NR 507 patho final examination Week 8: Final Exam Score for this quiz: 146 out of 150
Week 8: Final Exam
Due Dec 16 at 11:59pm
Points
... [Show More] 150
Questions 75
Available Dec 10 at 12am - Dec 16 at 11:59pm 7 days
Time Limit 90 Minutes
Instructions
The Week 8 final exam counts toward the final grade. It is comprehensive and covers
material from Weeks 1–8.
The final exam consists of 75 questions and is worth 2 points each.
You have one attempt to take the exam with a 90 minute time limit.
Good luck!
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
LATEST Attempt 1 75 minutes 146 out of 150
Score for this quiz: 146 out of 150Submitted Dec 16 at 11:15pm
This attempt took 75 minutes.
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during
which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
Correct!
Refractory
Threshold
Sinoatrial (SA)
Hyperpolarization
During the refractory period, no new cardiac action potential can be initiated by a
stimulus. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the period described
in the question.
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child?
Correct!
106/58 mm Hg
104/55 mm Hg112/62 mm Hg
121/70 mm Hg
The suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9- year-old child is 106/58 mm Hg. For
a child of 6 to 7 years old, 104/55 mm Hg is appropriate; for a 12- to 13-year-old child,
112/62 mm Hg is appropriate, and for a 16- to 18-year-old young man, 121/70 mm Hg is
appropriate.
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
Yeast
Correct!
Cancer cells
Fungus
Bacteria
Of the options provided, endogenous antigens include only those uniquely produced by
cancerous cells.
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the
second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting ofthe second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which
congenital heart defect?
Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Correct!
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a
routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic
ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The
location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left
sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of
ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing prolonged ejection
time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart
defects are not consistent with the described symptoms.
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
Correct!
Hypocalcemia
HypercalcemiaHyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These
clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options.
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s.
Correct!
An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.
Chest wall compliance is higher in infants than it is in adults, particularly in premature
infants.
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
Hair lossNausea
Weight loss
Correct!
Fatigue
Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment.
Although patients report the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as
fatigue.
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
At birth, which statement is true?
Correct!
Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
From the available options, the only change that takes place in the circulation at birth is
the shift of gas exchange from the placenta to the lungs.Question 9
0 / 2 pts
What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)?
Correct Answer
Vitamin B12 by injection
Cyanocobalamin by oral intake
You Answered
Folate by oral intake
Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection
Replacement of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is the treatment of choice for PA. Initial
injections of vitamin B12 are administered weekly until the deficiency is corrected,
followed by monthly injections for the remainder of the individual’s life. The other options
are not treatments for PA.
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection?
Cholera
Correct!
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Sleeping sicknessCandida
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a result of a rickettsiae. Cholera is a bacterial infection,
candida is a fungal infection, and sleeping sickness is a protozoal infection.
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?
Correct!
The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.
The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.
The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.
The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.
To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few
postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal
antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and
are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies
reach protective levels by 6 months of age.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
Correct!Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.
Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
Pain is generally associated with the late stages of cancer. Pressure, obstruction,
invasion of a structure sensitive to pain, stretching, tissue destruction, and inflammation
can cause pain. Pain is not the initial symptom of cancer nor does it indication that the
cancer has metastasized.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender?
The nodes fill with purulent exudate.
Correct!
B lymphocytes proliferate.
The nodes are not properly functioning.
The nodes are inflamed.
The B lymphocyte proliferation in response to significant antigen (e.g., during infection)
may result in lymph node enlargement and tenderness (reactive lymph node). This
description is not accurate for the other options.Question 14
2 / 2 pts
What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?
Starvation
Cardiovascular disease
Correct!
Infectious disease
Traumatic injury
Despite the wide-scale implementation of progressive public health and immunization
policies, infectious disease remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. The
other options are not significant causes.
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
Which renal change is found in older adults?
Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
Decrease in urine output
Sharp decline in renal blood flow
Correct!Decrease in the number of nephrons
With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not necessarily
related to aging.
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how
many months?
24 to 36
18 to 20
Correct!
6 to 14
1 to 2
Antibody appears rather rapidly after infection through blood products, usually within 4
to 7 weeks. After sexual transmission, however, the individual can be infected yet
seronegative for 6 to 14 months or, in at least one case, for years.
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
Neisseria syphilis
Correct!Treponema pallidum
Chlamydia trachomatis
Haemophilus ducreyi
T. pallidum is the only cause of syphilis.
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by
which class of immunoglobulins?
Correct!
IgE
IgG
T cells
IgM
Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast
cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type I
reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and
are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor
related to hay fever.
Question 19
2 / 2 ptsBlood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as:
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Correct!
Monocytes
Only monocytes migrate into a variety of tissues and fully mature into
tissue macrophages and myeloid dendritic cells (see Table 27-3).
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them
to becoming B cells?
Spleen
Regional lymph nodes
Thymus gland
Correct!Bone marrow
B lymphocytes mature and become B cells in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs—
the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells. Neither regional lymph
nodes nor the spleen are involved in changing B lymphocytes into B cells.
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
V
Correct!
IX
X
VIII
Only factor IX deficiency causes hemophilia B (Christmas disease).
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts?
Correct!
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)Chlamydia
Adenovirus
Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV.
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation
syndrome is not successful?
Alarm
Correct!
Adaptation
Flight or fight
Arousal
Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and adaptation is not successful, ultimately
causing impairment of the immune response, heart failure, and kidney failure, leading to
death. The other stages occur before the adaptation stage.
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures?
Correct!Left ventricle
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Right atrium
Pressure is greatest in the systemic circulation, driven by the left ventricle.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines?
Correct!
Uromodulin
Urodilatin
Cystatin
Nephrin
Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein, also known as uromodulin, is the most abundant urinary
protein, protects against bacterial adhesion and urolithiasis, and is a ligand for
lymphokines. This statement is not true of the other options.Question 26
2 / 2 pts
Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):
Functional scar
Thecal follicle
Atretic follicle
Correct!
Corpus luteum
Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum.
Question 27
2 / 2 pts
The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its
cause is:
Correct!
Health history
Computed tomographic (CT) scan
Skull x-ray studiesCerebrospinal fluid analysis
Although the history may be supplemented with the remaining options, it remains the
pivotal tool for establishing the cause of a seizure disorder.
Question 28
2 / 2 pts
Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?
Correct!
Alkaline phosphatase
Calcium
Total protein
Phosphorus
Of the available options, serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all forms of the
disease.
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
It increases and strengthens the heart rate.
The release of epinephrine causes shivering.Correct!
It raises the metabolic rate.
It affects muscle tone.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine produce a rapid transient increase in heat production
by raising the body’s basal metabolic rate. The other options are not correct descriptions
of the effects of epinephrine on body heat.
Question 30
2 / 2 pts
Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large
clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
Premenstrual syndrome
Correct!
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Primary dysmenorrhea
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize
dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding
also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive
blood loss. Excessive bleeding can lead to iron-deficiency anemia. This option is the
only answer that demonstrates the clinical manifestations described.Question 31
2 / 2 pts
What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty?
It becomes thinner.
Correct!
It becomes thicker.
It assumes a neutral pH.
It undergoes atrophy.
Before puberty, vaginal pH is approximately 7 (neutral) and the vaginal epithelium is
thin. At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining
thickens. Cell atrophy is not associated with puberty.
Question 32
2 / 2 pts
Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults?
Children have diarrhea more often than adults.
Less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
Correct!
Fluid reserves are smaller in children.Children have a higher fluid volume intake.
Infants have low fluid reserves and relatively rapid peristalsis and metabolism.
Therefore the danger of dehydration is great. This selection is the only option that
correctly identifies the reason prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children.
Question 33
2 / 2 pts
The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are:
Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations
HLA associations and positive family history
Autoantibodies and obesity
Correct!
Obesity and positive family history
The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are positive family history and
obesity. The other options are not believed to be important risk factors for this form of
diabetes.
Question 34
2 / 2 pts
What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
Correct!
Polycystic ovary syndromeEndometriosis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Salpingitis
Polycystic ovary syndrome remains one of the most common endocrine disturbances
affecting women, especially young women, and is a leading cause of infertility in the
United States.
Question 35
2 / 2 pts
Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by
nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?
Tenfold
Correct!
Fourfold
Threefold
Twofold
Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent, even when raised
by nonalcoholic parents, have a fourfold increased risk of developing the disorder.Question 36
2 / 2 pts
Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
Ligament
Correct!
Tendon
Bursa
Mesentery
A tendon is fibrous connective tissue that attaches skeletal muscle to bone. None of the
other options are associated with this function.
Question 37
2 / 2 pts
Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of
the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the
ileocecal valve?
Volvulus
Correct!
Intussusception
Congenital aganglionic megacolonMalrotation
Intussusception is the telescoping or invagination of one portion of the intestine into
another section of intestine. Usually, the ileum invaginates the cecum and part of the
ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve. The other terms are not used
to describe this event.
Question 38
2 / 2 pts
The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:
Disunion
Fracture
Correct!
Sprain
Strain
Ligament tears are commonly known as sprains. None of the other options are
associated with this damage.
Question 39
2 / 2 pts
Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?
HyperkinesiaParoxysmal
Correct!
Tardive
Cardive
Tardive dyskinesia is the involuntary movement of the face, trunk, and extremities. The
other terms do not describe involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities.
Question 40
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?
Growth hormone
Oxytocin
Epinephrine
Correct!
Cortisol
Cortisol and adrenal androgens are lipid-soluble hormones and are primarily bound to a
carrier or transport protein in circulation. The other options are water-soluble hormones.
Question 412 / 2 pts
It is true that myasthenia gravis:
Is an acute autoimmune disease.
Correct!
Causes muscle weakness.
May result in adrenergic crisis.
Affects the nerve roots.
Exertional fatigue and weakness that worsens with activity, improves with rest, and
recurs with resumption of activity characterizes myasthenia gravis. None of the other
options are true of myasthenia gravis.
Question 42
2 / 2 pts
What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
Increases serum magnesium.
Correct!
Decreases serum calcium.
Increases serum calcium.Decreases serum magnesium.
Hyperphosphatemia leads to hypocalcemia; the other options are incorrect.
Question 43
2 / 2 pts
An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is
evident?
Embryonic
Chorionic
Correct!
Alpha fetoprotein
Amniotic
Other disorders can be detected with this procedure. These include most neural tube
defects, which cause an elevation of alpha fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid, and
hundreds of diseases caused by mutations of single genes. The correct option is the
only one that accurately identifies the protein responsible for a neural tube defect.
Question 44
2 / 2 pts
Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates?
ChymotrypsinTrypsin
Correct!
Amylase
Lipase
Salivary and pancreatic amylases break down starches to oligosaccharides by splitting
α-1,4-glucosidic linkages of long-chain molecules. None of the other options is relevant
to this process.
Question 45
2 / 2 pts
What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Correct!
Limbic system
Parietal lobe
The limbic and reticular tracts are involved in alerting the body to danger, initiating
arousal of the organism, and emotionally processing the perceived afferent signals, not
just as stimuli, but also as pain. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective.Question 46
2 / 2 pts
Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
Correct!
Calcium
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
Contraction begins as the calcium ions combine with troponin, a reaction that
overcomes the inhibitory function of the troponin-tropomyosin system. This selection is
the only option that has such a direct association with muscle contraction.
Question 47
2 / 2 pts
The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the
increased level of which hormone?
Correct!
Cortisol.
Insulin
ThyroxineAntidiuretic hormone
Psychologic and physiologic stress (e.g., hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperthermia,
exercise) increases ACTH secretion, leading to increased cortisol levels. Only cortisol
describes the appropriate feedback loop.
Question 48
2 / 2 pts
In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
Disruption of the pituitary
Correct!
Physiologic hormonal delays
Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
Disruption in the hypothalamus
In 95% of children with delayed puberty, the delay is physiologic; that is, hormonal
levels are normal and the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is intact, but
maturation is slowly happening. This option is the only answer that accurately describes
the most common cause of delayed puberty.
Question 49
2 / 2 pts
Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?
Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidneyCorrect!
Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder
Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys
Colonization of the bladder when urine is static
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in girls occur as a result of perineal bacteria,
especially Escherichia coli, ascending the urethra. None of the other options represent
the means by which bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract.
Question 50
2 / 2 pts
Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
Dementia syndrome
Delirium
Correct!
Alzheimer disease
Parkinson disease
Amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, as well as neuronal and synaptic losses in the
brain, characterize Alzheimer disease.Question 51
2 / 2 pts
Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
Estrogen levels are low.
The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
Correct!
Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining
thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation),
at which time the pH rises again to more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out.
Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most
likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection.
Question 52
2 / 2 pts
The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American
blacks is an example of which concept?
Incidence
Ratio
RiskCorrect!
Prevalence
Prevalence rate is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific
point in time. Thus both the incidence rate and the length of the survival period in
affected individuals determine prevalence. The incidence rate is the number of new
cases of a disease reported during a specific period (typically 1 year), divided by the
number of individuals in the population. A numerical expression representing a part of a
larger whole or proportion is considered a ratio. Any factor that increases the chance of
disease or injury is considered a risk.
Question 53
2 / 2 pts
Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of
the twenty-first chromosome?
Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness
Correct!
An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
Individuals with this disease are mentally retarded, with IQs usually ranging from 25 to
70. The facial appearance is distinctive and exhibits a low nasal bridge, epicanthal folds
(which produce a superficially Asian appearance), protruding tongue, and flat, low-set
ears. The correct option is the only one that accurately describes the clinical
manifestations of the complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome.
Question 54
2 / 2 pts
Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease?Correct!
Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon
Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint
Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament
Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow
Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon, within which the patella (kneecap) is
embedded, and associated osteochondrosis of the tubercle of the tibia are
characteristics of Osgood-Schlatter disease. This selection is the only option that is
associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease.
Question 55
2 / 2 pts
Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on
which cranial nerve (CN)?
Abducens (CN VI)
Trochlear (CN IV)
Optic (CN I)
Correct!Oculomotor (CN III)
The oculomotor CN (III) is involved in this manifestation of pupil dilation. None of the
other options would result in pupil dilation when subjected to pressure.
Question 56
2 / 2 pts
What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
Gradual decrease in estrogen levels
Gradual increase in estrogen levels
Correct!
Sudden increase of LH
Sharp rise in progesterone levels
Menstrual cyclicity and regular ovulation are dependent on (1) the activity of the
gonadostat (GnRH pulse generator); (2) the pituitary secretion of gonadotropins; and (3)
estrogen (estradiol)–positive feedback for the preovulatory LH and FSH surges, oocyte
maturation, and corpus luteum formation.
Question 57
2 / 2 pts
Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?
Correct!
Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigueHot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally
Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles
Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps
Widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points are characteristics of
fibromyalgia, a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome. Increased sensitivity to touch (i.e.,
tender points), the absence of systemic or localized inflammation, and fatigue and sleep
disturbances are common. Fatigue is profound. The remaining options include
symptoms not generally associated with fibromyalgia.
Question 58
2 / 2 pts
Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
Lack of social interaction
Blunted affect
Correct!
Auditory hallucinations
Poverty of speech
Positive symptoms frequently occur during a psychotic episode, when an individual
loses touch with reality and experiences something that should be absent (e.g.,
hallucinations). The remaining options are classified as negative symptoms.Question 59
2 / 2 pts
What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
Correct!
Collagen fibers
Elastin fibers
Sharpey fibers
Glycoproteins
Collagen fibers are important components of the cartilage matrix because they anchor
the cartilage securely to underlying bone. This statement is not true of the other options.
Question 60
2 / 2 pts
At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins
to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These
symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?
Correct!
Pyloric stenosis
Galactosemia
Congenital aganglionic megacolonEsophageal atresia
Of the options available, only the clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis—an infant
who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit without an apparent
reason—can appear between 2 and 3 weeks after birth. The vomiting gradually
becomes more forceful.
Question 61
2 / 2 pts
Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure?
Sebaceous glands
Eyelids
Meibomian glands
Correct!
Conjunctiva
Acute bacterial conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is an inflammation of the conjunctiva (mucous
membrane covering the front part of the eyeball). The other structures are not affected
by this inflammation.
Question 62
2 / 2 pts
The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is
that they:
Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse.Correct!
Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse.
All available antidepressants share the common property, albeit through different
mechanisms, that increasing monoamine neurotransmitter levels within the synapse is
the basis for their antidepressant effects. The processes by which antidepressants
affect depression make the remaining options untrue.
Question 63
2 / 2 pts
What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout?
Spurs
Stones
Nodes
Correct!
Tophi
With time, crystal deposition in subcutaneous tissues causes the formation of small
white nodules, or tophi, that are visible through the skin. Crystal aggregates depositedin the kidneys can form urate renal stones and lead to renal failure. None of the other
options are associated with the calcium crystals resulting from chronic gout.
Question 64
2 / 2 pts
The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of
genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?
Correct!
Cri du chat
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
This description is only accurate for Cri du chat syndrome.
Question 65
2 / 2 pts
Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk?
Relative
Correct!
ModifiableEmpirical
Genetic
Obesity is a modifiable risk factor for many diseases including heart disease, stroke,
hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. The other terms do not apply.
Question 66
2 / 2 pts
Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones?
Estrogen
Correct!
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Extrahypothalamic factors cause the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH, which stimulates
the anterior pituitary to secrete gonadotropins—FSH and LH. These hormones, in turn,
stimulate the gonads (ovaries or testes) to secrete female or male sex hormones.
Question 67
2 / 2 pts
Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
SmokingCorrect!
Hypertension
Polycythemia
Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus
Hypertension is the single greatest risk factor for stroke. The other options are
recognized risk factors but do not carry the intensity of hypertension.
Question 68
2 / 2 pts
When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the
muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
Synergistic
Correct!
Direct
Permissive
Pharmacologic
Direct effects are the obvious changes in cell function that specifically result from the
stimulation by a particular hormone. The other options are not used to identify the
described effect.Question 69
2 / 2 pts
Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?
Correct!
Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation
Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation
Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction
Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling
Muscle contraction is a four-step process: excitation, coupling, contraction, and
relaxation.
Question 70
2 / 2 pts
Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought
disorders associated with schizophrenia?
Hypothalamus
Limbic system
Correct!
Temporal lobeParietal lobe
.
Only temporal lobe alterations may be responsible for the production of positive
schizophrenic symptoms, such as hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders, and
bizarre behavior.
Question 71
0 / 2 pts
Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
A depressed Hispanic woman
A man diagnosed with schizophrenia
You Answered
An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday
Correct Answer
An individual on the second day after hip replacement
Delirium is associated with autonomic nervous system overactivity and typically
develops in 2 to 3 days, most commonly in critical care units, postsurgically, or during
withdrawal from CNS depressants (e.g., alcohol, narcotic agents). Age, gender, and
chronic illnesses are not generally associated with delirium triggers.
Question 72
2 / 2 pts
Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:
CalciumWater
Correct!
Sodium
Magnesium
In the kidney, aldosterone primarily acts on the epithelial cells of the nephron-collecting
duct to increase sodium ion reabsorption. This action cannot be said of the other
options.
Question 73
2 / 2 pts
What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is
located on the undersurface of the penis?
Hyperspadias
Correct!
Hypospadias
Chordee
Epispadias
Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the
ventral side or undersurface of the penis. This is the only term used for this condition.Question 74
2 / 2 pts
Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication
may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for
the condition?
Correct!
SSRIs
Estrogen
NSAIDs
Progesterone
A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms
in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only
prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen
and progesterone also can be continuously used for up to 3 months to decrease the
frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD).
Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered.
Question 75
2 / 2 pts
A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive
worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
12
39
Correct!
6
GAD is diagnosed when an individual spends at least 6 months worrying excessively
and exhibits at least three of the six symptoms. Although 3 months is not sufficient time,
the remaining options are excessive. [Show Less]