Because they are considered to have fewer side effects, are safer for clients at risk for suicide, and are more specific in treating the symptoms of
... [Show More] depression, the MOST frequently prescribed antidepressants today are the: - ANSWER-Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) The SSRIs are now the MOST frequently prescribed antidepressants because they are safer, have fewer side effects, and result in a decreased chance of death with overdose.
Which of the following statements BEST explains the therapeutic effect of the antidepressants? In general, the antidepressant drugs - ANSWER-allow for more serotonin to remain in the synapses between brain neurons.
It is important that nurses know both the generic and trade names of a drug. Which of the following is the generic name for the popular antidepressant Prozac? - ANSWER-fluoxetine. The generic name for the antidepressant Prozac is fluoxetine. Paroxetine is the generic name for Paxil, sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft, and venlafaxine is the generic name for Effexor.
Maria Diaz, diagnosed with major depression, has not responded to an SSRI medication. Her physician has now prescribed Parnate (tranylcypromine sulfate), an MAO inhibitor. Which of the following should now be included in Maria's teaching plan? - ANSWER-Avoid foods that contain tyramine. Foods containing tyramine interact with the MAOIs to increase the risk of hypertensive crisis.
Which of the following drugs is classified as a monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? - ANSWER-Phenelzine
Charles Downey has started to respond to antidepressant therapy. He suddenly becomes calm and peaceful and no longer verbalizes thoughts about dying. He does state to the nurse, "Things will be better soon." It is important that the nurse now engages in which of the following nursing interventions? - ANSWER-The client's behavior may indicate a remission of symptoms or it could mean the drug has given him the energy to carry out a suicide act. His calmness may reflect a decision to complete a suicide act.
Mary Thomas is to begin treatment with an antidepressant drug. She asks how long it will take before she feels better. The BEST response by the nurse would be: - ANSWER-"It will take three to four weeks before a full therapeutic effect is reached." These drugs do not achieve their maximum therapeutic effects for approximately three to four weeks. Relief from some symptoms, such as sleeplessness, may be experienced in 1 to 2 weeks.
A client receiving the drug Tofranil (imipramine) reports dizziness when getting out of bed in the morning. To decrease the effects of orthostatic hypotension, what should the nurse tell the patient? - ANSWER-Rise gradually from the supine position
Because some of the SSRIs have a stimulating effect, these drugs should be administered: - ANSWER-In the morning. If an SSRI has a stimulating rather than a sedative effect, then it should be taken in the morning or afternoon rather than at bedtime. Those with a sedating effect should be taken at bedtime.
It is important to warn a client against combining alcohol with an antidepressant drug because this combination may result in: - ANSWER-CNS depression. "CNS depression." There may be added central nervous system (CNS) depression when the antidepressants are combined with other CNS depressants or alcohol.
Antipsychotic medications are most frequently used in the management of:
delusions and hallucinations.
severe depressive episodes.
panic levels of anxiety.
obsessive-compulsive disorders. - ANSWER-delusions and hallucinations.
Although seizures are a relatively uncommon side effect, about five percent of clients taking the drug _________ experience seizures.
Clozapine
Risperidone
Lurasidone (Latuda)
Fluphenazine - ANSWER-Clozapine
A client is on maintenance therapy for schizophrenia. Which of the following maintenance drugs' effects last from two to four weeks?
Fluphenazine
Risperidone
Olanzapine
Aripiprazole - ANSWER-Fluphenazine
Which of the following statements about the safety alert pertaining to antipsychotics and older adults is true?
Antipsychotics are contraindicated for older adults.
Antipsychotics are used to treat Alzheimer's Disease.
Black Box Warnings have been eliminated from information about antipsychotics.
Antipsychotics may be prescribed to treat behavior disorders in older clients with dementia-related psychosis. - ANSWER-Antipsychotics may be prescribed to treat behavior disorders in older clients with dementia-related psychosis.
Which of the following symptoms would lead the nurse to suspect that a client is having the adverse effect of pseudoparkinsonism from an antipsychotic drug?
shuffling gait
sucking and smacking movements of the lips
restless pacing
muscle spasms of the face and neck - ANSWER-shuffling gait
A client is experiencing both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following drugs is appropriate for this client?
Loxapine
Quetiapine
Haloperidol
Perphenazine - ANSWER-Quetiapine
A nurse observes a client becoming more restless. He cannot sit still in group therapy and is pacing the hallway. The nurse recognizes that he is demonstrating which of the following extrapyramidal symptoms?
akathisia
oculogyric crisis
dyskinesia
akinesia - ANSWER-akathisia
The irreversible antipsychotic effect that includes facial grimacing, lip smacking, and tongue protrusion is called:
neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
tardive dyskinesia.
Parkinson's syndrome.
extrapyramidal symptoms. - ANSWER-tardive dyskinesia.
The nurse must teach clients and their families to monitor for an often-fatal side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by muscular rigidity, high fever, leukocytosis, and increased production of muscle enzymes. This side effect is:
Tardive dyskinesia
Extrapyramidal side effects
Akathisia
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) - ANSWER-Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
A client is experiencing side effects consisting of frightening and painful spasms of specific muscle groups. These side effects are referred to as:
Pseudoparkinsonism
Akathisia
Dystonic reactions
NMS - ANSWER-Dystonic reactions
A schizophrenic client will be discharged on an antipsychotic medication. The nurse should include all of the following in the teaching plan EXCEPT:
avoid excessive exposure to sunlight.
eliminate cheese and chocolate from the diet.
immediately report chills and sore throat.
continue the medication exactly as prescribed. - ANSWER-eliminate cheese and chocolate from the diet.
A client's lithium blood level during maintenance therapy is 0.7 mEq/L. This result is:
Abnormally high.
Abnormally low.
Within normal limits.
Within normal limits only if the client is being treated for an acute manic episode. - ANSWER-Within normal limits.
Explanation: Therapeutic blood levels are 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L during maintenance therapy and 1.0 to 1.5 mEq/L during an acute manic episode.
A client is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). It is important that the nurse teaches the client that:
Valproic acid must be avoided by anyone with liver disease (hepatic disease) or poor liver function.
Taking valproic acid with alcohol can cause significant CNS stimulation.
Valproic acid may safely be taken by pregnant females.
Valproic acid is used to treat the symptoms of depression in bipolar disorder. - ANSWER-Valproic acid must be avoided by anyone with liver disease (hepatic disease) or poor liver function.
Explanation: Depakote must be avoided by anyone with liver disease or poor liver function.
A nurse is counseling a client about the drug lithium, which was prescribed to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse will tell the client all of the following EXCEPT:
An estimated 70% to 80% of clients find that lithium helps in the treatment of bipolar disorder.
Lithium treats bipolar behaviors as well as the extent and frequency of cycling [Show Less]