Pathophysiology Patho Exam Test #2
The central nervous system contains the:
A. brain.
B. somatic nervous system.
C. afferent pathways.
D. cranial
... [Show More] nerves.
A. brain.
Which is responsible for structural support within a cell?
A. Nissl substance
B. Dendrities
C. Microfilaments
D. Microtubules
C. Microfilaments
Which is an insulating substance for the neuron?
A. Schwann cells
B. Myelin
C. Neuroglial cells
D. Node of Ranvier
B. Myelin
Successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse best describes:
A. temporal summation.
B. spatial summation.
C. actuation.
D. facilitation.
A. temporal summation.
The midbrain contains the:
A. cerebral hemisphere.
B. tegmentum.
C. cerebellum.
D. medulla oblongata.
B. tegmentum.
Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of neurons?
A. Gyri
B. Sulci
C. White matter
D. Gray matter
D. Gray matter
It is true that the brain's Broca area:
A. makes receptive responses possible.
B. is responsible for motor speech.
C. when traumatized, results in the inability to hear.
D. is found in the right cerebral hemisphere.
B. is responsible for motor speech.
Which is a function of the thalamus?
A. Major integrating center for afferent impulse
B. Maintenance of internal environment
C. Voluntary visual motor movements
D. Movements of the auditory system
A. Major integrating center for afferent impulse
It is true that the cerebellum:
A. makes up fibers of the corticospinal tract.
B. maintains balance or posture.
C. controls respiration.
D. contains cranial nerves V through VIII.
B. maintains balance or posture.
Which structure is involved in pain transmission?
A. Posterior horn
B. Substantia gelantinosa
C. Anterior horn
D. Dorsal root ganglia
B. Substantia gelantinosa
A cellular structure that selectively inhibits substances from entering the brain is the:
A. circle of Willis.
B. vertebral artery.
C. blood-brain barrier.
D. nucleus pulposus.
C. blood-brain barrier.
The neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic axon terminal is:
A. acetylcholine.
B. epinephrine.
C. norepinephrine.
D. dopamine.
A. acetylcholine.
It is TRUE that the specificity theory of pain:
A. focuses on the attention of pain.
B. focuses on previous experience of pain.
C. relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft tissue injury.
D. relates to the emotions exhibited toward pain.
C. relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft tissue injury.
Which pair of structures regulates the complex emotional responses to pain?
A. Frontal and cerebellar lobes
B. Limbic and reticular system
C. Thalamus and brainstem
D. Midbrain and nuclei of thalamus
B. Limbic and reticular system
Which activity has been documented to increase the levels of circulating endogenous endorphins?
A. Cough
B. Stress
C. Sleep
D. Pain
B. Stress
The appropriate definition of perceptual dominance is:
A. the duration of time or intensity of pain before overt pain responses are initiated.
B. pain at one location that may cause an increase in threshold at another location.
C. repeated exposure to a pain stimulus.
D. the point at which pain is perceived.
B. pain at one location that may cause an increase in threshold at another location.
The appropriate term for pain that is present in an area distant from its point of origin is:
A. acute pain.
B. chronic pain.
C. referred pain.
D. somatic pain.
C. referred pain.
A mechanism that does not result in heat loss is:
A. increased respiration.
B. conduction.
C. convection.
D. vasoconstriction.
D. vasoconstriction.
A benefit of fever to human blood includes:
A. decreased lymphocytic transformation.
B. diminished phagocytosis.
C. increased iron concentration.
D. a switch to lipolysis and proteolysis.
D.a switch to lipolysis and proteolysis.
A patient who was outside on a summer day and is now experiencing increased sweating and thirst, weakness, and dizziness is exhibiting signs of:
A. heat cramps.
B. heat exhaustion.
C. hyperthermic stroke.
D. malignant hyperthermia.
B .heat exhaustion.
A 55-year-old obese male presents to a sleep clinic complaining of difficulty sleeping. He reports that he wakes gasping for air and his wife is ready to divorce him because his snoring keeps her up at night. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Primary hypersomnia
B. Parasomnia
C. Somnambulism
D. Obstructive sleep apnea
D. Obstructive sleep apnea
Involuntary unilateral or bilateral rhythmic movement of the eyes is referred to as:
A. nystagmus.
B. amblyopia.
C. glaucoma.
D. strabismus.
A. nystagmus.
A young child presents with redness of the eyes. The parents indicate that this condition seems to be 'going around' the daycare. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Blepharitis
B. Keratitis
C. Trachoma
D. Conjunctivitis
D. Conjunctivitis
Which type of hearing loss is a result of foreign body obstruction of the inner ear?
A. Conductive
B. Sensorineural
C. Functional
D. Presbycusis
A. Conductive
A patient who reports that 'everything tastes unpleasant' is exhibiting symptoms of:
A. hyposmia.
B. anosmia.
C. hypogeusia.
D. dysgeusia.
D. dysgeusia.
Which term is used to describe a bone fracture that results in two or more fragments?
A. Complete
B. Open
C. Comminuted
D. Oblique
C. Comminuted
A transchondral fracture:
A. occurs in normal or abnormal bone that is subjected to repeated stress.
B. runs parallel to the long axis of the bone.
C.damages the bone, but it is still in one piece.
D. provides fragmentation and separation of a portion of the articular cartilage.
D. provides fragmentation and separation of a portion of the articular cartilage.
What is the appropriate term for the failure of the bone ends to grow together?
A. Nonunion
B. Delayed union
C. Malunion
D. Dislocation
A. Nonunion
A patient has a temporary but total displacement of a bone from its normal position. Which of the following terms is appropriate to describe this injury?
A. Fracture
B. Dislocation
C. Subluxation
D. Nonunion
B. Dislocation
A patient is brought to the hospital after twisting an ankle while running around the bases in a baseball game. On examination, it appears that the ligaments have sustained tears. Which is the best term to describe this injury?
A. Strain
B. Sprain
C. Avulsion
D. Reduction
B. Sprain
A varsity tennis player states, "I have tennis elbow." Which condition best describes this injury?
A. Lateral epicondylitis
B. Medial epicondylitis
C. Chronic bursitis
D. Tendinopathy
A. Lateral epicondylitis
A football player presents to the emergency department reporting right thigh pain that began after an injury to that area a few weeks earlier. A diagnosis of myositis ossificans is made. Myositis ossificans:
A. has a well known etiology.
B. occurs only in the thigh.
C. can also occur with burns.
D. is a late complication of a stress fracture.
C. can also occur with burns.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the clinical manifestations of rhabdomyolysis?
A. The urine is almost clear in color.
B. The creatine kinase (CK) level is often five times greater than normal.
C. There are decreased levels of potassium.
D. Serum hypercalcemia is seen early in the course of rhabdomyolysis.
B. The creatine kinase (CK) level is often five times greater than normal.
At what age does age-related bone loss begin?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
C. 40
A patient has a disease in which there is inadequate and delayed mineralization of osteoid in mature compact bone. This description describes which disease?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Paget disease
D. Osteomyelitis
A. Osteomalacia
Which is a clinical manifestation of Paget disease?
A. Increased lacrimation
B. Increased sympathetic nervous system discharge
C. Decreased density of skull
D. Impaired motor function
D. Impaired motor function
Which organism is the most common cause of hematogenous osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Group B streptococci
D. Salmonella
D. Salmonella
A middle-aged female presents with painful, tender joints. Laboratory testing reveals elevated IgM and IgG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Inflammatory joint disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Caplan syndrome
D. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
A patient has diffuse pain, fatigue, and tender joints without inflammation. This is a description of which diagnosis?
A. Disuse atrophy
B. Contracture
C. Stress-induced muscle tension
D. Fibromyalgia
D. Fibromyalgia
Which age group has the highest incidence of bone tumors?
A. Children
B. Adolescents
C. Adults between ages 30 to 35 years
D. Adults between ages 30 to 50 years
B. Adolescents
Which bone tumor is the most aggressive and demonstrates a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Endochondroma
D. Fibrosarcoma
A. Osteosarcoma
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding a giant cell tumor?
A. It is the 10th most common primary bone tumor.
B. There is a very narrow age distribution for this tumor.
C. It affects females more than males.
D. It has malignant properties.
C. It affects females more than males.
What is the appropriate term for a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints?
A. Gout
B. AS
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
B. AS
A patient presents with skin rash, calcinosis, and eyelid edema. These signs support which diagnosis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Toxic myopathy
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
B. Dermatomyositis
In a complete fracture:
A. The fracture crossees or involves the entire width or thickness of the bone.
B. More than two bone fragments are present.
C. Separation of ligament exists
D. Post traumatic infection is always present
E. The surface opposite the break is intact
A. The fracture crossees or involves the entire width or thickness of the bone.
In an oblique fracture, the energy or foce is:
A. Twisting with the distal part unable to move.
B. Compressive and at an angle
C. Directly to an already weakened bone.
D. Directly to the distal fragment.
B. Compressive and at an angle
Which is a definite sign of a fracture?
A. Abrasion
B. Shock
C. Muscle Spasm
D. Unnatural alignment
E. All of the above are correct
D. Unnatural alignment
Secondary muscular dysfunctions:
A. Involve large compartments of hemorrhage
B. Can display contractures
C. Result from failure of calcium pump
D. Are related to the muscle itself
E. both b and c are correct
E. both b and c are correct
The most common cause of osteomyelitis is:
A. Hematogenous spread of infection
B. Rheumatoid disease
C. Direct contamination of an open wound
D. Deficiency of calcium
E. Deficiency of Vitamin D
C. Direct contamination of an open wound
The pathogenesis of osteoperosis involves
A. inadequate mineralizatoin
B. Impaired synthesis of bone organic matrix
C. Alteration in the OPG/RANKL/RANK system
D. Formation of Sclerotic Bone
E. None of the above is correct
C. Alteration in the OPG/RANKL/RANK system
Osteomalacia causes:
A. Loss of bone matrix
B. Inadequate mineralization
C. Radiolucency
D. All of the above are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
E. Both B and C are correct
Bone tumors may originate from all of the following except:
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Cartilage
C. Fibrous Tissue
D. Vascular Tissue
E. Medoderm
A. Epithelial tissue
In benign bone tumors, there is:
A. a uniform and well-defined lytic area
B. a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction
C. Abnormal bone merging with surrounding normal bone tissue
D. An area of partially destroyed bone adjacent to completely lytic areas.
A. a uniform and well-defined lytic area
An osteosarcoma is a(n):
A. collagenic, malignant bone tumor
B. Myelogenic, benign tumor
C. Myelogenic, malignant tumor
D. Osteogenic, benign bone tumor
E. Osteogenic, malignant tumor
E. Osteogenic, malignant tumor
A major symptom of bone cancer is:
A. Faltering gait
B. persistent pain that worsens at night
C. lack of sensation
D. General swelling over a bone
E. Coolness over a bone
B. persistent pain that worsens at night
Giant cell tumors
A. are collagenic tumors
B. are located in the diaphysis of a long bone
C. have extensive osteoblastic activity
D. have high recurrence rates
E. are multifocal
D. have high recurrence rates
Tendinopathy is:
A. inflammation of a tendon where it attaches to bone
B. painful because of disorganized collagen fibers caused by repetitive stress on tendons
C. A torn tendon
D. A complete separation of a tendon
?
RA beings with
A. Destruction of the synovial membrane and subsynovial tissue
B. Inflammation of ligaments
C. Destruction of the articular cartilage
D. Softening of the articular cartilage
E. Destruction of the joint capsule
A. Destruction of the synovial membrane and subsynovial tissue
In gout:
A. the pathogenesis is formation of monosodium urate crystals in joints and tissues
B. purine metabolism is altered
C. affected individuals likely have an inherited enzyme defect
D. the hyperuricemia can be the result of acquired chronic disease or a drug
E. All of the answers are correct
E. All of the answers are correct
A muscle contracture is:
A. likely caused by increased activity in the reticular activating system and the gamma loop in the muscle fiber
B. muscle shortening possibly because of CNS injury
C. often helped by relaxation training and biofeedback
D. a consequence of reduced muscle protein synthesis
E. all of the above are correct
B. muscle shortening possibly because of CNS injury
Myotonia is all of the following except:
a. delayed relaxation after voluntary muscle contractions
b. prolonged depolarization of the muscle membrane
c. mostly inherited
d. unresponsiveness to neural stimulation
e. progressive atrophy of skeletel muscle
d. unresponsiveness to neural stimulation
Rhabdomyosarcoma has
a. a poor prognosis
b. aggressive invasion
c. early, widespread dissemination
d. pleomorphic types
e. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are correct
One function of the somatic nervous system that is not performed by the autonomic nervous system is conduction of impulses:
a. to involuntary muscles and glands
b. to the CNS
c. to skeletal muscles
d. between the brain and spinal cord
c. to skeletal muscles
A neuron with a single dendrite at one end of the cell body and a single axon at the other end of the cell body would be classified as:
a. unipolar
b. multipolar
c. monopolar
d. bipolar
d. bipolar
Neurons that carry impulses away from the CNS are called
a. afferent neurons
b. sensory neurons
c. efferent neurons
d. association neurons
c. efferent neurons
Neurons are specialized for the conduction of impulses, whereas neuroglia:
a. support nerve tissue
b. serve as motor end plates
c. synthesize acetylcholine and cholinesterase
d. all of the above are correct
a. support nerve tissue
There is one way conduction at a synapse becuase:
a. only postsynaptic neurons contain synaptic vesicles
b. acetylcholine prevents nerve impulses from traveling in both directions
c. only the presynaptic neuron contains neurotransmitters
d. only dendrites release neurotransmitters
c. only the presynaptic neuron contains neurotransmitters
Which contains the thalamus and hypothalamus?
a. diencephalon
b. cerebrum
c. medulla oblongata
d. brain stem
a. diencephalon
The reticular activating system
a. programs for fine repetitive motor movements
b. maintains wakefulness
c. maintains constant internal environments
d. affects the positioning of the head to improve hearing
b. maintains wakefulness
Which is not a protective covering of the CNS?
a. cauda equine
b. dura mater
c. arachnoid
d. cranial bone
a. cauda equine
The composition of cerebrospinal fluid is:
a. the same as blood
b. distilled H20 with dissolved salts
c. a plasma-like liquid with glucose, salts, and proteins
d. a heavy mucous solution with dissolved salts, glucose and urea
c. a plasma-like liquid with glucose, salts, and proteins
An autonomic ganglion can be described as:
a. the site of synapses between visceral efferent neurons
b. a site where spinal reflexes occur
c. a point of synapse between parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons
d. the place where unconscious sensations occur
a. the site of synapses between visceral efferent neurons
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system:
a. mobilizes energy in times of need
b. is innervated by cell bodies from T1 through L2
c. is innervated by cell bodies located in the cranial nerve nuclei
d. both a and b are correct
e. both a and c are correct
d. both a and b are correct
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system:
a. conserves and stores energy
b. has relatively short postganglionic neurons
c. both and b are correct
d. has paravertebral ganglia
c. both and b are correct
Endorphins
a. increase pain sensations
b. decrease pain sensations
c. may increase or decrease pain sensations
d. have no effect on pain sensations
b. decrease pain sensations
Referred pain from upper abdominal diseases involves:
a. the sacral region
b. L2 to L4
c. T8, L1 and L2
d. the gluteal regions, posterior thighs, and calves
c. T8, L1 and L2
In the gate control theory of pain:
a. a "closed gate" increases pain perception
b. stimulation of large A fibers "closes the gate"
c. Both a and b are correct
d. neither a nor b is correct
b. stimulation of large A fibers "closes the gate"
Which is not a neuromodulator of pain?
a. prostaglandins
b. 5-hydroxytryptamine
c. norepinephrine
d. lymphokines
e. heparin
e. heparin
Interleukin-1:
a. raises the hypothalamic set point
b. is an endogenous pyrogen
c. is stimlated by exogenous pyrogens
d. none of the above is correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
Increased serum levels of epinephrine increase body temperature by:
a. increasing shivering
b. increasing muscle tone
c. increasing heat production
d. decreasing basal metabolic rate
c. increasing heat production
In heatstroke:
a. core temp usually does not exceed 101 F
b. sodium loss follows sweating
c. core temp increases as the regulatory center fails
d. both b and c are correct
c. core temp increases as the regulatory center fails
Which is involved in fever?
a. tumor necrosis factor
b. endotoxins
c. elevation of the set point in the hypothalamus
d. both a and b are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
In hypothermia:
a. the viscosity of blood is decreased
b. acidosis can develop
c. the hypothalamic center prevents shivering
d. all of the above are correct
b. acidosis can develop
Although non-REM sleep and REM sleep are defined by electrical recordings, they are characterized by physiologic events. Which does NOT occur?
a. During non-REM sleep, muscle tone decreases
b. Non-REM sleep is initiated by withdrawal of neurotransmitters from the reticular formation
c. During non-REM sleep, cerebral blood flow to the cortex decreases
d. During non-REM sleep, levels of corticosteroids increase
d. During non-REM sleep, levels of corticosteroids increase
Meniere disease
a. affects the outer ear
b. disrupts both vestibular and hearing functions
c. is the common cause of sensorneural hearing loss
d. is caused by impacted cerumen
b. disrupts both vestibular and hearing functions
Acute otitis media (AOM):
a. has no genetic determinants
b. displays a tympanic membrane progressing from erythema to opaqueness with bulging.
c. risk factors include breast-feeding
d. is commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus
b. displays a tympanic membrane progressing from erythema to opaqueness with bulging.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD):
a. has a higher incidence in hypotensive individuals
b. occurs before age 60 years
c. exhibits retinal detachment and loss of photoreceptors
d. exhibits loss of accommodation
c. exhibits retinal detachment and loss of photoreceptors
Vestibular nystagmus:
a. is the constant, involuntary movement of the eyeball caused by ear disturbances
b. is the sensation of spinning
c. may be caused by alterations in the nervous system from the receptor to the cerebral cortex
d. causes a diminished sense of the position of body parts
a. is the constant, involuntary movement of the eyeball caused by ear disturbances
Sleep apnea:
a. is lack of breathing during sleep
b. can result from airway obstruction during sleep
c. is associated with jet-lag syndrome
d. all of the above are correct
e. both a and b are correct
e. both a and b are correct
Individuals affected by sleep apnea may experience:
a. polycythemia
b. cyanosis
c. pulmonary hypertension
d. all of the above are correct
d. all of the above are correct [Show Less]