of asthma
B. Treatment of acute asthmatic attack
C. Reversing bronchospasm associated with COPD
D. Treatment of inflammation in chronic bronchitisCorrect Answers:
Cardiac
1.) The patient is receiving digoxin for treatment of heart failure. Which finding would suggest to the [Show Less]