NR 511 Final Exam 2021
A factory line worker has Osteoarthritis (OA) of the right hand. According to the American
College of Rheumatology (ACR), the
... [Show More] guidelines for pharmacologic treatment include:
Topical capsaicin, topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and oral
NSAIDs.
For an adult patient with a knee injury, the nurse practitioner orders for a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory
drug (NSAID) to be taken on a routine basis for the next two weeks. Patient
teaching should include which of the following?
If you have additional pain, an occasional acetaminophen (Tylenol) is permitted in
between the usual doses of NSAID.
A 13 year old obese (body mass index BMI above the 95th percentile) boy reports low-grade left
knee pain for the past two months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent
‘horseplay’ with his friends. The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear
weight on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh and medial knee pain and
tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman and McMurray tests, left
hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction, and external hip rotation with knee flexion.
Based on the above scenario, the nurse practitioner should suspect:
A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
During assessment of a client’s foot, the nurse practitioner notes that the foot is in alignment with
the long axis of the lower leg and that weight bearing falls on the middle of the foot from the heel,
along the midfoot, to between the second and the third toes. These findings best describe:
A normal foot
Sam, age 50, presents with Paget disease that has been stable for several years. Recently, his serum
alkaline phosphatase level has been steadily rising. The nurse practitioner determines that it is
time to start him on pharmacologic management. Which of the following should she initially
prescribe?
Biphosphonates [Show Less]