NSG6435 WEEK 1 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 2 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 3 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 4 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 6 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 7 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 8 QUIZ, NSG6435
... [Show More] WEEK 9 QUIZ (LATEST-2021)
NSG 6435 Week 1 Quiz
Question 1 (1 point)
What should a cultural assessment of the family and child include?
Question 1 options:
An assessment of a patient’s dominant culture including the accompanying health beliefs, and beliefs about birth, illness, and deaths.
An assessment of potential biologic variations that occur in people of a particular race
An assessment of whether the child and family have sought care from a traditional healer, and advise them to avoid such healers
Question 2 (1 point)
What is an example of a question regarding internal structure of the family?
Question 2 options:
Has anyone recently moved in or out? If so, how has this move affected the family?
Do both parents of the family live at home? If not, where do they live?
How often do the children have contact with the parent or parents who do not live at home?
How often is there contact with the extended family (e.g. aunts, uncles)?
Question 3 (1 point)
“Culture is a social construction of the relationships within and among groups of human beings. . .” Which of the following is not a part of the products of culture?
Question 3 options:
race
religion
class
geography
none of the above
Question 4 (1 point)
Exposure to which of the following during childhood can be associated with increased aggressive behavior, emotional problems such as depression and anxiety, and poorer school performance?
Question 4 options:
mumps
second-hand smoke
domestic violence
immunizations
immigrants
Question 5 (1 point)
Which of the following delineates the role of the APN in Health Care most accurately?
Question 5 options:
code all of the primary and differential diagnoses
order labs and diagnostics for every patient
provide continuity of care for underserved populations at greater risk for ambulatory care
make sure that every chart has a growth chart
Whatever the doctor tells her/him to do
NSG 6435 Week 2 Quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is considered a developmental red flag? (choose the best answer)
Incorrect pronoun use
Difficulty sharing
Speech less than 75% unintelligible
Loss of milestones
Question 2
What would be the most likely weight of a 1-year-old child whose weight at birth was 7 pounds?
Question 2 options:
20-23 pounds
16-19 pounds
14-17 pounds
25-28 pounds
Question 3
The pincer grasp is a fine motor skill that involves the ability to pick up a small object such as cold cereal, with the thumb and forefinger. When is this usually mastered?
16 months
9 months
6 months
4 months
Question 4
The nurse practitioner is completing an examination of an 11-year-old female. It is noted during inspection that there is an appearance of breast buds. Which of the following would most likely occur in approximately 2 years?
Onset of menses
Axillary hair
Growth of pubic hair
Peak height velocity
Question 5
When reviewing immunization protocols at your clinic, the nurse practitioner should be aware that the varicella vaccine can be administered at what age?
4 months
6 months
12 months
15 months
NSG6435 Week 3 Quiz
Question 1
What age do children usually begin receiving the human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV)?
8 years
11 years
13 years
15 years
Hide Feedback
11 years is the age most providers begin administering the HPV vaccine.
Question 2 1 / 1 point
Question 2
When can a child stop using a booster seat in the car?
When the child is at least 4’9” tall.
When the child is at least 5’ tall.
When the child is at least 4’ tall.
When the child is at least 3’ tall.
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A child should be at least 4’9” before discontinuing the use of the booster seat.
Question 3 1 / 1 point
Question 3
A 13-year-old client diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis 2 weeks ago is in your office today c/o abdominal pain to the upper left quadrant, is febrile and tired. Based on the client’s recent history, what is the best intervention?
Prescribe Salicylates for the fever
Refer to Gastroenterology
Prescribe antibiotics
Refer to Emergency Services
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Splenic rupture may have occurred; refer to ER is best intervention to r/o active bleeding and need for surgical removal of spleen.
Question 4 1 / 1 point
Question 4
An established 14-year-old client who recently returned from camp presents to the clinic c/o chills, severe headache, myalgias, malaise, GI upset/tenderness, diarrhea, cough, conjunctival injection, and a fever. On exam, the provider notes a rash of faint pink spots on the wrists, forearms, ankles, and the trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Leptospirosis
Meningococcemia
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
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Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Question 5 1 / 1 point
Question 5
A client with chickenpox who cannot stop itching presents to the clinic requesting relief. What can the provider do to help this client? (select all that apply)
Prescribe calamine lotion
Prescribe oral antihistamines
Prescribe Salicylates
Recommend oatmeal baths
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All choices are accurate except Salicylates are contraindicated because of Reye Syndrome.
All choices are accurate except Salicylates are contraindicated because of Reye Syndrome.
Question 6 1 / 1 point
Question 6
An infant can complete hand-to-hand transfers at what age?
90 days
120 days
7 months
11 months
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object transfer occurs by 7 months of age.
Question 7 1 / 1 point
Question 7
Which is the most appropriate anticipatory guidance for the child diagnosed with fracture through the growth plate?
No sports until pain has resolved
Use crutches to ambulate until healed
Rest, ice, compress and elevate the affected area
Exercise affected area using active range-of-motion exercises
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Treatment of slipped capital femoral epiphysis is aimed at pre- venting further slippage. Since the goal is no weight bearing and avoiding flexion of the hip, no sports are recommended. Ice would not change the problem in the femoral head, and ROM and exercise are contraindicated.
Question 8 1 / 1 point
Question 8
The provider learns that the family of a client recently rescued a cat from the outside. To prevent the risk of toxoplasmosis, which anticipatory guidance is most appropriate?
Feed cat well balanced and high-quality food.
Wear shoes at all times in the home.
Thoroughly wash hands after changing cat litter.
Bath cat on a bi-weekly basis
Hide Feedback
Transmission of toxoplasmosis occurs through handling of cat feces. Pregnant women should avoid contact with cat litter, and others should wash hands thoroughly when handling cat litter.
Question 9 1 / 1 point
Question 9
A 9-day-old client presents to the clinic who is sluggish, has a temperature of 97°F, HR 105, cool extremities, and loss of appetite, presents to the clinic. What should the provider do?
Recommend parents to allow the client to sleep
Reassure parents that this is normal and client will return to baseline in 7 days
Recommend formula feeding
Refer to ER to rule out sepsis
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Question 10 1 / 1 point
Question 10
The provider understands that a client with a history of hemolytic anemia and a recent diagnosis of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), is at risk for which complication?
Arthritis
Papular-purpuric “gloves and socks” syndrome
Chronic Infection
Aplastic crisis
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________________________________________
NSG 6435 Week 4 Quiz
Question 1 1 / 1 point
A school-age client presents to the clinic to establish care. The child has autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation. The provider suspects the child has what condition?
A. Down Syndrome
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome***
C. Prader- Willi syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation are differential diagnoses of fetal alcohol syndrome.
Question 2 1 / 1 point
A 8-year-old client was recently discharged from the hospital following an episode of meningitis. The client presented to the clinic for a follow-up appointment post discharge. The provider understands that the client’s is at increased risk for which complication(s)? (check all that apply)
A. Hearing Impairment***
B. Paralysis***
C. Loss of Speech***
D. Infertility
Question 3 1 / 1 point
A client with history of bilateral tympanostomy tube insertion presents to the clinic c/o otorrhea. The provider confirms the complaint. What is the best treatment for this condition?
A. Combination antibiotic and corticosteroid otic drops***
B. Anaglesics and watchful waiting
C. Oral antibiotics and antifungal cream
D. Corticosteroid otic drops
Question 4 1 / 1 point
The gold standard in diagnosing acute otitis media is:
A. Immobile ™***
B. Pearly gray TM
C. Flat TM
D. Perforated TM
The diagnosis of acute otitis media is based on presence of one or several of the following: bulging TM, decreased translucency of TM, absent or decreased mobility of the TM, air-fluid level behind the TM and otorrhea
Question 5 1 / 1 point
A provider is caring for a new client whose had recurrent episodes of and failed treatment for acute otitis media. What is the next best intervention?
A. Refer to audiologist
B. Refer to an otolaryngology***
C. Prescribe a broad spectrum antibiotic for 30 days
D. Prescribe an anti- inflammatory
Question 6 1 / 1 point
A 16 year-old-client presents to your clinic c/o sore throat and 101°F temperature. The provider learns that the client had a sore throat approximately 1 week ago. On exam, client is positive for cervical lymphadenopathy, enlarged left tonsil, edematous pharynx and uvula displacement. What condition does this client most likely have?
A. Acute uvulitis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Mumps
D. Peritonsillar abscess
Question 7 1 / 1 point
A 5-year-old client presents to the clinic for an annual physical. While performing the physical exam, the provider attempts to examine the client’s ears. What does the provider do?
A. Gently pull outer ear down and back **
B. Gently pull outer ear up and back
C. Gently pull outer ear down
D. Gently pull outer ear back
To correctly examine the ear of a child older than 12 months gently pull outer ear down and back
Question 8 1 / 1 point
What are the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in neonates (select all that apply)?
A. Staphylococcus Aureus
B. Group B Streptococcus **
C. Listeria Monocytogenes
D. E. Coli **
The most common organisms responsible for bacterial pneumonia in neonates are still group B streptococcus and Escherichia coli. The next most common causes are coagulase negative Staph and Listeria in the early neonatal period. After four days of age, the differential needs to be expanded to include S. aureus, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Candida, Acinetobacter, and anaerobes.
Question 9 1 / 1 point
An ill appearing 3-month-old-infant is presented to your clinic. The parent reports that their child has a fever, persistent cough, rhinorrhea, wheezing, hypoxemia, and anorexia for 4 days. After the provider’s exam and work-up, the child is diagnosed with Bronchiolitis. What is the most likely treatment option for this infant?
A. Refer patient for hospitalization ***
B. Refer patient for Pulmonologist
C. Refer patient for Bronchoscopy
D. Refer patient for Chest X- ray
Bronchiolitis is the term used for an infant seen with wheezing for the very first time and is the leading cause of hospitalizations for infants. It presents with cough, fever, coryza, tachypnea, expiratory wheezing, air trapping, and inspiratory crackles. In mild cases, symptoms can last for 1 to 3 days. In severe cases, cyanosis, air hunger, retractions, and nasal flaring with symptoms of severe respiratory distress within a few hours may be seen. Apnea can occur and may require mechanical ventilation.
Question 10 1 / 1 point
An ill-appearing child is presented to your clinic with a fever, sore throat, restless behavior, dysphagia, drooling, and inspiratory distress without stridor. The child tests positive for Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tonsillitis
B. Epiglottitis **
C. Laryngotracheobronchitis
D. Retropharyngeal abscess
Epiglottitis is characterized by inflammation of the epiglottis, the aryepiglottic folds, and the ventricular bands at the base of the epiglottis. The causative organism is Haemophilus influenzae type B (HIB). There is an abrupt onset of fever, severe sore throat, dyspnea, inspiratory distress without stridor, and drooling. The child looks acutely ill and toxic. If epiglottitis is suspected, do not examine the throat. Do not place the child in the supine position, and immediately transport the child to the hospital via emergency medical services.
NSG 6435 Week 6 Quiz
Question 1 1 / 1 point
The provider suspects that a 7-month-old client has Pyloric Stenosis. What physical exam finding is consistent with this disorder?
A cluster-of-grape like mass on the right side on rectal examination
A grapefruit-like mass on the left side on rectal examination
A sausage-like mass in the RUQ of the abdomen
A distinct “olive” mass in the epigastrium to the right of midline
Question 2 1 / 1 point
The provider suspects that a 7-month-old client has been diagnosed with Intussusception. What exam finding is consistent with this disorder?
A cluster-of-grape like mass on the right side on rectal examination
A grapefruit-like mass on the left side on rectal examination
A sausage-like mass in the RUQ of the abdomen
A distinct “olive” mass in the epigastrium to the right of midline
Question 3 1 / 1 point
A 5-year-old client with a history of crying with bowel movements, bright red streaks of blood in the stool and withholding stools presents to the clinic. On exam, the anal mucosa shows small tears with the client in the knee-to-chest position. What is the most likely diagnosis and how is it treated?
Anal fissures; treat with sitz bath and topical steroid cream
Anal fissures, treat with sitz baths and topical antibiotic ointment
Anal fissures; Tucks pads and analgesics
Anal fissures; referral to GI specialist for further evaluation
Question 4 1 / 1 point
The guardians of a 7-month-old client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux is unsure of the proper way to care for the child. What information does the Provider share? (select all that apply
Use thickening agents in the formula
Administer the acid-suppression medications as prescribed
Place prone when sleeping
Avoid exposure of the infant to tobacco smoke
Question 5 1 / 1 point
The parents of a 3-month-old client presents to the clinic complaining that their child appears to be losing weight. Upon examination the it is noted that the client is irritable and weight falls below the 5th percentile of children who are the same age and height. The provider makes a diagnosis of Failure to Thrive (FTT). What is the most likely cause of FTT in this patient?
Congenital disorder
Acquired disorder
Structural defect
Food Aversion
Question 6 1 / 1 point
The provider understands the most common type of enuresis in school-age children is:
Quaternary diurnal enuresis
Tertiary nocturnal encopresis
Secondary diurnal encopresis
Primary nocturnal enuresis
Question 7 1 / 1 point
A 2-year-old client presents to the clinic with fever, dyspnea, diarrhea, vomiting, and weight loss. The parents report an increase in abdominal size. On exam, a firm, smooth abdominal mass and a left varicocele are palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Neuroblastoma
Hydronephrosis
Multicystic kidney
Wilms Tumor
Question 8 0 / 1 point
A benign, painless scrotal mass or cyst on the head of the epididymis or testicular adnexa containing sperm best describes what condition?
Hydrocele.
Varicocele
Spermatocele
Omphalocele
Question 9 0 / 1 point
A benign enlargement or dilation of testicular veins causing a painless scrotal mass of varying size that feels like a “bag of worms” best describes what condition?
Hydrocele
Varicocele
Spermatocele
Omphalocele
Question 10 1 / 1 point
The child that sits to void and urinates on the floor in front of the toilet unless he holds his penis to direct the stream most likely has what condition?
Hypospadias
Phimosis
Paraphimosis
Epispadias
NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1 1 / 1 point
A newborn is born with a cleft lip and palate. The provider understands that the slit in the lip and mouth will introduce specific challenges for the parents and child. How best can a provider manage this condition before its repaired? (select all the apply)
Recommend the use of special nipples for feeding
Recommend speech therapy in later years.
Recommend dental restoration as often needed.
Refer to surgeon when indicated
Question 2 1 / 1 point
Most young children walk on their toes until they establish the heel-toe pattern. This pattern usually develops within the first 6 months of walking. Toe walking can be idiopathic or secondary to a neurologic problem. Since it is important for the provider to differentiate between the causes; what should the provider do to accomplish this? (select all that apply)
Look at shoe wear to assess extent of toe walking.
Assess the heels for tight cords
Conduct a neuro assessment.
Measure leg lengths and examine hips.
Question 3 1 / 1 point
An infant client is positive for moist, beefy-red macules and papules with sharply marked borders and satellite lesions to the diaper area. KOH-treated scrapings of satellite lesions show pseudohyphae. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Tinea
Miliaria
Erythema toxicum
Candidiasis
Question 4 1 / 1 point
A 15-year-old client presents to the clinic c/o tenderness to the right side. The pain started gradually and often radiates to the back. On exam the client is positive for Tietze syndrome. The provider diagnosis the client with Costochondritis. How should the provider treat this condition? (select all that apply)
Recommend mild analgesics and NSAIDs
Recommend avoiding strenuous activity
Take cough suppressants
Administer cortisone injections
Question 5 1 / 1 point
A 6-year-old client presents to the clinic c/o of an intermittent limp and pain to the anterior thigh. Upon exam, the following is noted: antalgic gait with limited hip movement, atrophy of the gluteus, quadriceps, and hamstring muscles; decreased abduction, internal rotation, and extension of the hip and pain on rolling the leg internally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease
Osteomyelitis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gaucher disease
Question 6 1 / 1 point
A 9-year-old client in town for the summer presents to the clinic c/o a rash. Upon exam, the following is noted: multiple, annular, scaling, and discrete hypopigmented patches located on the trunk. KOH scrapings of the lesions revealed short curved hyphae and circular spores that fluoresced yellow-orange under the Wood’s lamp. What is the most likely diagnosed?
Tinea corporis
Tinea manuum
Tinea versicolor
Tinea capitis
Question 7 1 / 1 point
A 17-year-old client presents to the clinic c/o of small bumps all over the face. Upon exam, the following is noted: very small, firm, flesh-colored discrete papules 1 to 6 mm in size located to the face, axillae, and trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Molluscum contagiosum
Condyloma acuminatum
Small epidermal cysts
Acne vulgaris
Question 8 1 / 1 point
A 5-year-old client who presents to your clinic is found to have small white oval cases attached tightly to the hair shafts at the back of the head, nape of the neck and eyelashes. What is the best treatment approach?
Prescribe Antifungals
Prescribe Antiparasitics
Prescribe combination medication consisting of Antifungals and Antiparasitics
Prescribe medication that follows local resistance patterns
Question 9 1 / 1 point
A 4-year-old client reports to the clinic with visible scratch marks to the arms. The mother explains that the client is restless, cranky and scratches throughout the day which intensifies at night. On exam, the following is noted: S-shaped burrows in the webs of fingers, sides of hands and forearms. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate treatment?
Scabies; treat with Antiparasitics
Insect bites; treat with Antiparasitics
Scabies, treat with Antifungals
Insect bites; treat with Antifungals
Question 10
What are the key clinical signs and symptoms that are characteristic of the disease erythema multiforme? (select all that apply)
Lesions of the oral mucosa that are shallow
Lesions are fixed, symmetric, and have a typical distribution
Lesions initially appear dusky, as red macules or edematous papules.
Lesions evolve into target lesions with multiple, concentric rings of color change
NSG 6435 Week 8 Quiz
Question 1 1 / 1 point
The physical exam of an established 7-month-old client - diagnosed with spastic cerebral palsy – will mostly likely be positive for which signs?
Increased deep tendon reflexes and sustained clonus
Dystonic posturing and sustained clonus
Abnormal involuntary movements and increased deep tendon reflexes
Nystagmus and absent reflexes
Question 2 1 / 1 point
A 4-year-old client, who is new to the clinic, presents for a sick visit. However, upon exam the provider discovers that the client has flaccid paralysis over the lower extremities, absent deep tendon reflexes, lack of response to touch and pain, and has a saclike cyst on the lower back. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Viral gastroenteritis
Myelomeningocele
Meningitis
Shunt infection
Question 3 1 / 1 point
A 7-month old female client presents to the clinic to establish care. During the visit, the parents report that their daughter was developing as expected during the first 5 months of life but they fear that her development has plateaued. Over the last two months she has become withdrawn and has lost skills previously performed like partial hand skills and acquired spoken language. The provider notes on exam excessive bruxism, periods of apnea followed by hyperpnea, hand wringing, and spastic para¬paresis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Rett Syndrome
Autism Spectrum Disorder
Cerebral Palsy
Brain Damage
Question 4 0 / 1 point
An apparently healthy 7-year-old client, presents to the clinic complaining of left-sided facial paralysis that occurred suddenly. The client denies any sensory loss but reports difficulty closing the left eyelid. The provider suspects the client has Bell’s Palsy. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in this condition?
IV
V
VI
VII
Question 5 0 / 1 point
A 2-year-old client, who is unknown to the clinic, is presented as a walk-in after experiencing two seizures last night when the temperature spiked to 102°F. During the visit, the provider learns that the client is currently being treated for a viral illness. In the clinic, the client’s temperature is 100°F. The provider informs the parent that febrile seizures may reoccur. Although rarely required, what prophylactic medication can the provider prescribe? (select all that apply)
Diazepam 0.33 mg/kg by mouth every 8 hours for 2 to 3 days
Diazepam 0.5mg/kg by suppositories once per day
Phenytoin 0.33mg/kg by mouth every 8 hours for 2 to 3 days
Phenytoin 0.5mg/kg by suppositories once per day
Question 6 1 / 1 point
A 16-year-old client presents to the clinic complaining of frequent headaches with bouts of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, photophobia and throbbing unilateral pain that is only relieved with sleep. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cluster headache
Vascular headache
Tension headache
Migraine headache
Question 7 1 / 1 point
A 15-year-old client presents to the clinic complaining of tension headaches. The provider understands that the client will experience pain to what region of the head?
At the back of the head
On both sides of the head
At the top of the head
On one side of the head
Question 8 1 / 1 point
The parents of a 4-year-old client hysterically calls the office to seek assistance after their child hit his head on the brick walkway and lost consciousness for 10 minutes. What possible complications/conditions is the client at risk for? (select all that apply)
Concussions
Intracranial lesions
Cerebral contusions
Febrile seizures
Question 9 1 / 1 point
Seventy-two hours after an emergency delivery, a newborn develops respiratory insufficiency, dysphagia, hypotonia, ptosis, weakness, weak cry, poor sucking, choking, expressionless face, and absent Moro reflex. Based on the symptomology the provider suspects that the newborn may be showing signs of Myasthenia Gravis. Which clinical test, when performed, may confirm this diagnosis?
Administering the short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, edrophonium.
Administering the long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, neostigmine.
Administering the short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, pyridostigmine.
Administering the long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Rivastigmate.
Question 10 1 / 1 point
A 16-year-old client, new to the clinic, presents with complaints of weakness and Landry ascending paralysis progressing over the last few weeks. The provider suspects Guillain-Barré syndrome based on the reported symptoms. However, as the collection of the client’s health history continues, a past infection with which virus supports the providers suspicions?
Enterovirus
Epstein-Barr virus
Haemophilus influenzae
Hantavirus
NSG6435 WEEK 9 Quiz
Question 1 1 / 1 point
A client presents to clinic for the first time. The provider discovers that the client was diagnosed with Prader-Willi Syndrome. What symptoms does the provider expect to find during this encounter?
Hyperphasia, obesity, and strabismus
Lethargy, stridor, and irritability
Low-set ears, short stature, and webbed neck
Flat nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, and heart murmur
Question 2 1 / 1 point
A client with Prader-Willi syndrome, well-known to the clinic, presents today for an annual physical. This client is at higher risk and should be screened for what medical condition?
Depression
Pyloric Stenosis
Celiac disease
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Question 3 1 / 1 point
A new client presents to the clinic to establish care. On exam, the provider notes the following: a long narrow face, high-arched palate and dental crowding, prominent ears, strabismus, macroorchidism, short stature, cognitive impairments and stereopathies. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Fragile X
Prader-Willi
Angelman
Beckwith-Weidemann
Question 4 1 / 1 point
If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: Failure to thrive, Central obesity, Enamel hypoplasia, Scoliosis, Motor delays, Mild intellectual disability and Compulsive hyperphagia; what would be the most likely diagnosis?
Fragile X
Prader-Willi
Angelman
Beckwith-Weidemann
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Question 5 1 / 1 point
If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: Seizures, Global developmental delays, Abnormal gait, arms held high/flexed elbows, Hypotonic trunk with hypertonic limbs (commando crawl), Feeding/growth problems, Acquired microcephaly, Speech delay, Spontaneous (persistent) social smile/fits of laughter, and Loves water. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Fragile X
Prader-Willi
Angelman
Beckwith-Weidemann
Question 6 1 / 1 point
If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: Omphalocele or umbilical hernia, macroglossia, facial features: Nevus flammeus, helical pits, prominent eyes, anterior ear lobe creases, Large placenta/long umbilical cord, Hypoglycemia, Cardiomegaly, Dental malocclusion with maxillary underdevelopment, and Articulation issues. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Fragile X
Prader-Willi
Angelman
Beckwith-Weidemann
Question 7 1 / 1 point
If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: tall, long limbs, aortic root dilatation, mitral valve prolapse/regurgitation, ectopialentis, myopia, retinal detachment, exotropia/strabismus, spontaneous pneumothorax, connective tissue problems, pectus deformities, joint hyperextensibility. What would be the most likely diagnosis?What would be the most likely diagnosis?
Turner
DiGeorge
Marfan
Huntington
Question 8 1 / 1 point
What is true about diploid cells? (select all that apply)
Each contains 23 paired chromosomes.
Each one contains 23 chromosomes.
Replication produces two identical cells.
They replicate via the process of mitosis.
Question 9 1 / 1 point
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the cells that produce mucus, sweat, and digestive juices. It is considered a recessive disease caused by a gene mutation on both alleles inherited from the parents. Which type of genetic disorder is this?
Chromosome
Mitochondrial
Monogenetic
Multifactorial
Question 10 1 / 1 point
Which diagnostic test is most appropriate when a provider wishes to identify and evaluate the size, shape, and number of chromosomes of a client?
Chromosomal microarray
Fluorescence in-situ hybridization
Karyotype
Molecular testing [Show Less]