NSG6430 Final Exam South University NSG 6430 Final Exam
Study Guide:
Question 1 The nurse practitioner is performing a bimanual exam on
a new OB
... [Show More] patient and notices that the lower portion of the patient’s
uterus is soft. This is known as:
: A) Hegar's Sign B) Chadwick's Sign C) Nightingale's Sign D)
Goodell's Sign
Question 2 Your female patient presents for vaginal discharge with
an odor, and has noticed painless “bumps” on her vaginal area.
Sexual history includes past male partners and her current female
partner. On exam you note beefy red papules and an ulcerative lesion
on her vulva, granular tissue and scarring, and inguinal adenopathy.
You suspect she has:
A) HSV-2 B) Granuloma Inguinale C) Chancroid D) Molluscum
Contagiosum
Question 3 The nurse practitioner knows that a highly valuable
assessment tool for evaluating urinary incontinence and contributing
factors in daily life is:
A) the interview B) a voiding diary C) the physical exam D) the
patient's response to non-pharmacologic treatments
Question 4 The nurse practitioner is counseling a 57 year-old patient
with urinary incontinence. The patient desires to try nonpharmacological, non-invasive methods of treatment at this time.Which of the following should be included in the patient's plan of care?
Select all that apply.
A. Bladder training B. Kegel exercises C. Eliminate caffeine and
alcohol consumption D. Use of bulking agents
Question 5 The physical examination of any woman suspected of
being abused or battered includes all of the following except:
A) a thorough inspection for signs of injury, past and present B) a
physical assessment just like that of any other adult female C) a focus
on the patient's physical appearance, not her behavior D) the use of
body maps and diagrams to accurately portray the patient's physical
condition
Question 6 The most effective means of obtaining the history of
abuse is to use a communication model that:
A) avoids having the patient's children present during the discussion
B) signals someone is interested and that the woman is not alone C)
emphasizes the belief that violence is not acceptable, no matter what
the batterer might have said to the patient D) allows the patient to talk
without interruption and with time to relate, emphasize, and repeat her
full story
Question 7 Clinicians should routinely consider intimate partner
violence (IPV) as a possible diagnosis for women who present with all
of the following except:
A) chronic stress-related symptoms B) denial of any physical health
problems C) central nervous system (CNS) symptoms D) gynecologic
problems, especially multiple onesQuestion 8 The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their
sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state
of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships,
make up a woman's:
A) sexual health B) gender identit C) gender role behaviors D)
psychosocial orientation
Question 9 Which one of the following is not among the ways
clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for Lesbian,
Gay, Bixsexual, or Transgender (LGBT) patients?
A) Avoid the heterosexual assumption by using gender-neutral
language. B) Explain whether and how information will be documented
in the patient's medical record. C) Ignore the sexual status or gender
identity of all patients. D) Offer mainstream referrals that are culturally
sensitive to SGMs.
Question 10 Which one of the following is the definition of the term
"gender identity"?
A) People who respond erotically to both sexes B) A self-label,
regardless of biologic or natal sex C) People who are similar in age,
class, and sexual status D) A label for behavior not usually associated
with one's natal sex
Question 11 Which one of the following statements about sexually
transmitted infections (STIs) is false?
A) Lesbians are at very low risk for development of STIs and vaginal
infections. B) HIV has been identified in case studies of women who
report sex only with women. C) Transgender women (Male to Female)
have extremely high rates of HIV infection. D) Risky behaviors for
STIs include sex during menses.Question 12 Among the midlife health issues of women, the number
one cause of mortality in the United States is:
A) primary osteoporosis B) cardiovascular disease C) overweight and
obesity D) cancer
Question 13 Lifestyle approaches to manage menopause related
vasomotor symptoms include:
A) sleeping more than 8 hours per night B) avoiding spicy foods, hot
drinks, caffeine, and alcohol C) decreasing levels of physical activity
D) more than 1,000 international units/day of vitamin E
Question 14 The standard for managing moderate to severe
menopausal symptoms is:
A) lifestyle changes, such as dieting and exercising B) nonhormone
products, such as antidepressant medications C) alternative care,
such as acupuncture, combined with organic herbs D) prescription
systemic hormone products, such as estrogen and progestogen
Question 15 The nurse practitioner is managing an adolescent with a
4 cm functional ovarian cyst that was confirmed on a recent
ultrasound. What plan of care should be anticipated for this patient?
A) Repeat bimanual exam in 1 week B) Refer for surgical consult C)
Repeat ultrasound in 2 months D) Stop all ovulatory inhibitor meds
Question 16 Non-pharmacologic therapy for chronic pelvic pain
includes the following: Select all that apply.A) Vitamin B6 B) Physical therapy C) Aerobic and nonaerobic exercise
D) Antidepressants
Question 17 The nurse practitioner understands that all of the
following organisms are responsible for infection of the Bartholin's
gland except:
A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Klebsiella C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) E. Coli
Question 18 Treatment of a large, symptomatic Bartholin's cyst
includes all of the following except:
A) Sitz baths B) Incision and drainage C) Topical corticosteroids D)
Antibiotics
Question 19 A 44 year-old African American female presents with
complaints of menorrhagia x 15 months. Pelvic ultrasound confirms
the presence of a large intramural leiomyomata. The nurse practitioner
should discuss all of the following options with the patient except:
A) GnRH agonist therapy B) Referral for surgical consult C) Progestin
therapy D) Estrogen therapy
Question 20 The nurse practitioner is treating a patient with Elimite
for scabies. The proper instructions to the patient should include:
A) All household contacts should be treated with Elimite regardless of
symptoms. B) The medication should be taken orally in one single
dose and repeated in 2 weeks. C) Apply only to the body area
infested with scabies and repeat treatment in 5 days. D) Apply to
all areas of the body from the neck down, wash off after 8 to 14
hours, then repeat treatment in one weekQuestion 21 The nurse practitioner understands that the proper
management of an asymptomatic woman with a small fibroid should
include:
A) Start combination COC therapy. B) Repeat ultrasound in 3-4
months. C) Reassess in 6 to 12 months. D) Refer for
myomectomy.
Question 22 The nurse practitioner is teaching a patient about
pediculosis. Which of the following statements by the nurse
practitioner is correct?
A) Nits can survive in hot and humid climates up to 21 days.” B)
“Adult pubic lice can survive 72 hours off their host.” C) “Pruritus
is not a common manifestation.” D) “The condition is treated with
Permethrin cream.”
Question 23 All of the following medications may be used for
neuropathic pain management of vulvodynia, except:
A) Neurontin B) SSRIs C) Methotrexate D) Tricyclics
Question 24 The nurse practitioner understands that which of the
following lab tests is appropriate for the patient who presents with
symptoms of dysesthetic vulvodynia?
A) RPR B) Pap smear C) Wet mount D) Endometrial biopsy
Question 25 Which of the following is a common antibiotic for
treatment of an infected Bartholin's cyst?
A) Minocycline B) Levaquin C) Bactrim D) AmpicillinQuestion 26 (2.5 points) The patient presents with complaints of a
painful, swollen lump in her vaginal area. She reports difficulty sitting
and walking due to the pain. Which of the following is a likely
diagnosis for this patient?
Question 26 options: Syphilis chancre Lichen Planus Genital Wart
Bartholin's cyst
Question 27 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that
which of the following are differential diagnoses in an adult female
patient with acute pelvic pain. Select all that apply:
Question 27 options: A) Ectopic pregnancy B) Appendicitis C)
Ovarian cyst with rupture D) Pelvic Congestion Syndrome
Question 28 (2.5 points) When women experience mild premenstrual
symptoms, such as mild breast tenderness, abdominal bloating, and
mild weight gain from water retention, this is known as:
Question 28 options: Luteal phase deficiency Premenstrual
dysmorphic disorder Premenstrual syndrome Follicular phase
deficiency
Question 29 (2.5 points) A patient with intraductal papilloma will
commonly present with a chief complaint of:
Question 29 options: A palpable mass Bloody nipple discharge
Bilateral milky discharge Mild localized pain
Question 30 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the
necessary screening techniques in a patient suspicious of ovarian
cancer should include the following: Select all that apply.Question 30 options: CA-125 Transvaginal ultrasound Bimanual
pelvic exam Pap smear
Question 31 (2.5 points) Early symptoms experienced by a woman
with ovarian cancer include all of the following except:
Question 31 options: Vague abdominal pain Abdominal bloating
Fatigue Unexplained weight gain
Question 32 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is evaluating a
patient's risk of ovarian cancer. All of the following factors are
associated with an increased risk for ovarian cancer except:
Question 32 options: First degree relative with ovarian cancer BRCA
-1 and 2 mutations Obesity Oral Contraceptive Use
Question 33 (2.5 points) Patient education for condylomataacuminata
should include all the following except:
Question 33 options: The cause of the condition is a virus of the HPV
type Sexual partners should be checked and condoms used to
decrease incidence of transmission Treatment and elimination of
visible warts is a sign of cure, and transmission will not occur The
virus does not always cause a lesion, subclinical infection may occur
Question 34 (2.5 points) Tina is evaluated and diagnosed with
Molluscum Contagiosum. The nurse practitioner understands that
clinical presentation of this disease is characterized by:
Question 34 options: Fleshy, papular skin colored lesions with
indented centers that contain white curdlike material. Ulcerated
ragged edge lesions that are painful Clusters of vesicles that itch andare painful to palpation Painless fleshy clusters of growths that
resemble grapes or cauliflower
Question 35 (2.5 points) Sara is 72 years old and has been a widow
for 12 years. She presents for her yearly well woman exam. Sara has
not been sexually active since age 60. She has had regular pap
screenings in her life and has had no abnormal pap tests. Sara asks if
she needs a Pap test. Your response would be:
Question 35 options: Yes, you need a Pap test with HPV testing every
5 years. Yes, you should have a Pap test every 3 years. No, you do
not need a Pap test or a pelvic exam again, unless you notice a
vaginal discharge, have discomforts, or anything out of the ordinary.
No, you do not need a Pap test, but I do recommend we do a pelvic
exam to assess for abnormalities.
Question 36 (2.5 points) Misty presents with a painful “sores” in her
perineal area, dysuria and dyspareunia. On exam she has 2 shallow
ulcerated lesions on the right labia majora and one on the left. She
also presents with enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. Based on these
findings you suspect she has:
Question 36 options: HSV-2 Genital warts Chancroid Syphilis lesions
Question 37 (2.5 points) Which of the following is not true for HIV
infection evaluation?
Question 37 options: The CDC recommends HIV testing for all
persons seeking evaluation for STIs. HIV evaluation is recommended
if a patient has a history of unprotected sex with a previously
incarcerated male, an uncircumcised male, or participates in anal
penetration. If a patient is fearful they have been exposed to HIV, but
denies all risk factors, it is not recommended to test for HIV. Aids is
caused by HIV, mainly by sexual contact (anal, vaginal, or oral),contaminated blood and blood products, contaminated semen used
for artificial insemination, intrauterine acquisition, and breastmilk.
Question 38 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the
risk factors for developing vaginal candidiasis include which of the
following?
Question 38 options: Hypoglycemia A diet high in refined sugar Use
of Vit C supplement A habit of consuming live culture yogurt several
times a week
Question 39 (2.5 points) Cindy presents to your clinic for STI testing
after realizing her current boyfriend has been seeing other women.
She states she was told that one of the women has hepatitis B. Your
patient education regarding hepatitis B includes all the following
except:
Question 39 options: Hepatitis B is transmitted enterically Hepatitis B
has an incubation period of 6 weeks to 6 months Hepatitis B surface
antigen (HBsAG) indicates if the patient has hepatitis B infection
Hepatitis B infection primarily affects the liver
Question 40 (2.5 points) Stacy has made an appointment at your
clinic for c/o dysuria. During the HPI she explains, “My bottom hurts
when I pee, and I have bumps there”. She has never had this before
and is worried. She denies fever, although she feels “a little like I have
the flu” explaining she has a headache and feels achy and tired. She
denies exposure to a STI noting she and her partner have been
monogamous for 6 years. On exam you notice a cluster of painful
vesicles adjacent to the vaginal introitus. The most likely diagnosis is:
Question 40 options: Syphilis Genital Herpes Chancroid ChlamydiaQuestion 41 (2.5 points) You see an 18-year-old woman with a history
of Chlamydia infection and a total of five lifetime partners. Based on
the latest evidence-based guidelines, you recommend:
Question 41 options: Pap smear only Pap smear with HPV testing
Pap smear and STI testing STI testing only
Question 42 (2.5 points) Karen was recently diagnosed with primary
syphilis. The nurse practitioner understands that the first-line
treatment option for primary syphilis include:
Question 42 options: Penicillin Ciprofloxacin Erythromycin
Ceftriaxone
Question 43 (2.5 points) While educating Karen about the different
stages of syphilis, which of the following is not representative of the
presentation of secondary syphilis?
Question 43 options: generalized rash chancre arthralgia
lymphadenopathy
Question 44 (2.5 points) Karen was recently diagnosed with primary
syphilis by her primary care provider, she is very upset and inquires
how long after sexual contact do syphilis symptoms typically occur.
What is the correct response by the primary care provider?
Question 44 options: 3-4 days 1 week 3 weeks 6 weeks
________________________________________Question 45 (2.5 points) Which of the following terms describe the
mechanism of action of Imiquimod (Aldara) in the management of
genital warts?
Question 45 options: keratolytic immune modifier cryogenic cytolytic
Question 46 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that HPV
types _____ and ____are most often associated with cervical and
anogenital cancer.
Question 46 options: 1, 2, and 3 6 and 11 16 and 18 22 and 24
Question 47 (2.5 points) Jenna was evaluated and diagnosed with
condylomaacuminatum. Treatment options for Jenna will include all of
the following except:
Question 47 options: A) Topical acyclovir B) Cryotherapy C) Podofilox
D) Tricholoroaceticacid .
Question 48 (2.5 points) Which of the following is a treatment option
for a 30-year-old woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form
reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin?
Question 48 options: A) Ofloxacin with metronidazole B) Amoxicillin
with gentamicin C) Cefixime with vancomycin D) Clindamycin with
azithromycinQuestion 49 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that a
complication of gonoccocal and chlamydial genitourinary infection in
women include which of the following:
Question 49 options: A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) B)
Conjunctivitis C) Acute pyelonephritis D) Prostatitis
Question 50 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that
women with PID typically present with all of the following except:
Question 50 options: A) Fever B) Leukopenia C) Cervical motion
tenderness D) abdominal pain
Question 51 (2.5 points) Elizabeth was evaluated and diagnosed with
a primary outbreak of genital herpes in the clinic today. The treatment
plan for Elizabeth will include a prescription for:
Question 51 options: A) Ribavirin B) Indinavir C) Valacyclovir D)
Cyclosporine
Question 52 (2.5 points) Elizabeth was recently diagnosed with
genital herpes after having unprotected intercourse with a new
partner. The nurse practitioner explains to Christine that the incubation
period for HSV Type 2 is approximately:
Question 52 options: A) 4 to 7 days up to 4 weeks B) 24 hours C) 24
days D) 1 to 3 days up to 14 daysQuestion 53 (2.5 points) Kristin returns to the clinic for follow-up on
STI results. The nurse practitioner informs her the Chlamydia test was
positive. Which of the following agents will the nurse practitioner
prescribe for treatment?
Question 53 options: A) Amoxicillin B) Metronidazole C) Azithromycin
D) Tinidazole
Question 54 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner student is studying
the CDC guidelines for treating sexually transmitted infections. Which
of the following agents is recommended for Gonorrhea treatment?
Question 54 options: A) Ceftriaxone B) Doxycycline C) Ketoconazole
D) Amoxicillin
Question 55 (2.5 points) A 30-year-old woman presents without
symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile
discharge. Examination of the woman reveals a friable cervix with
yellow discharge from the cervical os. This description is most
consistent with an infection caused by: Select all that apply.
Question 55 options: A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria
gonorrhoeae C) Human papilloma virus (HPV) D) Trichomonas
vaginalis
Question 56 (2.5 points) Karen was diagnosed with trichomoniasis by
her primary care provider and treated with:
Question 56 options: A) Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days (If
single-dose metronidazole treatment fails and reinfection is excluded,
metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days should be
prescribed.) this is the correct answer if first treatment doesn’t work B)Terconazole vaginally Q HS x 5 days C) Azithromycin 1 gm po x 1
dose D) Bactrim DS ipo Q 12 hours x 3 days
Question 57 (2.5 points) A 24-year-old woman presents with a 1-week
history of thin, greenish yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal
irritation. Physical examination findings include vaginal erythema with
petechial hemorrhages on the cervix, numerous white blood cells, and
motile organisms on microscopic examination. These findings most
likely represent:
Question 57 options: A) motile sperm with irritative vaginitis B)
trichomoniasis C) bacterial vaginosis D) condylomaacuminatum
Question 58 (2.5 points) For patients needing topical treatment for
vulvovaginitis caused by Candida albicans, the nurse practitioner will
prescribe:
Question 58 options: A) metronidazole gel B) clotrimazole cream C)
hydrocortisone ointment D) clindamycin cream
Question 59 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that
women with bacterial vaginosis typically present with:
Question 59 options: A) vulvitis B) pruritus C) dysuria D) malodorous
discharge
Question 60 (2.5 points) The U.S. Preventative Services Task Force
(USPSTF) recommends ____________ of folic acid supplement daily
at least one month before conception for all women with average risk
for neural tube defects.Question 60 options: A) 8000 mg B) .4 to .8 mg C) 4 to 8 mg D) 4000
mg
Question 61 (2.5 points) The American College of Obstetrician
&Gynecologists recommend that all pregnant women be offered
aneuploidy screening before 20 weeks gestation. This test identifies
women whose fetuses are at increased risk for which of the following?
Select all that apply.
Question 61 options: A) Trisomy 11 B) Trisomy 13 C) Trisomy 18 D)
Trisomy 21
Question 62 (2.5 points) An important part of patient education for the
patient with bacterial vaginosis who is receiving a prescription for oral
Metronidazole is:
Question 62 options: The patient should be treated prophylactically
for a yeast infection. The medication may cause constipation. Avoid
alcohol for 48 hours after completing medication. The patient's partner
will need treatment also.
Question 63 (2.5 points) For the patient with chronic bacterial
vaginosis, the nurse practitioner will prescribe:
Question 63 options: A) Metronidazole 500 mg po weekly for 2
months B) Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days C) Metronidazole
gel .75% vaginally BID x 5 days D) Metronidazole gel .75% vaginally
1-2 times a week for 4 to 6 monthsQuestion 64 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner's exam findings on a
patient with vaginal Candidiasis is positive for all of the following
except:
Question 64 options: A) erythematous vaginal mucosa B) thick, white,
curd-like vaginal discharge C) vaginal ph of 7 D) hyphae visualized on
wet prep
Question 65 (2.5 points) A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy
test. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2017. Using
Nageles Rule, what is the client's expected date of birth (EDB)?
Question 65 options: A) September 17, 2017 B) November 7, 2017 C)
November 21, 2017 D) December 17, 2017
Question 66 (2.5 points) Which documentation on a woman's chart
on postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process?
Question 66 options: A) Moderate lochia rubra B) Breasts soft and
symmetrical C) Fundus below the symphysis pubis and nonpalpable
D) Episiotomy pink and healing
Question 67 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the
hormone, __________, remains elevated in breastfeeding women in
the postpartum period.
Question 67 options: A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Prolactin D)
Human placental lactogenQuestion 68 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is recommending
daily Calcium supplementation of ___________ to her female patients
that are older than 50 years of age.
Question 68 options: A) 800 mg B) 1000 mg C) 1200 mg D) 1500 mg
Question 69 (2.5 points) Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the
patient's bone density is more than ______ standard deviation(s)
below the average bone mass for women younger than 35 years
old.
Question 69 options: A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2.5 D) 4
Question 70 (2.5 points) Based on the latest ACOG guidelines,
the nurse practitioner understands that the recommended time to
initiate screening for cervical cancer in women is:
Question 70 options: A) prior to becoming sexually active B) at age
18 years C) at age 21 years D) three years after first sexual
intercourse
Question 71 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands the
following lifestyle approaches may be used to prevent
osteoporosis after menopause: Select all that apply.
Question 71 options: Limit alcohol intake Performance of regular
weight-bearing activities Increase caffeine consumption Adequate
calcium &vitamin D intakeQuestion 72 (2.5 points) What is the primary role of a nurse
practitioner in the research process?
Question 72 options: A) Designing research studies B) Collecting
data for other researchers C) Identifying researchable problems D)
Seeking funding to support research studies
Question 73 (2.5 points) Whether you order diagnostic testing or
refer the patient to an HIV-specific facility, laboratory
confirmation is rendered. The test confirming HIV infection is
_____________.
Question 73 options: A) Western blot assay
B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent HIV RNA C) CD4 lymphocyte count
D) quantitative plasma HIV RNA
Question 74 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is examining a
twenty-nine-year-old female with a three day history of dysuria
and urinary frequency. On examination, the patient is positive for
suprapubic tenderness and negative for costovertebral angle
(CVA) tenderness. This most likely represents which of the
following?
Question 74 options: A) Pyelonephritis B) Cystitis C) Ectopic
pregnancy D) Asymptomatic BacteriuriaQuestion 75 (2.5 points) A patient has been diagnosed with
trichomoniasis. Which of the following single dose medications would
be the best option?
Question 75 options: A) Azithromycin 1 g B) Clindamycin 300 mg C)
Ofloxacin 500 mg D) Metronidazole 2 g
Question 76 (2.5 points) When educating patients about the use of
combination oral contraceptive medications, they should be advised
that pregnancy is prevented primarily by ____________.
Question 76 options: A) cervical mucus thinning B) inflammation of
the endometrium C) ovulation suppression D) decreased fallopian
tube motility
Question 77 (2.5 points) A twenty-four-year-old female presents to the
office with a complaint of a “yucky” vaginal discharge. On exam, a
milky vaginal discharge is noted. A wet mount preparation reveals a
positive whiff test and 75% clue cells. There were no trichomonads or
WBCs visualized. Which of the following would be the most likely
diagnosis in this patient?
Question 77 options: A) Bacterial vaginosis B) Herpes simplex C)
Chlamydia D) Cystitis with cervicitis
Question 78 (2.5 points) A fifty-five-year-old postmenopausal female
patient presents with pain in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast
for over one month now. The best course of action would be to
_______.
Question 78 options: A) reassure the patient that pain is often not a
presenting symptom of breast cancer B) teach the patient breast selfexamination C) order laboratory studies as most likely this issecondary to a hormonal fluctuation D) perform a breast examination
and order a mammogram
Question 79 (2.5 points) A thirty-nine-year-old female has just
completed a course of Amoxicillin for the treatment of streptococcal
pharyngitis. Her LMP was two weeks ago and reports that it was
normal for her. On physical examination, there is some erythema of
the external genitalia with a small amount of white discharge. The
microscopic wet prep examination reveals few clue cells but an
abundance of budding hyphae. There are no WBCs present.
Considering the differential diagnoses and results of the microscopic
examination, which of the following would be the most appropriate
treatment?
Question 79 options: A) Metronidazole 500 mg BID for seven days B)
OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID C) Fluconazole 150 mg tablet as a
onetime dose D) Erythromycin 500 mg TID for ten days
Question 80 (2.5 points) A forty-nine-year-old female patient presents
with a chief complaint of dark, watery brown vaginal discharge. Part of
the differential diagnosis includes that of cervical cancer. Which of the
following best describes what might be visualized on physical
examination in patients with cervical cancer?
Question 80 options: A) Ulcerated firm cervix B) Lower abdominal
pain that is vague C) Enlarged tender femoral lymph nodes D) Soft,
still shaped cervix
Question 81 (2.5 points) A twenty-five-year-old female presents with
vaginal irritation and discharge. On examination, the cervix is easily
friable and erythematous. There is no adnexal tenderness. The wet
prep (wet mount) microscopic examination reveals mobile protozoa on
the normal saline slide. This most likely represents _________.Question 81 options: A) trichomoniasis B) mucopurulent cervicitis C)
bacterial vaginosis D) gonorrhea
Question 82 (2.5 points) A twenty-two-year-old female presents with
an initial onset of herpes simplex on the external genitalia. During the
patient education, which of the following statements is most important
to include?
Question 82 options: A) Cesarean section will be necessary for any
pregnancy and delivery. B) Antiviral medications will be useful in
treating and curing an outbreak. C) The sexual partner will not
contract herpes if lesions are not present. D) Symptoms of the initial
outbreak of the lesions are typically worse than subsequent outbreaks.
Question 83 (2.5 points) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is
released from the anterior pituitary gland and is responsible for which
of the following normal physiologic response of the female menstrual
cycle?
Question 83 options: A) Breast milk production B) Stimulation of
ovarian follicles C) Maturation of ovarian follicles D) Luteinizing
hormone (LH) inhibition
Question 84 (2.5 points) A thirty-two-year-old patient comes in for a
workup of infertility. During the history, the nurse practitioner suspects
that the patient may be experiencing anovulatory cycles. In order to
confirm ovulation, which of the following tests would be most
appropriate to order?
Question 84 options: A) Endometrial biopsy B) Basal body
temperature C) Hysterosalpingogram D) Postcoital testingQuestion 85 (2.5 points) A nurse practitioner is performing a wet
mount with potassium hydroxide (KOH) to assist with a diagnosis in a
woman experiencing vaginal discharge. Which of the following would
this confirm?
Question 85 options: A) Herpes simplex B) Trichomonas C)
Candidiasis D) Chlamydia
Question 86 (2.5 points) A nurse practitioner is completing a
speculum exam on a female patient. Which of the following findings
would be considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix?
Question 86 options: A) Small, yellow, raised area on the cervix B)
Friable, bleeding tissue opening of the cervical os C) Red patch areas
with occasional white spots D) Irregular, granular surface with red
patches
Question 87 (2.5 points) There are several phases to the menstrual
cycle. What phase begins with menses cessation and ends with
ovulation?
Question 87 options: A) Ovulatory phase B) Follicular phase C)
Proliferative phase D) Luteal phase
Question 88 (2.5 points) A nurse practitioner is participating in a
women’s health fair. When educating the women about risk factors for
breast cancer, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Question 88 options: A) Pregnancy after age of thirty-five years B)
Late menopause after age of fifty-seven years C) History of maternal
breast cancer D) Fibrocystic breast diseaseQuestion 89 (2.5 points) The first line treatment of severe menstrual
cramps that have been occurring for four months in a patient with
primary dysmenorrhea includes which of the following?
Question 89 options: A) Acetaminophen B) Ibuprofen C) Combination
hormone replacement therapy (HRT) D) Amitriptyline
Question 90 (2.5 points) Which of the following choices represents a
disorder of the reproductive tract that causes pain, erythema,
dyspareunia, and a perineal mass?
Question 90 options: A) Syphilis B) Bartholin’s cyst C) Labial
adhesion D) Herpes simplex type 2
Question 91 (2.5 points) A woman is concerned that she may develop
breast cancer and is discussing her concerns with the nurse
practitioner. Which of the following is not an associated risk factor for
this?
Question 91 options: A) Late menarche B) Family history C)
Nulliparity D) Late menopause
Question 92 (2.5 points) A sixty-one-year-old thin, Caucasian female
presents to your practice for a well-woman examination. She remarks
that she feels like she is shrinking over the past year, despite keeping
active and incorporating sources of calcium in her diet. Which of the
following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Question 92 options: A) Excessive exercise B) History of maternal
osteoporosis C) Smoking D) Using hormone therapy
Question 93 (2.5 points) A thirty-five-year-old woman, presents with a
six-month history of hypermenorrhea, backache, and pelvic pressure.On examination, you discover a twelve-week size uterus with irregular
contour. Which of the following does this most likely represent?
Question 93 options: A) Uterine cancer B) Dysfunctional uterine
bleeding (DUB) C) Uterine fibroid D) Fecal impaction
Question 94 (2.5 points) It is known that a woman who is menopausal
has an increased risk of heart disease. Which of the following lipid
changes occur with estrogen withdrawal in menopause?
Question 94 options: A) Decrease in HDL, LDL, and triglycerides B)
Decrease in HDL, LDL, and increase in triglycerides C) Increase in
HDL with a decrease in LDL and triglycerides D) Decrease in HDL with
an increase in LDL and triglycerides
Question 95 (2.5 points) Which of the following is true regarding
education of a forty-two-year-old woman diagnosed with a uterine
myoma?
Question 95 options: A) Myomas usually does not resolve with
menopause. B) Myomas will decrease with the withdrawal of estrogen.
C) Hysterectomy is the treatment of choice. D) Myomas are never
responsible for uterine bleeding.
Question 96 (2.5 points) Sheryl, a seventeen-year-old, complains of a
vaginal discharge for the past month. When she wipes after urinating,
there is "white stuff" on the tissue. Sheryl denies urinary problems but
has had some genital itching, but no odor. She also denies sexual
activity. Her vaginal discharge is most likely a result of ______.
Question 96 options: A) a yeast infection B) a chlamydia infection C)
retained foreign body D) physiologic leukorrheaQuestion 97 (2.5 points) Urinary tract infections are commonly seen
in primary care. A twenty-five-year-old female presents with a new
onset of dysuria and suprapubic pain for the last twenty-four hours.
The examination reveals only mild tenderness without any peritoneal
signs on the lower abdomen. A urinalysis reveals the presence of
WBCs. The urine is sent for a culture and sensitivity. In addition to
Escherichia coli one might typically expect to see the presence of
which bacterium?
Question 97 options: A) Klebsiella B) Staphylococcus aureus C)
Staphylococcus saprophyticus D) Pseudomonas
Question 98 (2.5 points) The pituitary gland is responsible for a
variety of functions with respect to hormonal regulation and is
composed of two lobes, the anterior and posterior sections. Which of
the following list of hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary
gland?
Question 98 options: A) Growth hormone (GH) and thyroidstimulating hormone B) Prolactin and T4 C) Follicle-stimulating
hormone (FSH) and T3 D) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and oxytocin
Question 99 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is counseling a patient
on the side effects associated with some birth control methods. The
woman complains that she has developed acne and hirsutism while
taking oral contraceptives. The nurse practitioner understands that
these changes result from _ ____.
Question 99 options: A) increased estrogen levels B) decreased
estrogen levels C) increased free androgens D) decreased free
androgens
Question 100 (2.5 points) You are meeting with twenty-two-year-old
Emily to discuss birth control options. She has tried “the pill” in thepast but failed to take it regularly. She is interested in depo because
she only has to come in every three months for a shot. She also heard
that one does not get a period on depo, and she likes the thought of
that. Which of the following would be a specific consideration with
depo that you would need to discuss with Emily based on her desires
for a birth control method?
Question 100 options: A) Depo offers no protection from STIs. B)
Depo can cause break through bleeding up to the second or third
injection C) As with any hormonal birth control, changes in weight can
occur. D) Depo does not offer pregnancy protection for those who are
obese. [Show Less]