Question:
What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for initial
screening of an African-American malefor prostate cancer?
Digital rectal
... [Show More] exam starting at age 40 yearsPSA starting at age 45
yearsDiscussions starting at age 40-45 years CorrectHe should be
screened starting at age 50 years.
Explanation:
American Cancer Society guidelines recommend beginning screening
discussion at age 40-45 years for males at high risk for developing prostate
cancer (e.g. a first degree relative with prostate cancer before age65 or
African American race). The reason for “screening discussions” is to keep
males involved in individual decision making. The PSA threshold is 4.0
ng/mL. Testing is discouraged for males with less than a 10 year expected
survival. US Preventive Services Task Force does not recommend
screening.
Question:
What is American Cancer Society’s recommendation for prostate screening in a 70 year-old
male?
He should be screened annually with PSA only.He should be screened
annually with PSA and DRE.He should be screened until he has a life
expectancy of less than 10 years. CorrectScreening can stop at age 75years.
Explanation:
Prostate cancer screening at age 70 years includes both prostate specific
antigen measurement (PSA) and digital rectal exam (DRE). Prostate cancer
NURSING HEALTH ASS APEA TB 2 Exam Questions and
Answers 100%correct/verified Rated A+ new update 2022
is typically a slow growing tumor, thus if life expectancy is < 10years,
screening is not cost-effective.
Question:
A 70 year-old male presents to your clinic with a lump in his breast. How
should this be evaluated? Palpation and ultrasound IncorrectMammogram
and ultrasound CorrectUltrasound onlyMammogram only
Explanation:
This patient has a lump identified in the breast. Since males can develop
breast cancer, it must be evaluatedin the same means that a female breast
lump would be evaluated. He should have a clinical breast exam to identify
the position of the lump, and any other abnormal findings such as nodes or
other lumps. Then, he should have mammogram and ultrasound to help
evaluate the lump. If the findings were suspicious for a malignancy, the
patient would be referred to a surgeon.
Question:
A 22 year-old male who is otherwise healthy complains of scrotal pain. His
pain has developed over thepast 4 days. He is diagnosed with epididymitis.
What is the most likely reason?
His ageInfection with Chlamydia CorrectUnderlying hydroceleUrinary tract infection
Explanation:
Several factors predispose males to epididymitis. In men under age 35, the
most common cause of epididymitis is infection with Chlamydia
trachomatis. In older men, urinary tract pathogens are more typical. In prepubertal boys, bicycle riding and heavy physical exertion are most
common. In pre-pubertalboys, consideration should be given to congenital
abnormalities.
NURSING HEALTH ASS APEA TB 2 Exam Questions and
Answers 100%correct/verified Rated A+ new update 2022
Question:
Digital rectal exam may be performed to assess the prostate gland. Which
term does NOT describe aprostate gland that may have a tumor?
NodularAsymmetricalBoggy CorrectIndurated
Explanation:
A boggy prostate describes a gland that is edematous and tender, such as is
seen in a patient with bacterialprostatitis. The other terms indicate an
abnormality that could represent a prostate gland tumor.
Question:
A male patient has epididymitis. His most likely complaint will be:
burning with urination.testicular pain.scrotal pain. Correctpenile discharge.
Explanation:
The most common complaint is scrotal pain. It usually develops over a
period of days. Occasionally, it develops acutely and will be accompanied
by fever, chills, and a very ill-appearing patient. Burning withurination is
possible if the underlying cause is a urinary tract infection, but, this is not
usual. This presentation is seen more commonly in older males. Testicular
pain is not a common complaint with epididymitis. Penile discharge would
not indicate an infection in the epididymis since the epididymis is atightly
coiled tubular structure located on the testis.
Question:
What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for screening an
average risk 40 year-oldCaucasian male for prostate cancer?
NURSING HEALTH ASS APEA TB 2 Exam Questions and
Answers 100%correct/verified Rated A+ new update 2022
Digital rectal examSerum prostate specific antigen (PSA)Digital rectal
exam and PSAHe should bescreened starting at age 50 years. Correct
Explanation:
American Cancer Society recommends initial prostate screening of an
average risk male at age 50 yearswith PSA testing with or without digital
rectal exam. If the initial PSA is < 2.5 ng/mL, the screen can be repeated
in 2 years. If the PSA is > 2.5, annual screening should take place.
Question:
Which of the following results in a clinically insignificant increase in the
prostate specific antigen (PSA)?Digital rectal exam
CorrectEjaculationProstatitis IncorrectProstate biopsy
Explanation:
Digital rectal exam (DRE) leads to a clinically insignificant increase of
0.26-0.4 ng/ml for about 48-72 hours afterwards. Prostate biopsy
increases the PSA about 8 ng/ml for up to 4 weeks following biopsy.
Prostate infection and ejaculation both can increase the PSA levels.
Question:
Hesselbach’s triangle forms the landmark for:
inguinal hernia. Correctfemoral hernia.abdominal hernia.umbilical hernia.
Explanation:
Direct inguinal hernias occur through Hesselbach’s triangle. The inguinal
ligament, the rectus muscle, and the epigastric vessels form the triangle.
When there is a weakness in the floor of the inguinal canal, a herniacan
NURSING HEALTH ASS APEA TB 2 Exam Questions and
Answers 100%correct/verified Rated A+ new update 2022
result. Inguinal hernias are the most common groin hernias in men and
women. Repair of this is the most common surgical procedure performed in
the US. [Show Less]