NYS EMT-B State Exam Written (2023/2024) Questions And Answers
1. The role of the EMS
provider is to do all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Perform
... [Show More] primary assessment
B. Provide initial resuscitation
C. Provide definitive diagnosis
D. Package patients for transportation
2. As a part of infection control procedures, it is ESSENTIAL that the EMS provider?
A. Dispose of all equipment used after each call
B. Wash his/her hands after treating each patient
C. Wash his/her clothes after each patient contact
D. Avoid casual contact with any patients
3. Another name for the left lateral position is?
A. Semi-fowlers
B. Trendelenburg
C. Recovery position
D. Dorsal recumbent
4. In what position should an unconscious overdose patient be transported to a hospital?
A. On his/her back, with feet elevated
B. On his/her side
C. Seated, with head tilted back and legs elevated
D. Facedown, with head elevated
5. A single EMS provider finds a non-breathing and pulseless victim of a motor vehicle accident lying face down in the road, and suspects that the victim has a spinal injury. The EMS provider should?
A. Do nothing until help arrives
B. Leave the victim in place and attempt to apply the principles of CPR
C. Turn the victim’s body as a unit and begin CPR
D. Apply an extrication collar and attempt to ventilate
6. The pre-hospital care report (PCR) is considered to be?
A. A part of the patient’s hospital chart
B. A matter of public records
C. Inadmissible in a court of law
D. A research document only
7. When communicating with an elderly patient an EMS provider should?
A. Yell in the patient’s ear
B. Speak only to the family
C. Use written notes
D. Speak to the patient in a normal voice
8. An EMS provider is called to the scene of an accident and notices conditions, which suggest that the patient has been involved in a crime. The EMS Provider should?
A. Continue patient care and report the incident to the police at the earliest convenient time
B. Stop patient care and call the police
C. Continue patient care and maintain patient confidentiality by not reporting the suspicions
D. Place the patient in restraints and then summon the police to the scene
9. An accident victim who is a minor has blood spurting from the brachial artery. The parents are not present. Which one of the following actions should the EMS provider take?
A. Contact the receiving hospital by radio for permission to proceed with treatment
B. Get permission from the police to proceed with treatment
C. Take the child to the hospital but provide no treatment
D. Presume that parental consent is implied and proceed with treatment
10. An EMS provider responds to a call and finds an 80-year-old female with no pulse or
respirations. The patient has a history of terminal brain cancer. The family states that the last time she was seen alive was just 5 minutes prior to calling EMS. They also state that the patient has a DNR order in New York State, EMS personnel may accept which of the following DNR instruments as valid?
A. Verbal request from family
B. Written nonhospital DNR
C. Written healthcare proxy
D. Written living will
11. At the scene of a crime, the EMS provider should remember to?
A. Remove the patient from the crime scene before beginning treatment
B. Refrain from touching anything not associated with the care of the patient
C. Wait until the police arrive before transporting the patient
D. Document statements of bystanders regarding the nature of the crime
12. Which of the following is the term used to designate an agreement by a conscious, mentally competent adult patient to accept emergency care?
A. Standard of care
B. Informed consent
C. Duty to act
D. Implied consent
13. Providing care within the scope of practice would be considered to be in accordance with?
A. The sovereign immunity doctrine
B. State law
C. Professional conduct
D. Institutional standards
14. The exchange of oxygen and nutrients from blood cell to tissue cells takes place in the?
A. Arteries
B. Capillaries
C. Venules
D. Arterioles
15. The OPPOSITE of distal is?
A. Superior
B. Medial
C. Lateral
D. Proximal
16. Anatomically, the term “superior”, in relation to other human body structure, is defined as?
A. Toward the head
B. Bigger than
C. In front of
D. Better than
17. The alveoli of the lungs are in close contact with?
A. Diaphragm
B. Main-stem bronchus
C. Pulmonary capillaries
D. Pulmonary arteries
18. All of the following are part of the respiratory system EXCEPT the?
A. Alveoli
B. Esophagus
C. Epiglottis
D. Bronchi
19. The smooth glistening membranous in the body that surrounds each lung is called the?
A. Pleura
B. Diaphragm
C. Mesentery
D. Peritoneum
20. A correct statement concerning airway management of a patient who has a suspected spinal injury is that?
A. The cord injury takes precedence over the airway; the patient can be ventilated only if done without moving the cord
B. The airway always takes precedence over the cord injury; the airway must be opened regardless of the damage it might do to the cord
C. There is no difference in management; in the presence of cord injury, the airway is opened in the usual way
D. Advanced life support techniques must be employed to open the airway without moving the cord
21. If a supine patient has secretions or emesis that cannot be removed or easily suctioned the patient should be?
A. Decompressed using gentle pressure on the abdomen
B. Log-rolled and the oropharynx should be cleared
C. Continually suctioned until the airway is cleared
D. Log-rolled and suctioned again
22. You are to the home of a patient who is on physician-prescribed low-concentration oxygen and who is not in acute respiratory distress. Which type of oxygen delivery device should you use?
A. Non-rebreather mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Simple face mask
D. Flow-restricted oxygen-delivery device
23. When the diaphragm and rib muscles contract, the diaphragm moves downward and the ribs are raised, this phase of breathing is known as?
A. Inhalation
B. Respiration
C. Expiration
D. Ventilation
24. A “stoma” can be defined as?
A. An opening that carries air from the pharynx into the nasopharynx
B. An opening from the front of the throat directly into the esophagus
C. An opening from the front of the throat directly into the trachea
D. The tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach
25. The first EMS unit arrives at the scene of a reported two-car motor vehicle crash. The driver of one vehicle is slumped over the steering wheel. The first step the unit should take in sizing up the scene is to?
A. Use the jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway of the person slumped over the steering wheel
B. Check the scene and the second vehicle for other persons
C. Ask a bystander what caused the accident
D. Assess the level of consciousness of the person slumped over the steering wheel
26. In a HEALTHY person, respiration is controlled by the level of?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Blood sugar
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon monoxide
27. Any physical examination of a patient should begin with?
A. Inspection
B. Manipulation C. Stabilization
D. Palpation
28. In people whose skin is darkly pigmented, cyanosis is BEST seen by observing?
A. Mucosal membranes
B. Earlobes
C. Scalp
D. Face
29. After you have determined that the scene is safe. The FIRST step in caring for a patient is to?
A. Check for a carotid pulse
B. Open the airway
C. Determine unresponsiveness
D. Check for breathing
30. Which of the following arteries is the MOST RELIABLE for detecting a pulse in an unconscious adult?
A. Brachial
B. Femoral
C. Carotid
D. Radial
31. A patient with acute respiratory distress requiring oxygen therapy is LEAST likely to exhibit?
A. A slow pulse rate
B. Anxiety
C. Nasal flaring
D. Intercostal muscle retractions
32. A 65-year-old male was involved in a two-car motor vehicle crash. Upon examination he complains of chest pain when breathing and tenderness of the sternum. Your INITIAL care should include?
A. Stabilizing the sternum
B. Positioning the patient on his side
C. Administering high-concentration oxygen
D. Administrating the patients prescribed nitroglycerin
33. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term “auscultation”?
A. The reaction of a normal pupil to light
B. Evaluating the blood pressure in the sitting and supine position
C. Listening
D. Testing of reflexes
34. During the Primary assessment, you are assessing a conscious trauma patient complaining of pain the leg. You should?
A. Begin to obtain history
B. Assess the leg immediately
C. Discontinue the Primary assessment and start the secondary assessment
D. Continue with your primary assessment
35. The overall purpose of the primary assessment is to?
A. Identify and correct life-threatening problems and set priorities
B. Ensure that the airway is open and locate breathing problems
C. Identify and treat major extremity injuries
D. Identify minor problems and provide definitive treatment
36. In an unstable patient, the primary assessment should be repeated at least every?
A. 2 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes
37. The MOST RELIABLE early indicator used to assess a patient’s overall condition is the patients?
A. Ability to sense your touch
B. Pupillary reaction
C. Mental status
D. Ability to move
38. A patient exhibits noisy breathing that resembles the sound of snoring. What is the probable cause of this sound?
A. Spasms of the larynx
B. Fluid in the lungs
C. Partial airway obstruction
D. Spasms of the pharynx
39. In adults, the accepted normal limits for pulse rate at rest are?
A. 50/ min to 90/ min
B. 60/ min to 100/ min
C. 70/ min to 110/ min
D. 80/ min to 120/ min
40. All of the following are symptoms EXCEPT?
A. Headache
B. Weak pulse
C. Chest pain
D. Nausea
41. When taking a blood pressure by the palpation method?
A. Only the systolic pressure can be obtained
B. The brachial artery should be auscultated
C. The cuff should be inflated to 100mm Hg
D. Only the diastolic pressure can be obtained
42. To assess the circulatory status of a patient’s limbs distal to an injury site, you should check?
A. Pulses, skin temperature, and AVPU
B. Temperature, crepitus, and grating
C. Pulses, skin color, and temperature
D. Skin color, AVPU, and crepitus
43. A correct statement about diastolic blood pressure is that it is the pressure?
A. That exists when the heart’s left ventricle is refilling
B. Due to the contraction of the ventricles of the heart
C. Caused by the contraction of the atria of the heart
D. Caused by the relaxation of the walls of the major arteries
44. The MOST OBVIOUS indication of a paralyzed limb in a non-traumatic brain injury patient is that the limb will?
A. Move if its extremity is lightly jabbed with a pin
B. Be pulseless and feel cold to the touch
C. Be cyanotic and pulseless
D. Appear loose and will lack muscle tone it is moved by the EMS provider
45. A stroke is sometimes referred to as?
A. A Cerebrovascular accident
B. Narcolepsy
C. Epilepsy
D. A cardiovascular accident
46. Which of the following usually follows a convulsion?
A. Hypotension
B. Hyperexcitability
C. Return to normality
D. Drowsiness
47. Using the Cincinnati Pre-hospital stroke Scale, the EMS provider can assess the possible stroke patient for facial droop, abnormal speech, and?
A. Leg strength
B. Arm drift
C. Pupillary response
D. Ataxia
48. The signs or symptoms of an allergic reaction included all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Hives
B. Difficulty breathing
C. Low blood pressure
D. High blood pressure
49. Which one of the following symptoms is not an early signal of anaphylaxis?
A. Itching
B. Swelling of the eyelids
C. Seizures
D. Tightening to the chest
50. The MAIN purpose of insulin is to?
A. Store reserve glucose in the body
B. Allow transport of glucose from blood to cells
C. Act as an energy source for muscular contracture
D. Promote bone growth and change
51. Which of the following result(s) from hypoglycemia?
A. Tremors caused by excessive glucose in the urine
B. Drowsiness and confusion caused by lack of glucose to the brain
C. Dry skin caused by polyuria
D. Fruity odor to breath caused by severe acidosis
52. Administration of oral glucose is CONTRAINDIATED if a patient?
A. Has a medical alert bracelet indicating that the patient is a diabetic
B. Is a known diabetic
C. Is unresponsive
D. Is on medication for diabetes
53. A sign or symptom of decreased oxygen to the heart muscle is?
A. Warm red skin
B. Unconscious
C. Chest pain
D. Extremity paralysis
54. A building contractor, under tremendous pressure to meet a job deadline, experiences diffuse pain in his chest. The pain lasts for several minutes, then disappears with rest. the EMS provider should suspect?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Muscular cramps
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Congestive heart failure
55. An EMS provider is called to the home of a 75-year-old man who complains of crushing substernal chest pain, which began 1 hour ago while eating lunch. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets with no relief. The EMS provider should suspect?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Myocardial infarction
56. The chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs is the?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium
57. In most cases, patients with cardiac-related chest pain complain of?
A. Sharp pain that varies with breathing
B. Pressure or heaviness that does not vary with breathing
C. Pressure or pain referred to the abdomen
D. Sharp pain referred to the arms
58. A patient having chest pain due to a myocardial infarction experiences pain due to?
A. Anxiety
B. Edema
C. Arrhythmias
D. Hypoxia
59. The chamber of the heart that is the most muscular is the?
A. Right atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium
60. The blood vessel that transports blood from the capillaries of the lungs to the heart is referred to as the?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Aorta
C. Superior vena cava
D. Pulmonary vein
61. Normal, which of the following of the following parts of the circulatory system contains blood low oxygen concentration?
A. Left atrium
B. Aorta
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Pulmonary veins
62. A 38-year-old reported vague sensations of pain in his left chest. Before he could see his doctor, he developed severe chest pain that radiated down his left arm and was unrelieved by rest. What position would you normally transport this patient?
A. Laying down
B. Recovery position
C. In position of comfort
D. Trendelenburg
63. What is the name of the blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart to the rest of the body?
A. Venules
B. Veins
C. Arteries
D. Capillaries
64. While carrying concrete blocks at a construction site a 58-year-old man suddenly develops chest pain and shortness of breath. He appears frightened, vomits and has cool clammy skin. These are probable signs of?
A. Hiatal hernia
B. Heat exhaustion
C. Fatigue
D. Heart attack
65. Sudden death following acute MI is usually caused by?
A. Thromboembolism
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Ventricular fibrillation
66. Asystole is best defines as a/an?
A. Rapid heart rate that requires defibrillation
B. Non-shockable heart rhythm
C. Shockable heart rhythm in children only
D. A slow heart rate that doesn’t require defibrillation
67. An EMS provider can assist in conscious patient in taking his/her prescribed nitro pill by seeing to it that the patient?
A. Chews it thoroughly
B. Swallows it with a glass of water
C. Places it under his/her tongue
D. Sucks it until it dissolves
68. A child drank some unknown fluid. You arrive at the scene and note the following signs: the child’s mouth and lips are a reddish color, and the child is coughing and gagging. You assess and manage the ABCs and begin transport. What should you do next?
A. Administer syrup of ipecac and activated charcoal
B. Administer syrup of ipecac
C. Administer activated charcoal
D. Contact medical control
69. What is the first thing you should do when treating a patient for an overdose of drugs?
A. Call the local poison control center for info
B. Restrain the patient to prevent the possibility of self-injury
C. Ensure the patient has an adequate airway
D. Notify the police of the overdoes situation
70. A bluish tint of the skin is indicative of?
A. Hypoxia
B. CO poisoning
C. Diabetic coma
D. Heat exhaustion
71. Which of the following blood components combats infection?
A. Red blood cell
B. Plasma
C. White blood cell
D. Platelet
72. The function of the red blood cells is to?
A. Produce coagulation factors
B. Carry oxygen and CO
C. Ingest bacteria
D. Reproduce white blood cells
73. Which of the following correctly identifies the blood component essential for the formation of blood clots?
A. Platelets
B. Plasma
C. White blood cells
D. Red blood cells
74. To perform external cardiac chest compressions on a 4-year-old child, you should use the?
A. Tips of the fingers
B. Thumbs of both hands
C. Heel of one hand
D. Palm of one hand
75. Initially, when adult one rescuer CPR is started when they should patient be checked for return of breathing and pulse?
A. When the AED is checking for a shockable rhythm
B. Then the patient becomes responsive
C. After two cycles of CPR
D. After five cycles of CPR
76. What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations that an EMS Provider should use
when performing CPR on an adult without an advanced airway if there is only one rescuer?
A. 5 compressions:1 ventilation
B. 15 compressions: 2 ventilations
C. 30 compressions: 1 ventilation
D. 30 compressions: 2 ventilations
77. The preferred method of the chest compression on an infant by two healthcare providers is the?
A. Two-thumb, encircling hands technique
B. Two-finger technique
C. Heel hand technique
D. Two-hand technique
78. Which of the following statements concerning the performance of CPR is CORRECT?
A. Compression and chest recoil/relaxation times should be approximately equal
B. Quick jabs are effective in providing pulses of blood to the brain
C. Seventy percent of the cycle should be compression and thirty percent of the cycle should be relaxation
D. Quick jabs produce jets of blood flow out of the heart and enhance stroke volume
79. The first step that should be taken to treat a patient who is unresponsive is to?
A. Apply positive ventilation
B. Clear the mouth
C. Check for a pulse
D. Check for breathing
80. the landmark for external cardiac compression on an infant should be?
A. At the sternal notch
B. Just above the nipple line
C. Just below the nipple line
D. The upper half of the sternum
81. While performing CPR on an average adult in cardiac arrest, the proper depth of compression is?
A. As deep as the EMS Provider is able to push
B. At least 3 inches
C. At least 2 inches
D. Irrelevant as depth does not matter
82. A nosebleed is called?
A. Hypoxia
B. Cyanosis
C. Epistaxis
D. Necrosis
83. Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration?
A. The exit wound of a bullet
B. A hand severed from the arm
C. Part of the earlobe dangling from the rest of the ear D. Bowel loops protruding through the abdomen
84. Injuries to the elbow joint may be serious because the?
A. Artery may be pinched off, causing shock in minutes
B. Artery and nerves to the forearm may be injured
C. Artery to the humerus may be injured
D. Nerve leaving the humerus may be injured
85. A traction splint has been properly applied when the?
A. Patient feels an increase in pain
B. Fracture is fully reduced
C. Device is fully extended
D. Limb alignment is achieved
86. A 16-year-old male has fallen down a flight of stairs. You find that the patient’s shoulder is deformed and that he is guarding the shoulder and complaining of a tingling in the fingers on the injured side. After locating a distal pulse, you should?
A. Reduce the obvious injury
B. Transport the patient without applying anything to the shoulder
C. Apply gentle traction to reduce the tingling and then splint in place
D. Immobilize the entire arm in a sling, swathe, and blanket roll, if necessary
87. You are called to a gym where a 25-year-old female has fallen. She is complaining of severe pain in her right elbow, which is swollen and deformed. You should?
A. Straighten the elbow to relieve pain
B. Splint the elbow in the position found
C. Administer oxygen at 6 liters/minute via nasal cannula
D. Check the proximal pulse
88. Which one of the following devices should not be used to immobilize a femur injury (fracture)?
A. Rigid splint
B. Air splint
C. Traction splint
D. MAST
89. The type of hypoperfusion (shock) associated with severe burns is?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hemorrhagic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
90. A patient presents with partial- and full-thickness burns of the entire chest and abdomen and the anterior portion of both legs (thigh to foot). Using the “rule of nines,” the
percentage of total body area burned is estimated to be?
A. 18% B. 27% C. 36%
D. 45%
91. What part of the skin provides shock absorption and insulin?
A. Epidermis
B. Muscle fibers
C. Sweat glands
D. Subcutaneous tissue
92. When treating a patient with a brain injury, it is important to record changes in the patient's?
a. Mental status
b. Pupil reaction
c. Respiratory rate
d. Blood pressure
93. With regard to treatment of a head trauma victim, the EMS providers MOST IMPORTANT is to?
A. Look for leaking cerebrospinal fluid
B. Ensure a patient airway
C. Document changes in the level of response to painful stimuli
D. Control external hemorrhaging
94. At the scene of an accident, you find a victim who exhibits rapid weak respiration, a normal pulse rate, and paralysis of the arms and legs. You should suspect injury to the?
A. Thoracic spine
B. Sacral spine
C. Lumbar spine
D. Cervical spine
95. You are assessing a 25-year-old male who has an obvious head injury that was sustained in an accident. The patient in unresponsive. His vital signs are BP = 80/40, pulse = 150 min and R = 30/min. you should also suspect?
A. Intracranial bleeding
B. Cerebral vascular accident
C. Blood loss from internal injury
D. Plasma loss
96. You have arrived at the scene of automobile accident. One of the victims has a bleeding from an open scalp wound. What should you do?
A. Loosely cover the wound with a sterile dressing
B. Apply a pressure dressing
C. Collect the fluid in a sterile container for later analysis
D. Pack the wound with sterile dressings
97. You are treating a patient with cold injury to an extremity. You are several hours away from a hospital. You should?
A. Not attempt to re-warm
B. Briskly massage the extremity
C. Immerse the extremity in water that is well below body temperature
D. Actively re-warm the extremity in a warm water bath
98. In a cold environment, humans can lose body heat in all of the following ways EXCEPT?
A. Evaporation
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Shivering
99. In treating a patient with a heat related emergency, it is important NOT to reheat the patient to the point at which shivering begins, because shivering?
A. Indicates a chemical imbalance
B. Is the body’s mechanism to produce additional heat
C. Will increase the cooling process
D. Will produce a state of hypoperfusion (shock)
100. If spontaneous respiration does NOT begin after you have cleared a newborns mouth and nose you should?
A. Begin CPR
B. Administer 100% oxygen with a pediatric bag-valve mask
C. Begin mouth-to-mask resuscitation
D. Position, dry, keep warm, and stimulate
101. If difficulties arise during delivery of the baby's upper shoulder, the EMS Provider should assist by gently?
A. Pulling at the baby's shoulders
B. Guiding the baby's bead downward
C. Guiding the baby's head upward
D. Pushing a glove hand into the vagina
102. Which of the following statements regarding the basic anatomy of the developing fetus is correct?
A. The umbilical cord connects the fetus directly to the uterus
B. The afterbirth is another name for the amniotic sac
C. The fetus develops inside the placenta
D. The fetus receives oxygen and nutrients from the placenta
103. All of the following are signals of imminent delivery EXCEPT?
A. An urge to move bowels
B. Contractions 5 minutes
C. Evidence of crowning
D. Amniotic sac ruptured 5 hours previously
104. When treating an injured child suspected of being a victim of child abuse, your PRIMARY responsibility is to?
A. Ask the child if he/she has been abused
B. Tell the parents you suspect child abuse
C. Immediately notify the police
D. Assess and provide appropriate care
105. Which of the following is a condition commonly found in children that is characterized by fever, diarrhea, vomiting and sunken eyes?
A. Seizures
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Croup
D. Dehydration
106. Upon arriving at the scene of a suspected sudden infant death syndrome, the EMS provider should IMMEDIATELY proceed to?
A. Obtain a complete medical history
B. Notify police and await their approval for removal
C. Initiate resuscitative procedures and transfer the infant to the hospital
D. Inform the parents of the death of their infant
107. According to New York State and Traffic Law, emergency lights AND audible device such as a siren MUST be used whenever an ambulance is?
A. Transporting a patient in full cardiac arrest
B. Proceeding through a red light with due caution
C. Transporting a stable patient to the emergency department
D. Responding to a standby
108. Using the system of triage at the scene of an MCI, which of the following patients would present the lowest priority?
A. 24-year-old female with a fractured knee, fractured tibia/fibula, and fractured ulna, BP 130/82
B. 17-year-old male with fractured pelvis, fractured femur, open head injury, not breathing, no pulse
C. 49-year-old female with a spinal injury, neurological defects in upper and lower extremities, BP 110/80
D. 53-year-old male with severe head injury, BP 172/110
109. Pushing the dash, taking a roof off a vehicle, or pulling a steering wheel away from a patient are all examples of?
A. Disentanglement
B. Removing the patient
C. Preventive procedures
D. Protecting the patient
110. A car has crashed into a utility pole. The pole has cracked in half and an electrical wire has fallen across the top of the car. Upon arrival, the EMS Provider sees apparently uninjured people in the car. The EMS providers FIRST action should be to?
A. Set up flares around the area
B. Direct the car’s occupants not to touch any metal in the car and not to attempt to get out
C. Remove the downed electrical wire with wooden implements
D. Notify the utility company of the downed electrical wire and request that the electrical current to the area be turned off immediately [Show Less]