NR 340
NR 340 Week 3 Evolve Questions with Answers and Explanations
NR 340 Week 3
NR 340 Week 3 Evolve
NR 340 Week 3 Evolve Questions with Answers
... [Show More] and Explanations
Questions
1. 1.ID: 43154241
What is the therapeutic effect of head-of-the-bed elevation and neutral head and neck alignment on increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
o Lowering ICP by allowing for elevations in CO2 to dilate cerebral arteries
o Lowering ICP by facilitating venous drainage and decreasing venous obstruction Correct
o Lowering ICP by maintaining an open airway
o Lowering ICP by reducing the risk of snoring
Head-of-the-bed elevation and a neutral head position that avoids hyperextension or hyperflexion facilitate jugular venous drainage, helping to minimize increases in ICP. Elevated CO2 contributes to cerebral vessel vasodilation, which can increase cerebral blood volume and further elevate ICP. Maintaining an open airway alone does not minimize increases in ICP. Reducing the risk of snoring by maintaining an open airway alone does not minimize increases in ICP.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
2. 2.ID: 43154255
Under normal circumstances the cerebral vasculature exhibits pressure and chemical autoregulation. What happens when autoregulation is lost?
o Central venous engorgement occurs.
o Cerebral blood flow is not affected.
o Hypertension increases cerebral blood flow. Correct
o Shunting of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is blocked.
Autoregulation is the ability of the cerebral vessels to adjust their diameter in response to arterial pressure changes within the brain. If mean arterial blood pressure rises, cerebral vessels will constrict to prevent excessive distention of the cerebral arteries. When autoregulation is lost, cerebral vessels are no longer able to regulate diameter and as a result hypertension increases cerebral perfusion pressure. Cerebral vessels may become engorged as a result of the loss of autoregulation. Cerebral blood flow is affected with the loss of autoregulation. Loss of autoregulation does not block CSF flow.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
3. 3.ID: 43154263
The nurse is monitoring a patient’s intracranial pressure (ICP). While the nurse is providing hygiene measures, she observes that the ICP reading is sustained at 18 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
o Cease stimulating the patient. Correct
o Continue with hygiene measures.
o Lower the head of the bed to 10 degrees.
o Open the ICP monitor to continuous drainage.
Sustained increases in ICP should be avoided. Nursing care activities should be spaced to prevent an increase in ICP. Actions that cause a sustained elevation in ICP should be avoided until ICP returns to baseline resting values. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees or more can help reduce ICP. Continuous drainage of CSF fluid will result in herniation.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
4. 4.ID: 43154273
Herniation syndromes can be life-threatening situations. Which syndrome causes the supratentorial contents to shift downward and compress vital centers of the brainstem?
o Central herniation Correct
o Cingulate herniation
o Tonsillar herniation
o Uncal herniation
A downward shift of the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, and diencephalon through the tentorial notch causes central herniation, which compresses the vital centers of the brainstem. This results in a shift of one cerebral hemisphere under the falx cerebri to the other cerebral hemisphere. Cerebellar tonsils are displaced through the foramen magnum, causing fatal damage to the respiratory and cardiac centers. Uncal herniation compresses the midbrain, causing dysfunction of the ipsilateral third nerve, resulting in unilateral pupil dilation.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
5. 5.ID: 43154282
In a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which of the following cranial nerves would be assessed for consensual light response, elevation of the eyelids, and eye movement?
o I, IX, X
o II, V, VII
o II, VI, X
o III, IV, VI Correct
Cranial nerve III is responsible for the consensual light response, elevation of the eyelids, and eye movements. In addition, cranial nerves III, IV, and VI affect extraocular eye movements.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
6. 6.ID: 43154291
The nurse is managing the blood pressure of a patient with a traumatic brain injury. When planning the care of this patient, which statement best represents appropriate blood pressure management?
o Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) should be sustained at least 70 mm Hg. Correct
o Hypertension greater than 160 mm Hg is necessary to achieve adequate perfusion.
o Nimodipine reduces blood pressure through its effect on cerebral vessels.
o Nitrates are the vasopressors of choice with increased ICP.
To achieve adequate cerebral blood flow, cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP = MAP-ICP) should be at least 70 mm Hg. While hypotension may compromise cerebral blood flow, in the setting of increased intracranial pressure, hypertension (>160 mm Hg) can worsen cerebral edema by increasing microvascular pressure. Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that does not affect cerebral vasculature and is effective in providing quick, tight control of blood pressure.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
7. 7.ID: 43154500
The nurse is caring for a patient with a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. During initial assessment, the nurse notes that the cerebrospinal fluid draining into a ventriculostomy system is blood tinged. What is the best interpretation of this finding by the nurse?
o Cerebral aneurysms commonly rupture in the subarachnoid space. Correct
o This assessment finding is indicative of developing cerebral meningitis.
o Patient movement has resulted in dislodgement of the catheter.
o Normal cerebral spinal fluid contains a small amount of visible blood.
Cerebral aneurysms commonly rupture in the subarachnoid space, resulting in cerebral spinal fluid that is blood tinged. Cerebral spinal fluid is cloudy in the presence of meningitis. Ventriculostomy drains are typically sutured into place; a change in ICP waveform would be indicative of dislodgment of the catheter. Normal cerebrospinal fluid is clear.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
8. 8.ID: 43154509
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a spinal cord injury. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a complete loss of motor and sensory function below the patient’s nipple line. What is the best understanding of this assessment finding by the nurse?
o Anterior cord lesion
o Central cord lesion.
o Complete cord lesion. Correct
o Brown-Séquard syndrome
A complete cord lesion results in loss of motor and sensory function below the level of spinal cord injury. Assessment findings associated with anterior cord lesion include loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation while touch, proprioception, and sense of vibration remain intact. Assessment findings with central cord injury include impairment in the arms and hands and to a lesser extent in the legs. The brain's ability to send and receive signals to and from parts of the body below the site of injury is reduced but not entirely blocked. Assessment findings with Brown-Séquard syndrome include loss of motor function, proprioception, vibration, and light touch on the same side as the injury while on the side opposite the injury, there is a loss of pain, temperature, and crude touch sensations.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
9. 9.ID: 43154518
The nurse is preparing to admit a patient from the ED who has sustained a complete spinal cord lesion at the C5 level. When planning the patient’s care, which nursing intervention is most important?
o Perform hourly incentive spirometry. Correct
o Apply warming devices as needed.
o Give small, frequent feedings.
o Assist with passive range of motion.
A patient with a C5 spinal cord injury will have intact diaphragmatic breathing with varying impairment of intercostal and abdominal muscle function. It is most important for the nurse to perform hourly incentive spirometry to ensure the patient’s lungs adequately expand optimizing oxygenation. Applying warming devices, providing small frequent feeding, and assisting with passive range of motion are all a part of the care of a patient with spinal cord injury; however, in a patient with C5 injury, interventions that support oxygenation, airway patency, and pulmonary toilet are of the highest priority.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
10. 10.ID: 43154527
The nurse is caring for a patient with an assessed Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3. What is the best understanding of this finding?
o Coma scale score is a direct result of dysfunction of the cerebellum.
o Damage to the patient’s corpus callosum has led to a comatose state.
o A Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 3 indicates a semi-comatose state.
o There is impairment of the reticular activating system (RAS), resulting in coma. Correct
The reticular activating system (RAS) controls arousal, the sleep-wake cycle, selective attention, and perceptual awareness. The patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 has an impaired RAS system. Dysfunction of the cerebellum results in alteration of fine motor movement, muscle tone, balance, and coordination. The corpus callosum consists of fibers that provide connections between the two cerebral hemispheres. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 8 is consistent with coma.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
11. 11.ID: 43154536
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic nervous system to a variety of stimuli. Common causes of autonomic dysreflexia include: (Select all that apply.)
o bladder distention. Correct
o fecal impaction. Correct
o sinus bradycardia.
o urinary tract infection.
Causes of autonomic dysreflexia include bladder distention, stimulation to the bladder by a kinked Foley catheter, stimulation to the bowel by fecal impaction, rectal examination, or suppository insertion. Sinus bradycardia is a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia. Urinary tract infection is not a cause of autonomic dysreflexia; urinary retention is a cause.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points.
12. 12.ID: 43154549
Which statements best represent optimal fluid administration for the management of increased intracranial pressure? (Select all that apply.)
o Normal saline (0.9%) is recommended for fluid volume resuscitation. Correct
o The goal is to keep serum osmolality greater than 320 mOsm/L.
o 0.45% saline solution is acceptable for fluid volume resuscitation.
o Hypotonic solutions are avoided to prevent an increase in cerebral edema. Correct
Normal saline solution is recommended for fluid volume resuscitation because isotonic fluids do not increase cerebral edema. Hypotonic solutions are avoided to prevent increased cerebral edema by diffusing into the cerebral cells leading to swelling. The goal is to keep serum osmolality less than 320 mOsm/L. Hypotonic solutions, such as 0.45% saline solution, are avoided because they increase cellular swelling and cerebral edema.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points.
Questions
1. 1.ID: 43165217
Your patient was a passenger in a motor vehicle crash yesterday and suffered an open fracture of the femur. His condition was stable until an hour ago, when he began to complain of shortness of breath. His heart rate is 104 beats/min, respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min, BP is 90/60 mm Hg, and temperature is now 38.4° C. You suspect that he:
o has a fat embolism. Correct
o has developed metabolic acidosis.
o is developing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
o is experiencing early multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS).
These are classic signs and symptoms of a fat embolism. The history of a long-bone fracture adds to the evidence of a fat embolism. The patient may develop metabolic acidosis associated with poor oxygenation from the fat emboli. SIRS possibly progressing to MODS would also be a consequence of the fat emboli.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
2. 2.ID: 43165226
Poor patient outcomes after a traumatic injury are associated with:
o chest tube placement for treatment of a hemothorax.
o immediate decompression of a tension pneumothorax.
o massive transfusions of blood products. Correct
o intraosseous cannulation for intravenous fluid administration.
Current evidence suggests that patients receiving massive blood transfusions have poorer outcomes. Although a chest tube may be necessary in the treatment of trauma patients, it is not associated with poor patient outcomes. Immediate decompression of a tension pneumothorax is also not associated with poor patient outcomes. Intraosseous cannulation for intravenous fluid administration has not been shown to have adverse patient outcomes.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
3. 3.ID: 43165233
Which condition is a common cause of death after chest trauma?
o Cardiac tamponade
o Flail chest
o Hemothorax
o Pulmonary contusion Correct
Pulmonary contusion as a result of blunt chest trauma increases the risk for development of pneumonia, acute lung injury, and/or ARDS. Cardiac tamponade is life threatening if untreated, but it is not a common complication after blunt chest trauma. Flail chest and hemothorax may result with blunt chest trauma, but they are not common causes of death.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
4. 4.ID: 43165242
A trauma patient with a fractured forearm complains of extreme, throbbing pain at the fracture site and paresthesia in the fingers. Upon further assessment, you note that the forearm is extremely edematous and you are now having difficulty palpating a radial pulse. You notify the physician immediately because you suspect:
o compartment syndrome. Correct
o fat emboli.
o hypothermia.
o rhabdomyolysis.
These signs and symptoms are characteristic of late signs of compartment syndrome. Fat emboli are associated with long-bone fractures and typically manifest pulmonary symptoms. These signs and symptoms are characteristic of compartment syndrome, not hypothermia. Rhabdomyolysis is associated with a crush injury and compartment syndrome. A clinical sign that may be noted by the nurse is dark tea-colored urine.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
5. 5.ID: 43165251
The trauma patient presenting with left lower rib fractures develops left upper quadrant tenderness, hypotension, and referred pain to the left shoulder. You suspect:
o bowel obstruction.
o cardiac tamponade.
o pulmonary contusion.
o splenic injury. Correct
Splenic injury occurs most often as a result of blunt trauma to the abdomen. However, penetrating trauma to the left upper quadrant of the abdomen or fracture of the anterior left lower ribs also contributes to splenic injuries. The patient may present with left upper quadrant tenderness, peritoneal irritation, and/or referred pain to the left shoulder (Kehr’s sign). Hypotension or signs of hypovolemic shock may also be noted. The patient’s injury and associated signs and symptoms suggest an injury to the spleen rather than cardiac, bowel, or pulmonary injury.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
6. 6.ID: 43165260
Spinal cord injury causes a loss of sympathetic output, resulting in distributive shock with hypotension and bradycardia. Although blood pressure may respond to fluid resuscitation, what other therapy may be required to compensate for loss of sympathetic innervation?
o Colloids
o Glucocorticoids
o Proton pump inhibitors
o Vasopressors Correct
Blood pressure may respond to IV fluids, but vasopressor therapy is often required to compensate for the loss of sympathetic innervation and resultant vasodilation. Colloid administration alone will not provide necessary vascular tone to support perfusion. Glucocorticoids are given in the early stages of spinal cord injury to reduce edema associated with injury and to improve outcomes. Proton pump inhibitors may be given to prevent stress ulcers.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
7. 7.ID: 43165269
A restrained patient’s status after a motor vehicle crash includes dyspnea, dysphagia, hoarseness, and complaints of severe chest pain. Upon assessment you note that the patient has weak femoral pulses. Which of the following complications and related diagnostic test should be considered?
o Aortic dissection and aortogram Correct
o Cardiac tamponade and pericardiocentesis
o Liver laceration and focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST)
o Pulmonary contusion and chest x-ray
Signs of aortic disruption include weak femoral pulses, dysphagia, dyspnea, hoarseness, and severe pain. A chest x-ray study may demonstrate a widened mediastinum, tracheal deviation to the right, depressed left mainstem bronchus, first and second rib fractures, and left hemothorax. The diagnosis is confirmed by an aortogram. Cardiac tamponade presents with pulsus pardoxus and decreased cardiac output with poor venous return; a pericardiocentesis is the treatment of choice. Depending on the severity of the liver laceration, the patient will present with right upper quadrant abdominal pain and tenderness and hypotension. FAST is used to diagnosis hepatic injury and intraabdominal bleeding. Pulmonary contusion will present primarily with signs and symptoms of poor oxygenation, and a chest x-ray may not be helpful in diagnosing this condition.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
8. 8.ID: 43165277
The primary priority for the critical care nurse with regard to the trauma patient is which of the following?
o Decrease the patient’s risk for multiple organ dysfunction syndrome.
o Ensure adequate fluid resuscitation.
o Increase the physiological reserve of the trauma patient.
o Provide adequate oxygenation and tissue perfusion. Correct
The priority is to maintain adequate oxygenation and tissue perfusion through effective fluid resuscitation and management of the patient’s airway and breathing. Decreasing the patient’s risk for MODS is achieved by ensuring tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Increasing physiological reserve is not an initial priority in the management of the trauma patient.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
9. 9.ID: 43165285
A 72-year-old patient fractured his pelvis in a motor vehicle crash 2 days ago. He suddenly becomes anxious and short of breath. His respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute, and he is complaining of midsternal chest pain. His oxygen saturation drops to 75%. You suspect:
o cardiac tamponade.
o myocardial infarction.
o pulmonary embolus. Correct
o tension pneumothorax.
The patient’s history and respiratory signs and symptoms indicate pulmonary embolus. The patient's signs and symptoms do not suggest a cardiac tamponade; however, given the patient’s age, he may be evaluated for a possible myocardial infarction. His mechanism of injury and 2 days post injury make a tension pneumothorax less likely.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
10. 10.ID: 43165294
A 55-year-old trauma patient hit the steering wheel and has a cardiac contusion. Which are potential complications of the injury? (Select all that apply.)
o Flail chest
o Dysrhythmias Correct
o Hypotension Correct
o Myocardial ischemia Correct
A flail chest is commonly associated with rib fractures, which are not present in this patient. Cardiac contusions present with signs and symptoms of ineffective heart functioning, including dysrhythmias, decreased cardiac output (i.e., hypotension), and myocardial ischemia that may progress to infarction.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points.
11. 11.ID: 43165507
The nurse is assessing a patient for suspected alcohol withdrawal and identifies which signs and symptoms as suspicious? (Select all that apply.)
o Irritable, confused, hallucinations Correct
o Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea Correct
o Hypotension and tachycardia
o Low body temperature
o Seizures Correct
o Somnolent, difficult to arouse
Signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include irritability, agitation, confusion, hallucinations and delusions, insomnia, anxiety and tremors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, diaphoresis, tachycardia and hypertension, fever, and seizures.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points.
12. 12.ID: 43165518
When obtaining report on a trauma patient, which question would be helpful in determining potential injuries associated with the mechanism of injury? (Select all that apply.)
o Was the patient wearing a seat belt? Correct
o Where was the patient in the car? Correct
o Where are the family members?
o Was fluid resuscitation initiated?
When obtaining report on a trauma patient, several questions should be asked to help determine potential complications associated with the mechanism of injury. It is especially important to ask where the patient was sitting in the car and whether he or she was wearing a seatbelt. Asking the distance of a fall assists with understanding of complications from blunt forces. Information concerning the initiation of fluid resuscitation is helpful in determining tissue perfusion needs but may not provide insight into possible complications associated from the mechanism of injury. Information about the family is important for communication but does not assess etiology of injury.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points.
13. 13.ID: 43165530
To maintain the patient’s airway, which interventions are appropriate to implement with a trauma patient who sustained a spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.)
o Avoid hyperextension of the neck. Correct
o Observe respiratory pattern. Correct
o Insert an oral airway if patient is alert.
o Elevate the head of bed 30 degrees .
o Observe depth of ventilation. Correct
o Maintain complete spinal immobilization. Correct
Maintaining a patent airway is an essential intervention in the care of the trauma patient. When the patient has a spinal cord injury, additional precautions are needed, including the following: avoid hyperextension or rotation of the neck; maintain spinal immobilization; observe ventilatory effort, rate, depth, and effectiveness of breathing; monitor motor and sensory function; and anticipate the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. Oral airways should not be inserted in an awake patient, as it will cause an airway obstruction. The patient’s head of bed should remain flat, and spinal precautions should be taken.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points.
14. 14.ID: 43165543
Which interventions are appropriate to consider in the management of the geriatric trauma patient? (Select all that apply.)
o Ask the patient if he or she has fallen recently. Correct
o Obtain a detailed medical history. Correct
o Administer intravenous fluids rapidly to maintain blood pressure.
o Frequently assess for signs of acute delirium. Correct
o Observe for signs of infection, primarily elevated temperature.
o Obtain a detailed list of current medications. Correct
Geriatric trauma patients provide unique challenges related to changes in physiology associated with aging. Obtaining a fall history is important because falls are the primary mechanism of traumatic injury in the older adult. Obtaining a complete past and current medical history, including a list of current medications, is essential. Older patients are at a higher risk of fluid overload because of age-related changes in the cardiovascular system. Fluid resuscitation should be monitored closely to avoid complications of over-resuscitation. Monitor the patient for acute delirium, as delirium increases morbidity and mortality of the older trauma patient. The immune system is less responsive with aging, thus placing this patient at higher risk of infection and less pronounced changes in body temperature when infection is present. Brain mass decreases with aging; thus changes in neurological exam may progress gradually.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points.
15. 15.ID: 43165554
Prevention of hypothermia is crucial in caring for trauma patients. Which treatments are appropriate for preventing hypothermia? (Select all that apply.)
o Administer cool humidified oxygen.
o Cover the patient with an external warming device. Correct
o Leave the patient’s clothing on, even if wet.
o Warm fluids and blood products before or during administration. Correct
o Warm the room in the emergency department and critical care unit. Correct
Oxygen should be warm and humidified to prevent hypothermia. External warming devices are effective in preventing or treating hypothermia. All of the patient’s clothes should be removed so that the body can be inspected. Wet clothing increases the risk of hypothermia. After clothing is removed, the patient is warmed. Warming fluids and blood products reduces the risk of hypothermia. Warming the temperature in the rooms where care is provided is a strategy for preventing hypothermia.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points.
Questions
1. 1.ID: 43166490
A patient has sustained deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 60% of her body. Shortly after admission, her blood pressure drops rapidly to a systolic pressure of 70 mm Hg. You know this is primarily due to:
o carbon monoxide poisoning.
o extreme pain.
o hypovolemic shock. Correct
o sepsis.
Hypovolemic shock occurs soon after burn injury as a result of dramatic fluid shift. Carbon monoxide poisoning would present with signs of acute hypoxemia. Extreme pain would cause a sympathetic response and behavioral symptoms. Sepsis is a significant risk factor for burn-injured patients but would not present this quickly after initial injury.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
2. 2.ID: 43166499
Your patient weighs 60 kg and has a 40% TBSA burn injury. Fluid resuscitation orders are for 4 mL/kg/% burn of a lactated Ringer's solution. What volume will be infused during the first 8 hours?
o 2400 mL
o 3600 mL
o 4800 mL Correct
o 9600 mL
Fluid calculation is: 4 mL × 60 kg × 40 = 9600 mL, with half the amount, or 4800 mL, being given in the first 8 hours. 2400 mL and 3600 mL are too little volume; 9600 mL represents the 24-hour fluid resuscitation volume to be administered.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
3. 3.ID: 43166908
A temporary wound cover composed of a graft of skin transplanted from another human, living or dead, is called a(n):
o alloderm.
o allograft. Correct
o biobrane.
o xenograft.
An allograft is transplanted skin from another human being. Alloderm is an allograft from another human being with cells removed that target the immune response. Biobrane is a nylon mesh dressing embedded with collagen. Xenograft is a skin graft from a different species.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
4. 4.ID: 43166915
A major complication of an electrical burn injury is acute kidney injury caused by:
o excessive fluid resuscitation.
o the catabolic effect of the electrical current through the kidneys.
o the direct effects of the electrical current as it traverses the intima of the kidney.
o the release of myoglobin that can cause acute kidney injury. Correct
Myoglobin is released by damaged tissue and causes damage to renal tubules, contributing to acute kidney injury. Fluid resuscitation promotes renal blood flow and does not contribute to acute kidney injury. Catabolism affects the entire body and is not isolated to renal dysfunction.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
5. 5.ID: 43166921
The most crucial phase of treatment in burn care is during the:
o acute phase.
o emergent phase.
o rehabilitative phase.
o resuscitative phase. Correct
The acute and rehabilitation phases will not progress if the resuscitative phase is not successful; the greatest physiological insults tend to occur during this time. The acute phase follows the resuscitative phase; during this time the fluid shifts have stabilized and the patient tends to be more hemodynamically stable. There is no “emergent” phase of burn care. The rehabilitative phase begins after the acute phase ends; the patient is most stable during this time.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
6. 6.ID: 43166929
Ischemia to the gastrointestinal system may be caused by redistribution of blood to the brain and heart. The potential physiological effect of this is:
o anemia.
o ascites.
o ileus. Correct
o hepatic failure.
Ileus is the result of decreased blood flow to the bowel. Redistribution of blood during acute burn shock does not cause anemia, ascites, or hepatic failure.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
7. 7.ID: 43166936
All burn patients are at increased risk for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to:
o carboxyhemoglobinemia.
o a decrease in cardiac output. [Show Less]