PHARMACOLO MSN 571 Question Bank Pharm 2022- United State University
1. Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is
... [Show More] prescribed ferrous
sulfate?
a. Iron compounds are not taken orally
b. Iron does not absorb
c. Iron should only be taken at night
d. Antacids should not be taken with iron
2. Which is the most common type of anemia?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. B12 deficiency
3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with
trimethoprim?
a. Fluroquinolones
b. Cephalosporins
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Sulfonamides
4. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects
b. Beta-1 selective
c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking
d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
5. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease?
a. Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin)
b. Hormonal therapy
c. Corticosteroids
d. Opioids
6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure?
a. Macrolides
b. Sulfonamides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Cephalosporins
e. Fluroquinolones
7. Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Angina
e. Chronic kidney disease (with or without diabetes)
8. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management?
a. Clonidine primary
b. Beta blockers primary
c. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary
d. ACE-I primary
e. ARB primary
9. Which of the following medications is a fluroquinolone antibiotic?
a. Penicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Amikacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
10. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Aspirin
c. Corticosteroids
d. Amoxicillin
11. Which antibiotic binds to 50S subunit of the bacteria ribosome and could most likely result in the
development of pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Tetracycline
b. Vancomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Amoxicillin
12. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in c disease?
a. Avoid diuretics
b. Avoid antibiotics
c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors
d. Avoid NSAIDs
13. Prescriptive authority is regulated by the State Board of Nursing, Board of Medicine, or Board of
Pharmacy, depending on the state.
a. True
b. False
14. Which of the following is most true of nurse practitioner prescribers?
a. Prescriptive authority is under the full control of the Board of Nursing in all states
b. All states allow nurse practitioners to prescribe controlled substances
c. Al states allow some level of prescription writing by nurse practitioners
d. None of the choices are correct
15. Which of the following is a non-neurotoxin treatment for head lice?
a. Malathoin (Ovide)
b. Benzoyl alcohol (Ulesfia)
c. Permethrin 1% (Nix)
d. Lindane shampoo
16. Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with Nystatin?
a. Onychomycosis
b. Vaginal candidiasis
c. Intestinal candidiasis
d. Oral candidiasis
17. All of the following are true regarding the treatment of scabies except?
a. Lindane does not carry risk for toxicity and can be used in children more than 2 years of
age
b. Treatment of scabies include crotaminton, malathion, and lindane
c. Lindane, though usually effective, carries a risk for toxicity and should not be used in
children
d. Permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) is the drug of choice for the treatment of scabies in
infants greater than 2 months, and approved to use in pregnant women
18. A pediatric patient prescribed ampicillin for streptococcal pharyngitis reports new onset of
pruritic, dull red, maculopapular rash on the chest and neck. Which action is most important for
the provider to take to minimize this patient’s risk for injury?
a. Prescribe an antihistamine for the itching
b. Flag all medical records with an “Allergy to Penicillin” notice
c. Prescribe azithromycin to replace ampicillin
d. Discontinue the ampicillin
19. The 4th to the 10th week of gestation is the period of time when there is the greatest concern
about drug-induced:
a. Fetal hemorrhage
b. Labor
c. Fetal malformations
d. Fetal cardiac arrest
20. Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy?
a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors – cough
b. Isotretinoin – multiple defects of CNS, craniofacial, and cardiovascular
c. Warfarin – Downs syndrome
d. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors – decrease LDL-C
e. NSAIDs – microcephaly
21. The Beers Criteria is utilized with which population of patients?
a. Mental health
b. OB/GYN
c. Geriatrics
d. Pediatrics
22. The drug manual states that older adult patients are at increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Which
action is most important when prescribing this medication to an 80-year-old patient?
a. Ensuring that the drug is taken in the correct dose at the correct time
b. Discontinuing the order, the drug is contraindicated for this patient
c. Obtaining baseline liver function studies
d. Giving the medication intravenously to avoid first pass metabolism
23. A patient diagnosed with otitis externa and taking a fluroquinolone/glucocorticoid combination
medication asks the NP what the benefit is to taking the medications together. You reply?
a. The glucocorticoid decreases the adverse effects of fluroquinolone
b. The glucocorticoid decreases the likelihood of antibiotic resistance developing to the
fluroquinolone
c. The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling caused by the inflammation and decreases pain,
while the fluroquinolone treats the infection
d. The two medications are contraindicated for use together
24. Amoxicillin is prescribed for a 12-month-old child who developed a second middle ear infection
since age 8 months. Three days later, the parent calls to report that the child continues to have a
temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of the pain. What action will the
provider take to provide effective care to this child?
a. Advise continuing the amoxicillin as ordered and provide a schedule of PRN dosing of
ibuprofen for pain
b. Discuss with the parent the child’s need for probably surgery for tympanostomy tubes
placement to reduce infections
c. Prescribe a medication that promotes sleep
d. Discuss prescribing amoxicillin/clavulanate with the child’s parents
25. The patient is diagnosed with otitis media with perforated eardrum. You want to prescribe an
otic preparation. Which of the following is not appropriate?
a. Acetic acid otic
b. Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone
c. Ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone otic
d. Olfloxacin otic
26. During a recent office visit, your patient is found to have atrial fibrillation. He is being treated for
Graves’ disease. Which new medication will you add to his current treatment regimen?
a. Atenolol (Tenormin)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Warfarin (Coumadin)
d. Cholestyramine (Prevalite)
27. A patient who has been taking warfarin is admitted with coffee-ground emesis. How will you
manage this patient?
a. Administer vitamin K
b. Administer vitamin E
c. Administer calcium gluconate
d. Administer protamine sulfate
28. A bleeding patient receiving warfarin has an INR of 6. What is the best course of action?
a. Administer protamine sulfate
b. Wait for INR to decrease
c. Administer phytonadione
d. Stop the IV drip
29. Patches are sometimes prescribed to patients. Understanding how often patches are applied,
when to remove them, correct location of patch placement, frequency of dosing, and correct
way to dispose are important counseling points when discussing with your patients. Match the
following medication with the correct frequency of dosing:
a. Rivastigmine (Exelon) once weekly
b. Duragesic once daily
c. Transderm Scop 48 hours
d. Catapres-TTS once weekly
30. Which is the best description of the action of Clonidine?
a. It selectively activates alpha-2 receptors in the central nervous system
b. It causes peripheral activation of alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors
c. It depletes sympathetic neurons from norepinephrine
d. It directly blocks alpha and beta receptors in the periphery
31. A patient you are treating for hypertension comes to your clinic complaining of red, painful
swelling of his great left toe. Gout is diagnosed and you are treating this condition. What will you
do next for this patient?
a. Encourage him to lose weight
b. Assess for possible alcohol abuse
c. Order HbA1c
d. Change his thiazide antihypertensive medication
32. Which of the following is no one of the principal indications for vasodilators?
a. Heart failure
b. Essential hypertension
c. Hypertensive crisis
d. Peripheral edema
33. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plats an important role in maintaining blood pressure.
Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?
a. Angiotensin II
b. Angiotensin III
c. Renin
d. Angiotensin I
34. The provider is discussing the management of prescribed, controlled substances with a patient.
Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the information provided?
a. To reduce the probability of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call
the prescription to the pharmacy
b. Prescriptions for drugs in Schedule III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills
c. Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients
d. If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the
federal law takes precedence
35. In a case of an opioid overdose, naloxone can be given in repeated doses because of which
property of naloxone?
a. May have a shorter half-life than the opioid antagonist
b. Is needed to stimulate the respiratory center
c. Is effective only at high cumulative doses
d. Is safe only in extremely small doses
36. If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (e.g. rest, ice, compression, and elevation) are
insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which
order of use?
a. Opiates, non-opioids, increased dose of non-opiate
b. NSAIDs, opiates, corticosteroids
c. Low-dose opiates, salicylates, increased dose of opiates
d. Non-opiates, increased dose of non-opiates, opioids
37. Which of the following opioids is so lipophilic that it is marketed in a skin patch used to treat
chronic pain?
a. Methadone
b. Naltrexone
c. Scopolamine
d. Fentanyl
38. Tetracyclines should not be prescribed to children younger than 8 years due to:
a. Risk of developing cartilage problems
b. Risk of kernicterus
c. Development of significant diarrhea
d. Adverse effects on bone growth
39. A 70-year-old patient with penicillin sensitivity is receiving digoxin and warfarin therapy. A
macrolide antibiotic is required to treat a streptococcal infection. Which of the following
medications would be best for this patient?
a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Clarithromycin
d. Erythromycin
40. There is often cross-sensitivity and cross-resistance between penicillins and cephalosporins
because:
a. There is not an issue with cross-resistance between the penicillins and cephalosporins
b. Both drug classes contain a beta-lactam ring that is vulnerable to beta-lactamase
producing organisms
c. Renal excretion is similar in both classes of drugs
d. When these drug classes are metabolized in the liver they both produce resistant
enzymes
41. All of the antibiotic options listed are used to treat MRSA infections except:
a. Vancomycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Daptomycin
d. Polymyxins
e. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
42. A 25-year-old woman comes into the office with complaints of profuse malodorous discharge.
You diagnose bacterial vaginosis and then would:
a. Initiate treatment with doxycycline (Vbramycin) 100 mg PO bid X 7 days
b. Advise the patient to notify her sexual contacts regarding the diagnosis
c. Treat the problem with metronidazole (Flagyl) 500 mg PO bid X 7 days
d. Determine the presence of pregnancy before initiating the course of treatment
43. You are taking care of a patient that has an allergy to Bactrim. Which of the following
medications would not potentially cause a cross hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Furosemide
b. Verapamil
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Glyburide
44. Which cephalosporin may the prescriber order to treat meningitis?
a. Cefazolin
b. Cefoxitin
c. Cefaclor
d. Cefotaxime
45. Which assessment finding in a patient taking hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA)
reductase inhibitor will the NP act on immediately?
a. Elevated liver function tests
b. Elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
c. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
d. Decreased hemoglobin
46. Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia is:
a. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin 4 weeks after treatment is started
b. Complete blood count every 4 weeks throughout treatment
c. Reticulocyte count in 4 weeks
d. Annual complete blood count
47. A patient is being assessed for muscle weakness, cramping, and leg discomfort. This patient has
been taking hydrochlorothiazide. What else would you do for this patient?
a. Give a lower dose of the medication
b. Administer calcium supplements
c. Assess the serum potassium level
d. Reduce salt in the patient’s diet
48. When prescribing acyclovir, patients should be educated regarding the:
a. Risk for life-threatening rash such as stevens Johnson
b. Eccentric dosing schedule
c. Need to drink lots of fluid during treatment
d. High risk of developing diarrhea
49. Which is true about tetanus toxoid?
a. Tetanus toxoid is a bacterial toxin that has been changed to a nontoxic form
b. Tetanus toxoid provides immunity from Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. The recommended dose of tetanus toxoid for adults is 1 mL given intramuscularly
d. DTaP and DT are sage to give to all adults
50. A patient is diagnosed with Bell’s palsy and prescribed high-dose steroids for 10 days, with
minimal improvement. During a follow-up visit, you suspect the patient has HSV-1. Which
medication will you prescribe?
a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim DS)
b. Penicillin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Acyclovir
51. Instructions for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment include:
a. None of the answers are correct
b. If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection
c. Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication past the borders of the
infection
d. Wash hands before and after topical antimicrobials
52. Which drug would most likely be used to treat oral candidiasis?
a. Terconazole
b. Nystatin
c. Tioconazole
d. Amphotericin B
53. Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The medical history includes
anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. The most appropriate drug to use is:
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefixime
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Azithromycin
e. Doxycycline
54. A 19-year-old female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is a common treatment
prescribed?
a. Metronidazole
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Azithromycin
d. Amoxicillin
55. The major reason for not crushing a sustained-release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated
beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
a. Malabsorption
b. Disintegration
c. Toxicity
d. Deterioration
56. Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine. Drug
X is considered to be a(n):
a. Competitive antagonist
b. Agonist
c. Irreversible antagonist
d. Partial agonist
57. Blood concentrations of drugs are variable and are influenced by the:
a. Drug classification
b. EC50
c. Therapeutic index
d. Drug metabolism
58. The therapeutic index is a measure of drug:
a. Effectiveness
b. Bioavailability status
c. Safety profile
d. Absorption rate
59. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
a. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have a greater bioavailability than
drugs given once a day
b. All brands of drugs have the same bioavailability
c. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability
d. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges
or sustained-release mechanisms
60. Which statement made by a client suggests the need for further education regarding a newly
prescribed medication?
a. I’m paying for this prescription, so I’d like it written for the generic form
b. I prefer a trade named version of the medication since they are generally more effective
c. There seems to be several brand names for this medication, it’s confusing
d. I’m glad I don’t have to use the medication’s chemical name when refilling the
prescription
61. Antagonists are drugs that decrease or oppose the actions of another drug or endogenous
ligand.
a. True
b. False
62. You are treating a patient with a history of hypercholesterolemia and an MI. the patient is a 45-
year-old female and she is on the maximum dose of rosuvastatin which she is tolerating well. Her
LDL-C is 167 mg/dL. What would be the best drug to add to her rosuvastatin therapy?
a. Colesevelam
b. Mipomersen
c. Nicotinic acid
d. Ezetimibe
e. Fenofibrate
63. A patient is receiving a statin to manage his cholesterol levels. For which adverse effects will you
monitor in this patient?
a. Increased serum transaminase levels
b. Unexplained muscle pain or tenderness
c. Elevated creatinine kinase (CK) levels with muscle pain
d. All answers are correct
64. Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy?
a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors – cough
b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors – neural tube defects
c. Isotretinoin – severe nausea
d. Warfarin – craniofacial defects
e. NSAIDs – microcephaly
65. Stimulation of lipoprotein lipase by a fenofibrate results in lowered serum levels of which
substance?
a. Apolipoprotein B
b. Triglycerides
c. HDL-cholesterol
d. LDL-cholesterol
1. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
a. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
b. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing
c. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
d. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
2. Prescriptive authority regulations are determined by?
a. None of these choices
b. Controlled by the federal government
c. NPs have full prescriptive authority in all states
d. State law under the jurisdiction of a health professional board
3. Therapeutic effects of verapamil (Calan SR) are:
a. Increased BP
b. Decreased ventricular premature beats
c. Increased HR
d. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
4. You are treating a patient who has diabetes and hypertension. Which medication is most likely to
be prescribed to treat this patient’s hypertension?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Methyldopa
c. Propranolol
d. Enalapril
5. Which of the following calcium-channel blocker that is used for atrial tachycardia that slows
conduction at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes?
a. Amlodipine
b. Clevidipine
c. Felodipine
d. Diltiazem
e. Nifedipine
6. The drug classification that may reduce insulin sensitivity when treating type 2 diabetic patient
for HTN are:
a. Alpha blockers and ACE inhibitors
b. Diuretics and beta blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors
d. Diuretics and calcium channel blockers
7. Which effect is caused by both atenolol and diltiazem?
a. Increased cGMP levels
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle
d. Decreased cAMP levels
8. A patient is diagnosed with otitis externa. Comorbidities include diabetes mellitus, hypertension,
and advanced multiple sclerosis. Which type of education regarding medication administration
would you provide?
a. The oral administration of a prescription for hydrocortisone/neomycin/polymyxin B
combination solution
b. The administration of topical medications for a prescription of alcohol plus acetic acid
solution
c. The oral administration of a prescription for fluoroquinolone
d. The administration of topical combination medications for a prescription of flora
quinolone/glucocorticoid combination solution
9. A 2 year old child presents to the clinic with otalgia and fever. The left tympanic membrane (TM)
is erythematous and bulging.; the right (TM) is perforated and draining. The child’s parents
states. “This is the fifth ear infection this ear. What can we do?”. What action will the provider
take to address the child’s ear problems?
a. Discuss beginning prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
b. Prescribe both ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM with benzocaine ear drops for pain
c. Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist
d. Prescribe both high-dose amoxicillin and the influenza vaccine
10. Amoxicillin is prescribed for a 12-month-old child who developed a second middle ear infection
since age 8 months. Three days later, the parent calls to report that the child continues to have a
temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of the pain. What action will the
provider take to provide effective care to this child?
a. Advise continuing the amoxicillin as ordered and provide a schedule of PRN dosing of
ibuprofen for pain
b. Discuss with the parent the child’s need for probably surgery for tympanostomy tubes
placement to reduce infections
c. Prescribe a medication that promotes sleep
d. Discuss prescribing amoxicillin/clavulanate with the child’s parents
11. When a patient takes a hepatic enzyme inducer, the dose of warfarin is usually modified in which
way?
a. It is increased
b. It is very unpredictable
c. It is decreased
d. No change in dosage
12. When two drugs interact what are the possible outcomes?
a. All the answers are correct
b. The combination of drugs may produce a new response not seen with either drug alone
c. One drug may reduce the effects of the other
d. One drug may intensify the effects of the other
13. A generic medication is considered equal, or bioequivalent to its parent brand-name medication,
and must undergo stringent safety and equivalency testing and comply with specific criteria
established by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
a. True
b. False
14. Which enzyme is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the liver?
a. Ptyalin
b. CYP450 enzymes
c. Gastric lipase
d. Pancreatic lipase
15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
a. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have a greater bioavailability than
drugs given once a day
b. All brands of drugs have the same bioavailability
c. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability
d. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges
or sustained-release mechanisms
16. Pharmacokinetics involves the study of which factor?
a. Physiologic interactions of drugs
b. Adverse reactions to medications
c. Distribution rates among various body components
d. Interactions among various drugs
17. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
a. After the second dose
b. One hour after IV administration
c. After four to five half-lives
d. When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
18. How does simvastatin exert its action?
a. By activating the lipoprotein lipase enzyme
b. By inhibiting the enzyme hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase
c. By preventing the reabsorption of bile acids
d. By inhibiting lipolysis in the adipose tissue
19. Which one of the following is the most common side effect of antihyperlipidemic drug therapy?
a. Elevated blood pressure
b. Heart palpitations
c. Gastrointestinal disturbances
d. Neurologic problems
20. Which of the following is not an expected adverse effect of Niacin?
a. Itching
b. Flushing
c. Arthralgias
d. Hyperglycemia
21. A patient with cardiovascular disease is taking rosuvastatin. Which finding would indicate a
potential adverse effect of this drug?
a. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
b. Muscle pain and tenderness
c. Platelet count 100 x103
/mm3
d. Wheezing and shortness of breath
22. A provider is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several
medications. What laboratory result will the provider order?
a. Creatinine clearance
b. Serum creatinine
c. Potassium levels
d. Sodium levels
23. A patient with heart failure who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a
thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As
part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the provider will focus on which evaluation?
a. Maximal exercise capacity
b. Serum electrolyte levels
c. Ejection fraction
d. Complete blood count
24. Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia is:
a. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin 4 weeks after treatment is started
b. Complete blood count every 4 weeks throughout treatment
c. Reticulocyte count in 4 weeks
d. Annual complete blood count
25. An infant is prescribed a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range and is excreted by the
kidneys. The provider will monitor closely for which effect?
a. Tachyphylaxis
b. Evidence of drug toxicity
c. Decreased drug effectiveness
d. Unusual CNS effects
26. Which statement by a patient about the use of aspirin during pregnancy indicates a need for
further learning?
a. Aspirin is most harmful when used late in pregnancy
b. Aspirin can cause antepartum hemorrhage
c. Aspirin can affect hemostasis in the newborn
d. Aspirin can be used to relieve pain during pregnancy
27. The brain of the teate may accumulate toxic levels of drugs due to:
a. Subcutaneous perfusion is nonfunctional
b. The blood-brain barrier is not fully developed
c. The P-glycoprotein transporter is overdeveloped
d. CYP450 enzymes are nonfunctional
e. Gastric motility and peristalsis are delayed
28. All of the following statements about Beer’s List are true except:
a. It is derived from the expert opinion of one geriatrician and is not evidence-based
b. These criteria are directed as the general population of patients over 65 years of age and
do not take disease states into consideration
c. These criteria have been adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for
regulation of long-term care facilities
d. It is a list of medications or medication classes that should generally be avoided in
persons 65 years or older because they are either ineffective or they post unnecessary
high risk for older person and a safer alternative is available
29. An older adult patient with a history of forgetfulness will need to take multiple drugs after
discharge from the hospital. What provider action will most successfully promote medication
adherence in a forgetful patient?
a. Ask the patient to share the medication teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after
discharge
b. Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug
c. Schedule medication to be taken at the same times as much as possible
d. Give the patient detailed written information about each drug
30. A patient on heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 98 seconds.
How will you interpret this finding?
a. The levels cannot be interpreted without knowing the prothrombin time and the
international normalized ratio (INR)
b. The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too high
c. The level is within the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation
d. The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too low
31. An orally administered drug that directly inhibits thrombin:
a. Eptifibatide
b. Enoxaparin
c. Rivaroxaban
d. Prasugrel
e. Dabigatran
32. A patient who has been prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), the patient is
also taking warfarin. How does taking these drugs in combination affect their distribution to the
tissues? Select all that apply.
a. There is a decrease in protein binding of the drugs
b. There is a decrease in gastric emptying time
c. There is a change of the drugs to passive metabolites
d. There is an increase in the volume of distribution
e. There is an increase in free drug levels in the plasma
33. Beta lactamase inhibitors are often indicated in which of the following?
a. Delayed absorption of oral drugs
b. Often combined with penicillin antibiotics
c. First dose effects
d. May decrease absorption of medications
34. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in peptic ulcer disease?
a. Avoid diuretics
b. Avoid antibiotics
c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors
d. Avoid NSAIDs
35. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects
b. Beta-1 selective
c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking
d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
36. Fluroquinolone antibiotics are most likely indicated in which of the following conditions?
a. Asthma
b. GERD
c. Genital infections [Show Less]