NUR 100 Pharm Questions with Explanation Module 11 Practice Questions
A patient is prescribed aspirin, 81 mg, and clopidogrel. The nurse identifies
... [Show More] the drug classification of clopidogrel as
A. anticoagulant.
B. thrombotic inhibitor.
C. antiplatelet.
D. thrombolytic.
ANS: C
Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet drug.
A patient arrived in the emergency department 2 hours after an acute ischemic stroke. The patient is given an intravenous (IV) injection of alteplase tPA. It is most important for the nurse to monitor what? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bleeding
B. Vital signs
C. PT levels
D. Allergic reactions
E. Electrocardiogram
ANS: A, B, D, E
The nurse should monitor the patient receiving thrombolytics for adverse effects, such as bleeding, allergic reactions, and cardiac dysrhythmias. An increased heart rate with a decreased BP usually indicates blood loss from bleeding.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient about warfarin therapy?
A. Increase the amount of green, leafy vegetables in your diet.
B. Rinse your mouth instead of brushing your teeth.
C. Follow up with laboratory tests such as PT or INR to regulate warfarin dose.
D. Use a new razor blade each time you shave.
ANS: C
Laboratory tests such as PT or INR are performed to regulate warfarin (Coumadin) dose. The patient should avoid consuming large amounts of green, leafy vegetables; broccoli; legumes; soybean oil; coffee; tea; cola; excessive alcohol, and certain nutritional supplements such as coenzyme Q10. Patients are encouraged to perform oral hygiene and use a soft tooth brush to prevent gums from bleeding. Patients should be instructed to use an electric razor when shaving.
A patient is on heparin therapy secondary to deep vein thromboses. The nurse has which medication on hand as an antidote in case it is needed?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Warfarin
D. Aminocaproic acid
ANS: B
Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin), not heparin, therapy; warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant, and aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is a plasminogen inactivator used to control excessive bleeding from hyperfibrinolysis.
Four patients are considered as potential candidates for thrombolytic therapy. Which patient is most likely to receive thrombolytic therapy?
A. The patient who recently used acetaminophen
B. The patient with a history of severe hypertension
C. The patient who recently had spinal surgery
D. The patient with a history of warfarin use
ANS: A
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) does not interfere with the coagulation system. Contraindications for use of thrombolytics include a recent CVA, active bleeding, severe hypertension, recent history of traumatic injury, especially head injury, and anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should report if the patient takes aspirin or NSAIDs.
The nurse is caring for a patient who received alteplase tPA for treatment of acute coronary syndrome. The patient starts to bleed. The nurse anticipates administration of which medication?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Warfarin
D. Aminocaproic acid
ANS: D
Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to stop bleeding by inhibiting plasminogen activation, which inhibits thrombolysis.
A patient visits an outpatient clinic. The patient has been noncompliant with anticoagulation therapy and states, “I don’t like having to have blood work all of the time.” The nurse anticipates prescription of which medication?
A. Abciximab
B. Tirofiban
C. Eptifibatide
D. Rivaroxaban
ANS: D
Two oral anticoagulants form a new anticoagulant category called Xa inhibitors. Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) was FDA-approved in July 2011, and apixaban (Eliquis) was FDA-approved in December 2012. These drugs do not require routine coagulation monitoring and are given q.d. or b.i.d. The other medications are administered intravenously.
A patient is recovering from surgery to replace her right hip. In the early postoperative phase, the nurse anticipates administration of which drug to prevent deep vein thrombosis?
A. Dipyridamole
B. Low-molecular-weight heparin
C. Abciximab
D. Anagrelide
ANS: B
Low-molecular-weight heparins are derivatives of standard heparin and were introduced to prevent venous thromboembolism. The other drugs are platelet inhibitors. Antiplatelets are used to prevent thrombosis in the arteries by suppressing platelet aggregation.
The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse anticipates administration of which medication?
A. Intravenous heparin
B. Clopidogrel
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
ANS: A
Intravenous heparin is indicated for rapid anticoagulant effect when a thrombosis occurs because of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE), or an evolving stroke. The effects of subcutaneous heparin take longer to occur. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet drug that is mainly for prophylactic use in prevention of myocardial infarction or stroke. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, and protamine is the antidote for heparin.
The patient is being discharged home on warfarin therapy. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient?
A. Results of activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) will determine if the medication is effective.
B. International normalized ratio (INR) results should be between 2 and 3.
C. A normal response to warfarin is for your stools to look tarry.
D. Increase the amount of green leafy vegetables in your diet.
ANS: B
Today, the international normalized ratio (INR) is the laboratory test most frequently used to report PT results; a value of 2 to 3 is considered acceptable. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are laboratory tests to detect deficiencies of certain clotting factors, and these tests are used to monitor heparin therapy. Tarry stools indicate GI bleeding. Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K, which is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin).
Module 6 Practice Questions Chapter 27
Which teaching for the patient who is taking fluconazole is a priority for the nurse?
A. Take concurrent vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy.
B. Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
C. Advise that hypoglycemia may occur with concurrent oral sulfonylureas.
D. Warn that gingival hyperplasia may occur with prolonged use.
ANS: C
Hypoglycemia may occur in patients who are concurrently taking fluconazole and a sulfonylurea. Vitamin B6 may prevent peripheral neuropathy for individuals taking isoniazid. Isoniazid should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Gingival hyperplasia may occur as an adverse effect of acyclovir.
A patient has developed active tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid and rifampin. Which information will the nurse include in teaching the patient about taking this drug? (Select all that apply.)
A. Isoniazid should be given 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
B. Have periodic eye examinations as ordered by the health care provider.
C. Compliance with drug regimen is essential.
D. Report numbness, tingling, and burning of hands and feet.
E. Warn patient that rifampin may turn body fluids a harmless green color.
ANS: A, B, C, D
Isoniazid should be given 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals for better absorption. Periodic eye examinations should be done as these drugs may cause visual disturbances. Compliance with drug regimen is essential to prevent drug resistance. Numbness, tingling, or burning of hands and feet should be reported. Rifampin may turn body fluids a harmless reddish orange color.
A middle-aged adult is diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which is true of treatment for this diagnosis?
A. Treatment may take about 10 days to 2 weeks.
B. Usually two to three agents are needed.
C. The bacteria is usually resistant to treatment therapy.
D. Treatment for tuberculosis is usually without side effects.
ANS: B
Single-drug therapy for TB is not effective. Usually two to three drugs are needed. The total treatment plan is usually 6 to 9 months. Although unusual, resistance can occur. The patient should be taught methods to prevent and report side effects and adverse reactions to therapy.
When teaching a patient about isoniazid (INH) and rifampin drug therapy, which statement will the nurse include?
A. “Take isoniazid with meals.”
B. “Double the amount of vitamin C in your diet to prevent the peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid therapy.”
C. “Notify the primary health care provider immediately if your urine turns a red-orange color.”
D. “Avoid exposure to direct sunlight.”
ANS: D
The patient should be taught to avoid direct sunlight. The patient should be taught that INH should be administered 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is used with INH therapy to decrease peripheral neuropathy. Rifampin use causes the urine to turn a red-orange color.
A patient is diagnosed with a Candida infection in the mouth. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with
A. metronidazole.
B. amphotericin B.
C. isoniazid.
D. nystatin.
ANS: D
Nystatin in oral suspension is commonly used to treat Candida infection in the mouth.
When caring for a patient receiving amphotericin B, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of
A. hypokalemia.
B. hypernatremia.
C. hypocalcemia.
D. hypermagnesemia.
ANS: A
Patients taking amphoterocin B should be assessed for the development of hypokalemia.
Which nursing intervention is the priority when a patient is receiving antiviral drugs?
A. Promoting hydration
B. Enhancing bowel function
C. Increasing tidal volume
D. Promoting circulation
ANS: A
Antiviral drugs can affect renal function. Patients taking antiviral drugs should be advised to maintain adequate fluid intake to ensure sufficient hydration for drug therapy and to increase urine output.
Pharmacology: Quiz Four
(Module 7: Inflammation & Module 8: Sympathetic/Parasympathetic Regulation)
Quizlet made
1. The patient calls the nursing station and requests pain medication. When the nurse enters the room with the narcotic medication, the nurses finds the patient laughing and talking with visitors. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A. Check the EMAR to see if there is a nonnarcotic medication ordered.
B. Assess the patient's perception of pain on a 1-10 Scale.
C. Administer the patient's prescribed pain medication.
D. Wait until the visitors leave to administer any medication.
B. Assess the patient's perception of pain on a 1-10 Scale.
The first action is to access the patient in pain to determine if the patient is having a complication that requires another intervention rather than a PRN pain medication.
2. The nurse administered a narcotic pain medication thirty minutes ago to a patient diagnosed with cancer. Which data indicates the medication was effective?
A. The patient uses guided imagery to help with pain control.
B. The patient is snoring lightly when the nurse enters the room.
C. The patient keeps her eyes closed and the drapes drawn.
D. The patient is lying as still as possible in their bed.
B. The patient is snoring lightly when the nurse enters the room.
Light snoring indicates the patient is asleep, which would indicate the medication is effective.
3. The patient diagnosed with cancer tell the nurse, "I am afraid that I will die in pain and be addicted to the pain meds."
A. "There are medications that can be prescribed to control the pain, but they can cause you to become addicted."
B. "It does happen sometimes and I hope it does not happen to you."
C. "Pain is a concern, but we don't worry about addiction with cancer patients."
D. "Pain does not occur for everyone, but if it does you will have medications prescribed to control it and addiction does not usually occur, but I can discuss it with you and your provider."
D. "Pain does not occur for everyone, but if it does you will have medications prescribed to control it and addiction does not usually occur, but I can discuss it with you and your provider."
The nurse should inform the patient about pain control option, after the patient has accurate information, the nurse can address the fear and the addiction concern.
4. What is the immediate intervention if a patient on oxycodone 10 mg/mL infusion therapy experiences respiratory depression?
A. Reduce the dose of oxycodone to 5 mg/mL
B. Administer acetylcysteine
C. Decrease the rate of infusion
D. Administer 0.4 mg of naloxone
D. Administer 0.4 mg of naloxone
Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of opioid administration. Naloxone counters the effects of opioids, so this drug would be used to treat respiratory depression resulting from oxycodone administration. Acetylcysteine is used to counter acetaminophen, not opioid, overdose. Decreasing the dose or rate of infusion may be done to decrease less serious side effects like drowsiness or nausea.
5. A patient with bone pain caused by metastatic cancer will be receiving a transdermal fentanyl patches. The patient asks the nurse what benefits these patches have. The nurse's best response includes which of these features?
A. Lower dependency potential and no major adverse effects
B. Less constipation and minimal dry mouth
C. More constant drug levels for analgesia
D. Less drowsiness than with oral opioids
C. More constant drug levels for analgesia
6. An opioid analgesic is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks that patient's medical history knowing this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Severe asthma
D. Liver disease
C. Severe asthma
7. A patient is receiving an opioid via PCA pump as part of his postoperative pain management. During nursing rounds he is found unresponsive, with respirations of 8 breaths per minute, BP 102/58 mm Hg. After stopping the opioid infusion, what should the nurse anticipate to do next?
A. Administer an opiate antagonist
B. Draw arterial blood gases
C. Notify the change nurse and doctor
D. Perform a thorough assessment including a neuro assessment
C. Notify the change nurse and doctor
8. Several patients have orders for acetaminophen as needed for pain. While reviewing their histories and performing assessments on the patients the nurse discovers a patient has a contraindication to acetaminophen therapy. Which patient should receive an alternate medication?
A. A patient with viral hepatitis
B. A patient who has abdominal surgery a week ago
C. A patient with a fever of 103.4 F (39.7 C) orally
D. A patient admitted with deep vein thrombosis
A. A patient with viral hepatitis
9. Which of the following is not an NSAID that inhibits COX in the GI mucosa?
A. Celecoxb
B. Acetaminophen
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen
A. Celecoxb
10. Which of the following has the risk of Reye's syndrome if given when virus or varicella is present?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. ASA
C. Morphine
D. Acetaminophen
B. ASA
Pharmacology Quiz 3
Quizlet made
1. The nurse administers subcutaneous epinephrine to a patient who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse should expect to monitor the patient for which symptom?
A. Bradycardia
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Decreased urine output
D. Hypotension
C. Decreased urine output
2. Cholinergic drugs have specific effects on the body. What are the actions of cholinergic medications? (Select all that apply.)
A. Dilate pupils
B. Decrease heart rate
C. Stimulate gastric muscle
D. Dilate blood vessels
E. Increase salivation
F. Constrict pupils
G. Dilate bronchioles
B. Decrease heart rate
C. Stimulate gastric muscle
D. Dilate blood vessels
E. Increase salivation
F. Constrict pupils
3. A patient receiving a histamine antagonist asks the nurse how the drug works in the body. The nurse explains that a histamine antagonist:
A. mimics the chemical histamine.
B. Is a precursor to the histamine molecule.
C. stimulates the action of histamine in the stomach.
D. blocks the action of histamine in the stomach.
D. blocks the action of histamine in the stomach.
Histamine stimulates parietal cells to produce gastric acid required for digestion. Too much histamine can cause problems such as heart burn and ulcers so the histamine antagonist blocks the histamine receptors.
4. Older adult patients taking bethanechol (Urecholine) need to be assessed more frequently because of which of the following adverse effects?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Dizziness
D. Urinary retention
D. Urinary Retention
5. Atropine is most useful in the treatment of which cardiovascular condition?
A. Tachycardia
B. Atrial fibulation
C. Normal sinus rhythm
D. Bradycardia
D. Bradycardia
The use of atropine in cardiovascular disorders is mainly in the management of patients with bradycardia. Atropine increases the heart rate and improves the atrioventricular conduction by blocking the parasympathetic influences on the heart.
6. Before initiating therapy with a nonselective beta blocker, the nurse will assess the patient for a history of which condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Liver disease
C. Asthma
D. Pancreatitis
C. Asthma
7. A patient is prescribed a non-cardioselective beta1 blocker. What nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
A. Assessment of blood glucose levels
B. Teaching about potential tachycardia
C. Orthostatic blood pressure assessment
D. Respiratory assessment
D. Respiratory assessment
Non-cardioselective beta blockers can cause bronchospasms, and a respiratory assessment is indicated to check for potential respiratory side effects.
8. A patient taking prazosin (alpha-adrenergic antagonists) has a blood pressure of 140/90. The patient is complaining of swollen feet. What is the nurse's best action?
A. Hold the medication.
B. Call the health care provider.
C. Determine the patient’s history.
D. Weigh the patient.
C. Determine the patient’s history.
The desired therapeutic effect of prazosin may not fully occur for 4 weeks. The nurse does not know how long the client has been on this medication.
9. Atropine is not prescribed for any patient with glaucoma. The nurse knows the contraindications is due to which of the following effects of atropine?
A. Atropine increases intraocular pressure
B. Atropine decreases lacrimation
C. Atropine decreases lateral movement of the eyes
D. Atropine increases difficulty with night vision due to papillary constriction
A. Atropine increases intraocular pressure
10. A nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's disease who is taking benztropine (Cogentin) orally daily. The nurse does which of the following to assess for a side effect of medication?
A. Checks pupillary response
B. Monitors intake and output
C. Monitors the prothrombin time (PT)
D. Checks the partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
B. Monitors intake and output
Urinary retention is a side effect of benztropine. The nurse needs to monitor the client's intake and output and observe for dysuria, distended abdomen, infrequent voiding of small amounts, and overflow incontinence. Options A, C, and D are unrelated to the side effects of this medication.
Pharmacology Module 8 Practice Questions QUIZLET MADE
When teaching a patient who has been prescribed metoprolol about side/adverse effects, which is the highest priority teaching point?
A. Report any complaints of stuffy nose.
B. Instruct the patient how to take a pulse.
C. Check for bladder distention.
D. Warn of possible impotence and decreased libido.
ANS: B
It is most important for the patient to learn how to monitor the heart rate because of the side effect of bradycardia with metoprolol.
Stimulation of which adrenergic receptor results in dilation of vessels and decrease in blood pressure?
A. Alpha1
B. Alpha2
C. Beta1
D. Beta2 ANS: B
When alpha2 receptors are stimulated, they inhibit the release of norepinephrine, leading to a decrease in vasoconstriction. This results in vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure.
The nurse is teaching the patient about the side effects of atenolol. These include
A. pupillary constriction.
B. blood vessel dilation.
C. bronchospasm.
D. tachycardia.
ANS: C
The side effects commonly associated with beta blockers are bradycardia, hypotension, headache, dizziness, cold extremities, hypoglycemia, and bronchospasm.
A nurse is administering epinephrine to a patient during a cardiac arrest. The primary desired action of this medication is to
A. stimulate a heart rate.
B. decrease cerebral blood flow.
C. initiate respirations.
D. increase blood flow to the kidneys.
ANS: A
Epinephrine is a potent inotropic (strengthens myocardial contraction) drug that increases cardiac output, promotes vasoconstriction and systolic blood pressure elevation, increases heart rate, and produces bronchodilation. High doses can result in cardiac dysrhythmias necessitating electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. Epinephrine can also cause renal vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing renal perfusion and urinary output.
A patient has been prescribed atenolol. To ensure safe dosing, the nurse teaches the patient to frequently assess what parameter?
A. Daily weight
B. Heart rate
C. Urine output
D. Body temperature
ANS: B
The side effects commonly associated with atenolol (Tenormin), which is a beta blocker, include bradycardia, hypotension, headache, dizziness, cold extremities, hypoglycemia, and bronchospasm.
A patient is receiving dopamine intravenously. Which drug should the nurse have available to treat extravasation and tissue necrosis?
A. Norepinephrine bitartrate
B. Nadolol
C. Phentolamine mesylate
D. Clonidine
ANS: C
The antidote for IV extravasation of dopamine is phentolamine mesylate (Regitine) 5 to 10 mg, diluted in 10 to 15 mL of saline infiltrated into the area. Norepinephrine bitartrate (Levophed) is an adrenergic agonist; nadolol (Corgard) is a beta1 and beta2 adrenergic blocker, and clonidine (Catapres) is a selective alpha2-adrenergic agonist (sympathomimetic) used primarily to treat hypertension.
A patient has received atropine. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for which effect?
A. Anxiety
B. Constipation
C. Urinary retention
D. Impaired oral mucous membrane
ANS: C
Urinary retention is the highest priority because it is more serious to systemic homeostasis than anxiety, constipation, or a dry mouth.
A nurse has just administered atropine to a patient. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of which effect?
A. Nausea
B. Tachycardia
C. Rales
D. Hypotension
ANS: B
It is most important to monitor the heart rate for tachycardia after atropine is given. Atropine may be given without regard to meals. Rales would not be expected because atropine dries secretions rather than increase them. Hypertension is a more likely response than orthostatic hypotension.
A patient is ordered to receive bethanechol chloride for urinary retention. Which health condition would serve as a contraindication for this medication?
A. Asthma
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Chronic allergies
ANS: A
Before administering bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), the nurse should obtain a history of health problems such as peptic ulcer, urinary obstruction, or asthma. Cholinergic agonists can aggravate symptoms of these conditions.
A patient received atropine as a preoperative medication 30 minutes ago. The nurse evaluates the medication as effective if the patient states,
A. “I feel like I need to throw up.”
B. “I need to urinate.”
C. “My mouth feels dry.”
D. “I have a headache.” ANS: C
Atropine is useful primarily (1) as a preoperative medication to decrease salivary secretions and (2) as an agent to increase heart rate when bradycardia is present.
A patient is prescribed scopolamine. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of which condition?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Glaucoma
C. Allergy to penicillin
D. Gastric ulcer ANS: B
Because anticholinergic drugs can increase intraocular pressure, they should not be administered to patients diagnosed with glaucoma.
Atropine is most useful in the treatment of which cardiovascular condition?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. First-degree heart block
C. Premature atrial contraction
D. Sinus bradycardia
ANS: D
Atropine is used to treat sinus bradycardia.
Pharm Quiz 1
1. A patient is prescribed a medication and asks the nurse if the drug is available in a generic form. The nurse understands that a generic medication will have a name that
a. is a registered trademark.
b. is always capitalized.
c. is related to the drug's chemical structure.
d. is nonproprietary.
Yes! Generic drugs are nonproprietary. That is, they are not registered or protected as a trademark or brand name. As such, they are not capitalized.
2. The nurse prepares to change a patient’s medication from an IV to an oral form and notes that the oral form is ordered in a higher dose. The nurse understands that this is due to differences in:
a. bioavailability.
b. pinocytosis.
c. protein binding.
d. excretion rate.
Sure - because of the first-pass effect, oral forms of medications have reduced bioavailability and need be be given in higher doses that the intravenous form.
3. Gathering a medication profile is part of which step of the nursing process?
a. Assessment
b. Goal setting
c. Planning
d. Evaluation
Fantastic! Data collection is always part of assessment!
4. Which of the following is part of a complete medication profile? Choose all that apply.
a. Drug allergies
b. OTC drugs taken
c. Reason drug is being taken
d. Adherence
Right! All of these are part of a complete drug profile.
5. The patient's 6 rights of medication administration are the right
, the right
, the right
, the right
, the right
, and the right .
Answer 1: patientAnswer 2: documentationAnswer 3: drugAnswer 4: routeAnswer 5: doseAnswer 6: time
6. When you go into the room to administer medications to Mr. Jones, he states "I do not want to take my blood pressure medication." What is your initial action?
a. Notify the healthcare provider
b. Find out why he does not want to take his BP medication
c. Take his BP
d. Give him the BP medication
Absolutely! The patient has the right to refuse, but you want to find out why.
7. A patient asks the nurse about using OTC medications. The nurse will tell the patient that OTC medications
a. are not as effective as prescription medications.
b. are not as safe as prescription medications.
c. have fewer side effects and drug interactions than prescription medications.
d. should be included when listing any medications taken by the patient.
Of course, just because a medication is available OTC does not make it less effective, less safe, or less prone to side effects.
8. Which of the following medication orders is the most clear and complete?
a. Demerol 50 mg PRN pain
b. Lasix 10 mg PO QD
c. Oxycodone 5 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed for pain
d. Penicillin V-K 150 milligrams q8h
9. In order to give a medication safely, the nurse needs to know which of the following? {Choose all that apply]
a. How it works
b. How much it costs
c. Common side effects
d. Patient education needed
In order to safely administer medications, nurses need to understand medication actions,side and adverse effects and needed patient education. Although knowing something about costs is helpful in patient teaching, it is not a medication safety issue - but rather has the potential to impact adherence.
10. Please match the term with the correct definition.
Pharmacotherapeutics The science of the therapeutic uses and the action of drug on biological systems. Pharmacokinetics The process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and eliminated by the body Pharmacodynamics The interactions of a drug and the receptors responsible for its action in the body [Show Less]