OB Exam 4 Chapter 5, 7, 8, 9, 31, 34, 35, 36|133 Questions with Verified Answers
Historically, what was the justification for the victimization of
... [Show More] women?
A) Women were regarded as possessions.
B) Women were the "weaker sex."
C) Control of women was necessary to protect them.
D) Women were created subordinate to men. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Women were regarded as possessions.
- Misogyny, patriarchy, devaluation of women, power imbalance, a view of women as property, gender-role stereotyping, and acceptance of aggressive male behaviors as appropriate contributed and continue to contribute to the subordinate status of women in many of the world's societies. Viewing women as the "weaker sex" is a cultural and modern stereotype that contributes to the victimization of women. Control of women to protect them is another cultural and modern stereotype that contributes to the victimization of women. Yet another cultural stereotype that contributes to the victimization of women is the idea that women were created as subordinate to men.
What is the primary theme of the feminist perspective regarding violence against women?
A) Role of testosterone as the underlying cause of men's violent behavior
B) Basic human instinctual drive toward aggression
C) Male dominance and coercive control over women
D) Cultural norm of violence in Western society - CORRECT ANSWER C) Male dominance and coercive control over women
- The contemporary social view of violence is derived from the feminist theory. With the primary theme of male dominance and coercive control, this view enhances an understanding of all forms of violence against women, including wife battering, stranger and acquaintance rape, incest, and sexual harassment in the workplace. The role of testosterone as an underlying cause of men's violent behavior, the basic human instinctual drive toward aggression, and the cultural norm of violence in Western society are not associated with the feminist perspective regarding violence against women.
Which trait is least likely to be displayed by a woman experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV)?
A) Socially isolated
B) Assertive personality
C) Struggling with depression
D) Dependent partner in a relationship - CORRECT ANSWER B) Assertive personality
- Every segment of society is represented among women who are suffering abuse. However, traits of assertiveness, independence, and willingness to take a stand have been documented as more characteristic of women who are in nonviolent relationships. Women who are financially more dependent have fewer resources and support systems, exhibit symptoms of depression, and are more often seen as victims.
A woman who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. What scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been a victim of IPV?
A) The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile.
B) The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing.
C) Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises.
D) She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions - CORRECT ANSWER B) The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing.
- The client may have multiple injuries in various stages of healing that indicates a pattern of violence. An argument is not always an indication of battering. A fractured arm and fresh bruises could be caused by the reported fall and do not necessarily indicate IPV. It may be normal for the woman to be reticent and have a dull affect.
Which statement is most accurate regarding the reporting of IPV in the United States?
A) Asian women report more IPV than do other minority groups.
B) Caucasian women report less IPV than do non-Caucasians.
C) Native-American women report IPV at a rate similar to other groups.
D) African-American women are less likely to report IPV than Caucasian women. - CORRECT ANSWER B) Caucasian women report less IPV than do non-Caucasians.
- Caucasian women report less IPV than other ethnic groups. Asian women report significantly less IPV than do other racial groups. Native-American and Alaska Native women report significantly more IPV than do women of any other racial background. African-American women tend to report violence at a slightly higher rate than Caucasian women.
Intervention for the sexual abuse survivor is often not attempted by maternity and women's health nurses because of the concern about increasing the distress of the woman and the lack of expertise in counseling. What initial intervention is appropriate and most important in facilitating the woman's care?
A) Initiating a referral to an expert counselor
B) Setting limits on what the client discloses
C) Listening and encouraging therapeutic communication skills
D) Acknowledging the nurse's discomfort to the client as an expression of empathy - CORRECT ANSWER C) Listening and encouraging therapeutic communication skills
- The survivor needs support on many different levels, and a women's health nurse may be the first person to whom she relates her story. Therapeutic communication skills and listening are initial interventions. Referring this client to a counselor is an appropriate measure but not the most important initial intervention. A client should be allowed to disclose any information she feels the need to discuss. A nurse should provide a safe environment in which she can do so. Either verbal or nonverbal shock and horror reactions from the nurse are particularly devastating. Professional demeanor and professional empathy are essential.
A young woman arrives at the emergency department and states that she thinks she has been raped. She is sobbing and expresses disbelief that this could happen because the perpetrator was a very close friend. Which statement is most appropriate at this time?
A) "Rape is not limited to strangers and frequently occurs by someone who is known to the victim."
B) "I would be very upset if my best friend did that to me; that is very unusual."
C) "You must feel very betrayed. In what way do you think you might have led him on?"
D) "This does not sound like rape. Didn't you just change your mind about having sex after the fact?" - CORRECT ANSWER A) "Rape is not limited to strangers and frequently occurs by someone who is known to the victim."
- Acquaintance rape involves individuals who know one another. Sexual assault occurs when the trust of a relationship is violated. Victims may be less prone to recognize what is happening to them because the dynamics are different from those of stranger rape. It is not at all unusual for the victim to know and trust the perpetrator. Stating that the woman might have led the man to attack her indicates that the sexual assault was somehow the victim's fault. This type of mentality is not constructive. Nurses must first reflect on their own feelings and learn to be unbiased when dealing with victims. A statement of this type can be very psychologically damaging to the victim. Nurses must display compassion by first believing what the victim states. The nurse is not responsible for deciphering the facts involving the victim's claim.
Nurses are often the first health care professional with whom a woman comes into contact after being sexually assaulted. Which statement best describes the initial care of a rape victim?
A) All legal evidence is preserved during the physical examination.
B) The victim appreciates the legal information; however, decides not to pursue legal proceedings.
C) The victim states that she is going to advocate against sexual violence.
D) The victim leaves the health care facility without feeling re-victimized. - CORRECT ANSWER D) The victim leaves the health care facility without feeling re-victimized.
- Nurses can assist clients through an examination that is as nontraumatic as possible with kindness, skill, and empathy. The initial care of the victim affects her recovery and decision to receive follow-up care. Preservation of all legal evidence is very important; however, this may not be the best measure in terms of evaluating the care of a rape victim. Offering legal information is not the best measure of evaluating the care that this victim received. The victim may well decide not to pursue legal proceedings. Advocating against sexual violence may be extremely therapeutic for the client after her initial recovery but not a measure of evaluating her care.
When the nurse is alone with a battered client, the client seems extremely anxious and says, "It was all my fault. The house was so messy when he got home, and I know he hates that." What is the most suitable response by the nurse?
A) "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?"
B) "What else do you do that makes him angry enough to hurt you?"
C) "He will never find out what we talk about. Don't worry. We're here to help you."
D) "You have to remember that he is frustrated and angry so he takes it out on you." - CORRECT ANSWER A) "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?"
- The nurse should stress that the client is not at fault. Asking what the client did to make her husband angry is placing the blame on the woman and would be an inappropriate statement. The nurse should not provide false reassurance. To assist the woman, the nurse should be honest. Often the batterer will find out about the conversation.
Nurses who provide care to victims of IPV should be keenly aware of what?
A) Relationship violence usually consists of a single episode that the couple can put behind them.
B) Violence often declines or ends with pregnancy.
C) Financial coercion is considered part of IPV.
D) Battered women are generally poorly educated and come from a deprived social background. - CORRECT ANSWER C) Financial coercion is considered part of IPV.
- Economic coercion may accompany physical assault and psychologic attacks. IPV almost always follows an escalating pattern. It rarely ends with a single episode of violence. IPV often begins with and escalates during pregnancy. It may include both psychologic attacks and economic coercion. Race, religion, social background, age, and education level are not significant factors in differentiating women at risk.
Nurses must remember that pregnancy is a time of risk for all women. Which condition is likely the biggest risk for the pregnant client?
A) Preeclampsia
B) IPV
C) Diabetes
D) Abnormal Pap test - CORRECT ANSWER B) IPV
- The prevalence of IPV during pregnancy is estimated at 6% of all pregnant women. The risk for IPV and even IPV-related homicide is more common than all of the other pregnancy-related conditions. Although preeclampsia poses a risk to the health of the pregnant client, it is less common than IPV. Gestational diabetes continues to be a complication of pregnancy; however, it is less common than IPV during pregnancy. Some women are at risk for an abnormal Pap screening during pregnancy, but this finding is not as common as IPV.
Documentation of abuse can be useful to women later in court, should they elect to press charges. It is of key importance for the nurse to document accurately at the time that the client is seen. Which entry into the medical record would be the least helpful to the court?
A) Photographs of injuries
B) Clear and legible written documentation
C) Summary of information (e.g., "The client is a battered woman.")
D) Accurate description of the client's demeanor - CORRECT ANSWER C) Summary of information (e.g., "The client is a battered woman.")
- A statement such as, "The client is a battered woman" lacks the supporting factual information and will render the report inadmissible. More appropriate documentation would include exact statements from the woman in quotations (e.g., "My husband kicked me in the stomach"). The time and date of the examination should also be included.
Which statement regarding human trafficking is correct?
A) Human trafficking is a multibillion-dollar business that primarily exists in the United States.
B) Victims often experience the Stockholm syndrome.
C) Vast majority of the victims are young boys and girls.
D) Human trafficking primarily refers to commercial sex work. - CORRECT ANSWER B) Victims often experience the Stockholm syndrome.
- Although victims of sex trafficking can be young boys and girls, the vast majority are women and girls. They are often lured by false promises, such as a job or marriage, sold by their parents, or kidnapped by traffickers. These individuals are forced into sex work, hard labor, and organ donation. This $32 billion business exists in the United States and internationally. The Stockholm syndrome occurs when the slaves become attached to their enslavers. Health care professionals may interact with victims who are in captivity should they require emergent health care. The nurse is challenged to find an opportunity to speak with the client alone and assess for victimization.
Which statement is the most comprehensive description of sexual violence?
A) Sexual violence is limited to rape.
B) Sexual violence is an act of force during which an unwanted and uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
C) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
D) Sexual violence includes degrading sexual comments and behaviors. - CORRECT ANSWER C) Sexual violence encompasses a number of sexual acts.
- Sexual violence is a broad term that includes a range of sexual victimization including sexual assault, sexual harassment, and rape. It may include but is not limited to rape. Sexual assault includes unwanted or uncomfortable touches, kisses, hugs, petting, intercourse, or other sexual acts. It is a component of sexual violence. Unwelcome or degrading e-mail messages, comments, contact, or behavior, such as exhibitionism, that makes any environment feel unsafe is known as sexual harassment.
Women with severe and persistent mental illness are likely to be more vulnerable to being involved in controlling and/or violent relationships; however, many women develop mental health problems as a result of long-term abuse. Which condition is unlikely to be a psychologic consequence of continued abuse?
A) Substance abuse
B) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C) Eating disorders
D) Bipolar disorder - CORRECT ANSWER D) Bipolar disorder
- Bipolar disorder is a specific illness (also known as manic depressive disorder) not related to abuse. Substance abuse is a common method of coping with long-term abuse. The abuser is also more likely to use alcohol and other chemical substances. PTSD is the most prevalent mental health sequela of long-term abuse. The traumatic event is persistently re-experienced through distress recollection and dreams. Eating disorders, depression, psychologic-physiologic illness, and anxiety reactions are all mental health problems associated with repeated abuse.
The nurse who is evaluating the client for potential abuse should be aware that IPV includes a number of different forms of abuse, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Physical
B) Sexual
C) Emotional
D) Psychologic
E) Financial - CORRECT ANSWER A) Physical
B) Sexual
D) Psychologic
E) Financial
- Physical, sexual, financial, and psychologic abuse can all be components in a relationship with IPV. Emotional abuse is a form of psychologic abuse.
Which nursing diagnoses would be most applicable for battered women? (Select all that apply.)
A) Loss of trust
B) Ineffective family coping
C) Situational low self-esteem
D) Risk for self-directed violence
E) Enhanced communication - CORRECT ANSWER A) Loss of trust
B) Ineffective family coping
C) Situational low self-esteem
D) Risk for self-directed violence
- Loss of trust, ineffective family coping, situational low self-esteem, and risk for self-directed violence are potential nursing diagnoses associated with battered women. A more appropriate nursing diagnosis for a battered woman would be impaired communication.
A thorough abuse assessment screen should be completed on all female clients. This screen should include which components? (Select all that apply.)
A) Asking the client if she has ever been slapped, kicked, punched, or physically hurt by her partner
B) Asking the client if she is afraid of her partner
C) Asking the client if she has been forced to perform sexual acts
D) Diagramming the client's current injuries on a body map
E) Asking the client what she did wrong to elicit the abuse - CORRECT ANSWER A) Asking the client if she has ever been slapped, kicked, punched, or physically hurt by her partner
B) Asking the client if she is afraid of her partner
C) Asking the client if she has been forced to perform sexual acts
D) Diagramming the client's current injuries on a body map
- Asking the client if she has been slapped, kicked, punched, or physically hurt by her partner, if she is afraid of her partner, or if she has been forced to perform sexual acts are questions that should be posed to all clients. If any physical injuries are present, then they should be marked on a form that indicates their locations on the body. Implying that a client did something wrong can be very emotionally damaging. Many victims of violence are not aware that they are in an abusive relationship. They may not respond to questions about abuse. Using general descriptive words such as "slap," "kick," or "punch" to elicit information is best.
What are the responsibilities of the nurse who suspects or confirms any type of violence against a woman? (Select all that apply.)
A) Report the incident to legal authorities.
B) Provide resources for domestic violence shelters.
C) Call a client advocate who can assist in the client's decision about what actions to take.
D) Accurately and concisely document the incident (or findings) in the client's record.
E) Reassure and support the client. - CORRECT ANSWER B) Provide resources for domestic violence shelters.
C) Call a client advocate who can assist in the client's decision about what actions to take.
D) Accurately and concisely document the incident (or findings) in the client's record.
E) Reassure and support the client.
- Domestic violence is considered a crime in all states; however, mandatory reporting remains controversial. Nurses must become knowledgeable on the laws that apply in the state in which they practice. Caring for a client who may be a victim of domestic abuse is an ideal opportunity to provide the woman with information for safe houses or support groups for herself and her children. The nurse may assist in reaching out to a client advocate, which often occurs when potential legal action is taken or if the woman is seeking shelter. Documentation must be accurate and timely to be useful to the client later in court if she chooses to press charges. The primary functions for the nurse are to reassure the client and to provide her with emotional support.
Syphilis is a complex disease that can lead to serious systemic illness and even death if left untreated. Which manifestation differentiates primary syphilis from secondary syphilis?
A) Fever, headache, and malaise
B) Widespread rash
C) Identified by serologic testing
D) Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection - CORRECT ANSWER D) Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection
- Primary syphilis is characterized by a primary lesion (the chancre), which appears 5 to 90 days after infection. The chancre begins as a painless papule at the site of inoculation and erodes to form a nontender, shallow, and clean ulcer several millimeters to centimeters in size. Secondary syphilis occurs 6 weeks to 6 months after the appearance of the chancre and is characterized by a widespread maculopapular rash. The individual may also experience fever, headache, and malaise. Latent syphilis are those infections that lack clinical manifestations; however, they are detected by serologic testing.
The human papillomavirus (HPV), also known as genital warts, affects 79 million Americans, with an estimated number of 14 million new infections each year. The highest rate of infection occurs in young women, ages 20 to 24 years. Prophylactic vaccination to prevent the HPV is now available. Which statement regarding this vaccine is inaccurate?
A) Only one vaccine for the HPV is available.
B) The vaccine is given in three doses over a 6-month period.
C) The vaccine is recommended for both boys and girls.
D) Ideally, the vaccine is administered before the first sexual contact. - CORRECT ANSWER A) Only one vaccine for the HPV is available.
- Two vaccines for HPV are available—Cervarix and Gardasil—and other vaccines continue to be investigated. These vaccines protect against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18. They are most effective if administered before the first sexual contact. Recommendations are that vaccines be administered to 11- and 12-year-old girls and boys. The vaccine can be given to girls as young as 9 years of age and young women ages 13 to 26 years in three doses over a 6-month period.
Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is the most commonly reported in American women?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Candidiasis - CORRECT ANSWER C) Chlamydia
- Chlamydia is the most common and fastest spreading STI among American women, with an estimated 3 million new cases each year. Infection rates are two and a half times that of men. Gonorrhea is probably the oldest communicable disease in the United States and second to Chlamydia in reported conditions. Syphilis is the earliest described STI. Candidiasis is a relatively common fungal infection.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends which therapy for the treatment of the HPV?
A) Miconazole ointment
B) Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
C) Two doses of penicillin administered intramuscularly (IM)
D) Metronidazole by mouth - CORRECT ANSWER B) Topical podofilox 0.5% solution or gel
- Available treatments are imiquimod, podophyllin, and podofilox. Miconazole ointment is used to treat athlete's foot. Penicillin IM is used to treat syphilis. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis.
A client exhibits a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheese-like discharge, along with white patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. Which medication should the nurse practitioner order to treat this condition?
A) Fluconazole
B) Tetracycline
C) Clindamycin
D) Acyclovir - CORRECT ANSWER A) Fluconazole
- The client is experiencing a candidiasis infection. Fluconazole, metronidazole, and clotrimazole are the drugs of choice to treat this condition. Tetracycline is used to treat syphilis. Clindamycin is used to treat bacterial vaginosis. Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes.
Which laboratory testing is used to detect the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A) HIV screening
B) HIV antibody testing
C) Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) counts
D) Cluster of differentiation 8 (CD8) counts - CORRECT ANSWER B) HIV antibody testing
- The screening tool used to detect HIV is the enzyme immunoassay, which tests for the presence of antibodies to the HIV. HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibody tests are used to confirm the diagnosis. To determine whether the HIV is present, the test performed must be able to detect antibodies to the virus, not the virus itself. CD4 counts are associated with the incidence of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in HIV-infected individuals. CD8 counts are not performed to detect HIV.
Which condition is the most life-threatening virus to the fetus and neonate?
A) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) - CORRECT ANSWER C) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
- HBV is the most life-threatening viral condition to the fetus and neonate. HAV is not the most threatening to the fetus nor is HSV the most threatening to the neonate. Although serious, CMV is not the most life-threatening viral condition to the fetus.
Which treatment regime would be most appropriate for a client who has been recently diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Oral antiviral therapy
B) Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position
C) Antibiotic regimen continued until symptoms subside
D) Frequent pelvic examination to monitor the healing progress - CORRECT ANSWER B) Bed rest in a semi-Fowler position
- The woman with acute PID should be on bed rest in a semi-Fowler position. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are used; antiviral therapy is ineffective. Antibiotics must be taken as prescribed, even if symptoms subside. Few pelvic examinations should be conducted during the acute phase of the disease.
On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor and complaints of pruritus. Based upon these findings, which condition would the nurse suspect?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Gonorrhea - CORRECT ANSWER A) Bacterial vaginosis
- Most women with bacterial vaginosis complain of a characteristic "fishy" odor. The discharge is usually profuse, thin, and has a white, gray, or milky color. Some women may also experience mild irritation or pruritus. The discharge associated with candidiasis is thick, white, and lumpy and resembles cottage cheese. Trichomoniasis may be asymptomatic, but women commonly have a characteristic yellow-to-green, frothy, mucopurulent, copious, and malodorous discharge. Women with gonorrhea are often asymptomatic. Although they may have a purulent endocervical discharge, the discharge is usually minimal or absent.
Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?
A) Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2)
B) HPV
C) HIV
D) CMV - CORRECT ANSWER A) Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2)
- The initial HSV genital infection is characterized by multiple painful lesions, fever, chills, malaise, and severe dysuria; it may last 2 to 3 weeks. Recurrent episodes of the HSV infection commonly have only local symptoms that usually are less severe than those of the initial infection. With HPV infection, lesions are a chronic problem. The HIV is a retrovirus. Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 12 weeks after the virus has entered the body. Severe depression of the cellular immune system associated with the HIV infection characterizes AIDS, which has no cure. In most adults, the onset of CMV infection is uncertain and asymptomatic. However, the disease may become a chronic, persistent infection.
The nurse should understand the process by which the HIV infection occurs. Once the virus has entered the body, what is the time frame for seroconversion to HIV positivity?
A) 6 to 10 days
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 6 to 12 weeks
D) 6 months - CORRECT ANSWER C) 6 to 12 weeks
- Seroconversion to HIV positivity usually occurs within 6 to 12 weeks after the virus has entered the body. Both 6 to 10 days and 2 to 4 weeks are too short for seroconversion to HIV positivity to occur, and 6 months is too long.
A 25-year-old single woman comes to the gynecologist's office for a follow-up visit related to her abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The test revealed that the client has the HPV. The woman asks, "What is that? Can you get rid of it?" Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) "It's just a little lump on your cervix. We can just freeze it off."
B) "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection that may lead to cervical cancer."
C) "HPV is a type of early human immunodeficiency virus. You will die from this."
D) "You probably caught this from your current boyfriend. He should get tested for this." - CORRECT ANSWER B) "HPV stands for 'human papillomavirus.' It is a sexually transmitted infection that may lead to cervical cancer."
- Informing the client about STIs and the risks involved with the HPV is important. The health care team has a duty to provide proper information to the client, including information related to STIs and the fact that although the HPV and HIV are both viruses that can be sexually transmitted, they are not the same virus. The onset of the HPV can be insidious. Often STIs go unnoticed. Abnormal bleeding is frequently the initial symptom. The client may have had the HPV before her current boyfriend. The nurse should make no deductions from this limited information.
Which STI does not respond well to antibiotic therapy?
A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Genital herpes
D) Syphilis - CORRECT ANSWER C) Genital herpes
- Genital herpes is a chronic and recurring disease for which no known cure is available; therefore, it does not respond to antibiotics. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection that is treated with doxycycline or azithromycin. Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection that is treated with any of several antibiotics. Syphilis is a bacterial infection that is treated with penicillin.
Five different viruses (A, B, C, D, and E) account for almost all cases of hepatitis infections. Which statement regarding the various forms of hepatitis is most accurate?
A) Vaccine exists for hepatitis C virus (HCV) but not for HBV.
B) HAV is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water.
C) HBV is less contagious than HIV.
D) Incidence of HCV is decreasing. - CORRECT ANSWER B) HAV is acquired by eating contaminated food or drinking polluted water.
- Contaminated milk and shellfish are common sources of infection for HAV. A vaccine exists for HBV but not for HCV. HBV is more contagious than HIV. The incidence of HCV is on the rise.
A 21-year-old client exhibits a greenish, copious, and malodorous discharge with vulvar irritation. A speculum examination and wet smear are performed. Which condition is this client most likely experiencing?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Yeast infection
D) Trichomoniasis - CORRECT ANSWER D) Trichomoniasis
- Although uncomfortable, a speculum examination is always performed and a wet smear obtained if the client exhibits symptoms of trichomoniasis. The presence of many white blood cell protozoa is a positive finding for trichomoniasis. A normal saline test is used to test for bacterial vaginosis. A potassium hydroxide preparation is used to test for candidiasis. Yeast infection is the common name for candidiasis, for which the test is a potassium hydroxide preparation.
An essential component of counseling women regarding safe sex practices includes a discussion regarding avoiding the exchange of body fluids. The most effective physical barrier promoted for the prevention of STIs and HIV is the condom. To educate the client about the use of condoms, which information related to condom use is the most important?
A) Strategies to enhance condom use
B) Choice of colors and special features
C) Leaving the decision up to the male partner
D) Places to carry condoms safely - CORRECT ANSWER A) Strategies to enhance condom use
- When the nurse opens the discussion on safe-sex practices, it gives the woman permission to clear up any concerns or misapprehensions that she may have regarding condom use. The nurse can also suggest ways that the woman can enhance her condom negotiation and communications skills with a sexual partner. These include role-playing, rehearsal, cultural barriers, and situations that place the client at risk. Although women can be taught the differences among condoms, such as size ranges, where to purchase, and price, these features are not as important as negotiating the use of safe sex practices. Although not ideal, women may safely choose to carry condoms in shoes, wallets, or inside their bra. They should be taught to keep the condom away from heat. Although this information is important, it is not relevant if the woman cannot even discuss strategies on how to enhance condom use.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is part of the normal vaginal flora in 20% to 30% of healthy pregnant women. GBS has been associated with poor pregnancy outcomes and is an important factor in neonatal morbidity and mortality. Which finding is not a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection?
A) Positive prenatal culture
B) Preterm birth at 37 weeks or less of gestation
C) Maternal temperature of 38° C or higher
D) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) 24 hours or longer before the birth - CORRECT ANSWER D) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) 24 hours or longer before the birth
- PROM 18 hours or longer before the birth increases the risk for neonatal GBS infection. Positive prenatal culture is a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection. Preterm birth at 37 weeks or less of gestation remains a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection. Maternal temperature of 38° C or higher is also a risk factor for neonatal GBS infection. [Show Less]