NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM 2020 (SPRING) LATEST UPDATE
2023-2024 QUESTIONS & 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The
... [Show More] AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things,
a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While
evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n)
is the least worrisome type.
Response
Feedback:
“A” is the correct answer. A transudate is essentially just water and
can occur as a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure in the
pulmonary vessels. It typically implies that the some condition has
produced an imbalance in colloid-hydrostatic pressures, such as CHF
or hypoalbuminemia. While it can represent a serious problem, it
may also represent a transient imbalance. Conversely, “B” is not
correct as an exudate has more protein in it and implies a condition
characterized by protein leaking from vessels, such as a malignancy
or some serious systemic stressor. “C” is not correct—a chyliform
effusion is characterized by fat and indicates a pathology causing
massive triglyceride degradation. “D” is not correct as a hemorrhagic
effusion is blood and typically means traumatic injury.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Differentiating vertigo from near-syncope and ataxia is one of the goals of history-taking
when a patient presents as “dizzy.” The AGACP knows that vertigo is the problem when
the patient reports the primary symptom as:
Response
Feedback:
“A” is the correct answer. Dizzy is a layperson’s term and can mean
many different things to patients and health care providers. When the
patient identifies the primary symptom as a sense of spinning this
supports vertigo, which is usually an inner ear problem. This versus
ataxia which is neurologic or near-syncope which may be cardiac,
neurological, or neurocardiogenic. “B” is not correct—this may
occur with vertigo, but when it is the primary symptom it is most
likely ataxia and neurological causes should be considered. “C” is
not correct as coincident nausea is not specific and can occur with
any of these complaints. “D” is not correct as it is also not specific;
while ataxia cannot occur when supine near-syncope can.
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NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM 2020 (SPRING) LATEST UPDATE
2023-2024 QUESTIONS & 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALE
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Mr. Banks has been admitted for surgical resection of a metastatic tumor, during surgery
it is discovered that he has widespread, diffuse metastasis throughout the abdomen.
Surgery is no longer an option, and his oncologist says that chemotherapy is unlikely to
produce any meaningful benefit. Mr. Banks is concerned that his sons will not support a
transfer to comfort care. The AGACNP advises that he:
Response
Feedback:
“B” is the correct answer. If there is any concern about disagreement
among family members, or any concern at all that a patient’s wishes
will not be carried out, the best action is to ensure that there is a
clearly defined legally executed document. “A” is not correct. Living
wills are not legally enforceable documents and when dissention
arises among family members they may not be carried out. “C” is not
correct - while the patient should arrange for his care as long as he is
capable of doing so, if questions arise at such a time that he is not
capable of answering his next of kin will need to do so. “D” is not
correct -- identifying the proxy is not enough without assigning legal
rights and responsibilities. While “A,” “C,” and “D” should all be
done and will support his care, the only way to ensure that one’s
wishes are carried out is to ensure that a legally enforceable direction
is in place.
Question 4
Mr. Wilkerson is a 77-year-old male who is being evaluated and treated for his
cardiogenic pain. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature of 99.1° F, pulse of 100
bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg. A 12-lead ECG
1 out of 1 points
reveals deep ST segment depression in leads V3-V6. The AGACNP recognizes which of
the following as a contraindication to rTPA therapy?
Response
Feedback:
“D” is the correct answer. rTPA is not indicated in patients with ST
segment depression; this is not a ST elevation MI. “A” is not correct
as age > 80 is a relative contraindication. “B” is not correct as a
temperature of 99.1° F is an expected response to myocardial
necrosis, and “C” is not correct—the blood pressure is not
prohibitive until > 180/110 mm hg.
Question 5
A 71-year-old patient is recovering from a particularly severe exacerbation of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been in the hospital for almost two weeks and
1 out of 1 points
was on mechanical ventilation for 7 days. While discussing his discharge plan he tells
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NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM 2020 (SPRING) LATEST UPDATE
2023-2024 QUESTIONS & 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONA [Show Less]