NR 293 HESI Evolve Questions
NR 293 HESI Evolve Questions and Answers.
Chamberlain College of Nursing
1. Which response best supports the
... [Show More] observations that the nurse identifies in a client who is experiencing a placebo effect?
Psychological response to inert medication
2. Methylphenidate HCl (Concerta) is prescribed for daily administration to a 10-year-old child with attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). In preparing a teaching plan for the parents of this child newly diagnosed with ADHD, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to the parents?
Administer the medication in the morning before the child goes to school.
3. Which physiologic mechanism explains a drug's increased metabolism that is triggered by a disease process?
Pharmacokinetics
4. The health care provider prescribes ipratropium (Atrovent) for a client. An allergic reaction to which other medication would cause the nurse to question the prescription for Atrovent?
Atropine sulfate (Atropine)
5. A 42-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department after taking an overdose of amitriptyline (Elavil) in a suicide attempt. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer to reverse the cardiac & central nervous system effects of amitriptyline (Elavil)?
Sodium bicarbonate
6. A client who is hypertensive receives a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) – thiazide diuretic cause potassium wasting in the urine. When teaching about the side effects of this drug, which symptoms are most important for the nurse to instruct the client to report?
Fatigue & muscle weakness
7. The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic. – apply to the smallest surface of intact skin
8. The health care provider prescribes cisplatin (Platinol) to be administered in 5% dextrose & 0.45% normal saline with mannitol (Osmitrol) added. Which assessment parameters would be most helpful to the nurse in evaluating the effectiveness of the Osmitrol therapy?
Urine output
9. A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head injury is intubated & placed on assisted mechanical ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation & prevent the client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What medication should the nurse maintain at the client's bedside?
Neostigmine bromide (Prostigmin)
10. The nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory results before a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent is a st&ing order. Which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?
Hypokalemia - Low potassium levels enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
11. A female client with myasthenia gravis is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor & asks the nurse what can be done to remedy her fatigue & difficulty swallowing. What action should the nurse implement?
Develop a teaching plan for the client to self-adjust the dose of medication in response to symptoms. - Clients should be taught to recognize signs of overmedication & undermedication so that they can modify the dosage themselves based on a prescribed sliding scale.
12. A client receives pancuronium (Pavulon), a long-acting, nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker, during surgical anesthesia. Which client situation should alert the nurse to evaluate the client for a prolonged muscle relaxation response to this medication?
Renal insufficiency
13. A client is ordered 22 mg of gentamicin by IM injection. The drug is available in 20 mg/2 mL. How many mL should be administered?
2.2 mL - (22 mg/20 mg) × 2 mL = 2.2 mL
14. A client is receiving oral griseofulvin (Grisactin) for a persistent tinea corporis infection. Which response by the client indicates an accurate underst&ing of the drug teaching conducted by the nurse?
"I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn." - Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin (Grisactin), so clients should be cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
15. The nurse has completed diabetic teaching for a client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which statement by this client would indicate to the nurse that further teaching is needed?
"When I exercise, I should plan to increase my insulin dosage." - Exercise helps facilitate the entry of glucose into the cell, so increasing insulin doses with exercise would place the client at high risk for a hypoglycemic reaction.
16. The nurse is evaluating a client's underst&ing of the prescribed antilipemic drug lovastatin (Mevacor). Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
"I will take the medication every day before breakfast." - The enzyme that helps metabolize cholesterol is activated at night, so this medication should be taken with the evening meal.
17. A client with acute lymphocytic leukemia is to begin chemotherapy today. The health care provider's prescription specifies that ondansetron (Zofran) is to be administered IV 30 minutes prior to the infusion of cisplatin (Platinol). What is the rationale for administering Zofran prior to the chemotherapy induction?
Reduction or elimination of nausea & vomiting
18. A client who arrives in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after surgery is not awake from general anesthesia. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Review the medication administration record (MAR). - Most general anesthetics produce cardiovascular & respiratory depression, so a review of the client's MAR identifies all the medications received during surgery & helps the nurse anticipate the client's response & emergence from anesthesia.
19. Which class of antineoplastic chemotherapy agents resembles the essential elements required for DNA & RNA synthesis & inhibits enzymes necessary for cellular function & replication?
Antimetabolites
20. A client who is HIV-positive is receiving combination therapy with the antiviral medication zidovudine (Retrovir). Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
Return to the clinic every 2 weeks for blood counts. - Bone marrow depression with granulocytopenia is a severe but common adverse effect of zidovudine (Retrovir). Careful monitoring of CBCs is indicated.
21. During administration of theophylline (Theo-Dur), the nurse should monitor for signs of toxicity. Which symptom would cause the nurse to suspect Theo-Dur toxicity?
Restlessness - Other signs of toxicity are anorexia, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, tachycardia, arrhythmias, & seizures.
22. Amoxicillin, 500 mg PO every 8 hours, is prescribed for a client with an infection. The drug is available in a suspension of 125 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer with each dose?
20 mL
23. A 45-year-old female client is receiving alprazolam (Xanax) for anxiety. Which client behaviors would indicate that the drug is effective?
The staff observes the client sitting in the day room reading a book.
24. Which parameter is most important for the nurse to check prior to administering a subcutaneous injection of heparin?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
25. A client is receiving antiinfective drug therapy for a postoperative infection. Which complaint should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client has contracted a superinfection?
"My mouth feels sore." - Stomatitis caused by a thrush infection, which can cause mouth pain, is a sign of superinfection.
26. A client is taking famotidine (Pepcid). Which client statement should the nurse further assess because it may indicate that the client is experiencing a side effect of this drug?
"I seem to be having difficulty thinking clearly." - A common side effect of Pepcid is confusion.
27. A 2-month-old infant is scheduled to receive the first DPT immunization. What is the preferred injection site to administer this immunization?
Vastus lateralis
28. Prior to administering a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse reviews the client's current serum digoxin level, which is 1.3 ng/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
Give the dose of digoxin if the client's heart rate is within a safe range.
29. The nurse is preparing to administer a secondary infusion of a dobutamine solution to a client. The nurse notes that the solution is brown in color. Which action should the nurse implement?
Administer the drug if the solution's reconstitution time is less than 24 hours.
30. A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) to treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client prior to discharge?
Drink eight glasses of fluid a day. - Adequate hydration is important for all sulfa drugs because they can crystallize in the urine. If possible, the drug should be taken after eating to provide longer intestinal transit time.
31. A psychiatric client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for haloperidol (Haldol). Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
Use sunglasses & sunscreen when outdoors. - Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of haloperidol (Haldol).
32. In addition to nitrate therapy, a client is receiving nifedipine (Procardia), 10 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should plan to observe for which common side effect of this treatment regimen?
Hypotension - Nifedipine (Procardia) reduces peripheral vascular resistance & nitrates produce vasodilation, so concurrent use of nitrates with nifedipine can cause hypotension with the initial administration of these agents.
33. A client is receiving pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to control the symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Which client behavior would indicate that the drug therapy is effective?
Clear speech - Clear speech is the result of increased muscle strength. Muscle weakness characteristic of myasthenia gravis often first appears in the muscles of the neck & face.
34. An older client who had a colon resection yesterday is receiving a constant dose of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which assessment finding is most significant & requires that the nurse intervene?
Respirations decrease to 14 breaths/min. - Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is an opioid agonist-analgesic of opiate receptors that inhibits ascending pathways & can cause respiratory depression. Older adults are more sensitive to opioids so the "start low & go slow" approach should be taken.
35. The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B (Fungizone) IV to a client. What laboratory data is most important for the nurse to assess before initiating an IV infusion of this medication?
Serum potassium level
36. Methenamine m&elate (M&elamine) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection & renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
The frequency of urinary tract infections decreases.
37. Minocycline (Minocin), 50 mg PO every 8 hours, is prescribed for an adolescent girl diagnosed with acne. The nurse discusses self-care with the client while she is taking the medication. Which teaching points should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
Report vaginal itching or discharge.
Protect skin from natural & artificial ultraviolet light.
Avoid driving until response to medication is known.
Use a nonhormonal method of contraception if sexually active.
Adverse effects of tetracyclines include superinfections, photosensitivity, & decreased efficacy of oral contraceptives. Minocycline (Minocin) is known to cause dizziness & ataxia, so until the client's response to the medication is known, driving should be avoided.
38. A male client asks the nurse why condoms should not be lubricated with the spermicide nonoxynol-9. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Nonoxynol-9 provides no protection from STDs & has been linked to the transmission of HIV. - The use of condoms & a water-based spermicide is recommended because nonoxynol-9 can cause a rash that allows viruses a portal of entry if the condom breaks, which increases the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), herpes, human papillomavirus (HPV), or hepatitis B virus (HBV).
39. The health care provider prescribes the H2 antagonist famotidine (Pepcid), 20 mg PO in the morning & at bedtime. Which statement regarding the action of H2 antagonists offers the correct rationale for administering the medication at bedtime?
Hydrochloric acid secreted during the night is blocked.
40. Dopamine (Intropin) is administered to a client who is hypotensive. Which finding should the nurse identify as a therapeutic response?
Increase in urine output - Intropin activates dopamine receptors in the kidney & dilates blood vessels to improve renal perfusion, so an increase in urine output indicates an increase in glomerular filtration caused by increased arterial blood pressure.
41. The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine (Tegretol) for a child whose tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood tests every week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary. Which complication is assessed through frequent laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
Myelosuppression
42. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who has received a new prescription for levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid). Which instruction should be included?
"Take your pulse daily, & if it exceeds 100 beats/min, contact the health care provider." - Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) should be withheld if the pulse is over 100 beats/min. To prevent insomnia, the daily dose should be taken early in the morning before breakfast, not at bedtime.
43. Two hours after taking the first dose of penicillin, a client arrives at the emergency department complaining of feeling ill, exhibiting hives, having difficulty breathing, & experiencing hypotension. These findings are consistent with which client response that requires immediate action?
Severe acute anaphylactic response
44. A child with cystic fibrosis is receiving ticarcillin disodium (Ticar) for Pseudomonas pneumonia. For which adverse effect should the nurse assess & report promptly to the health care provider?
Petechiae - Adverse effects of ticarcillin disodium (Ticar) include hypothrombinemia & decreased platelet adhesion, which can result in the presence of petechiae.
45. A client with metastatic cancer who has been receiving fentanyl (Duragesic) for several weeks reports to the nurse that the medication is not effectively controlling the pain. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?
Notify the health care provider of the need to increase the dose.
46. A client is receiving acyclovir sodium (Zovirax) IV for a severe herpes simplex infection. Which intervention should the nurse implement during this drug therapy?
Increase daily fluids to 2000 to 4000 mL/day.
47. During the initial nursing assessment history, a client tells the nurse that he is taking tetracycline hydrochloride (Sumycin) for urethritis. Which medication taken concurrently with Sumycin could interfere with its absorption?
Sucralfate (Carafate) - Sucralfate (Carafate) is used to treat duodenal ulcers & will bind with tetracycline hydrochloride (Sumycin), inhibiting this antibiotic's absorption.
48. The nurse is reviewing prescribed medications with a female client who is preparing for discharge. The client asks the nurse why the oral dose of an opioid analgesic is higher than the IV dose that she received during hospitalization. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Oral forms of drugs must pass through the liver first, where more of the dose is metabolized.
49. The health care provider prescribes the anticonvulsant carbamazepine (Tegretol) for an adolescent client with a seizure disorder. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the health care provider if which condition occurs?
Develops a sore throat - Blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, & thrombocytopenia) can be an adverse effect of carbamazepine (Tegretol). Flulike symptoms, such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, & fever, are indications of such dyscrasias.
50. During therapy with isoniazid (INH), it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory value closely?
Liver enzyme levels
51. A client with mild parkinsonism is started on oral amantadine (Symmetrel). Which statement accurately describes the action of this medication?
Dopamine in the central nervous system is increased.
52. Which statement indicates that client teaching regarding the administration of the chemotherapeutic agent daunorubicin HCl (Cerubidine) has been effective?
"I expect my urine to be red for the next few days."
53. When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) for myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
Assess respiratory status & breath sounds often. - The client with myasthenia gravis is at greatest risk for life-threatening respiratory complications because of the weakness of the diaphragm & ancillary respiratory muscles caused by the disease process. Cholinergic agents used to reduce muscle weakness can also cause hypersalivation, increased respiratory secretions, & possible bronchoconstriction.
54. Which factor is most important to ensure compliance when planning to teach a client about a drug regimen?
Client education
55. Which question should the nurse ask a client prior to the initiation of treatment with IV infusions of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin)?
"Are you having difficulty hearing?" - Complications of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) therapy include ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, & neurotoxicity. Determining if the client is hard of hearing prior to initiation of this aminoglycoside will be helpful as the treatment progresses & ototoxicity is identified as a possible complication.
56. A female client with trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) receives a prescription for metronidazole (Flagyl). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include this client's teaching plan?
Avoid alcohol consumption.
57. A 26-year-old primigravida client is experiencing increasing discomfort & anxiety during the active phase of labor. She requests something for pain. Which analgesic should the nurse anticipate administering?
Butorphanol (Stadol)
58. In developing a nursing care plan for a 9-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis, the nurse writes a nursing diagnosis of Alteration in nutrition: less than body requirements, related to inadequate digestion of nutrients. Which intervention would best meet this child's needs?
Give pancrelipase (Cotazym-S) capsule mixed with applesauce before each meal.
59. The charge nurse is reviewing the admission history & physical data for four clients newly admitted to the unit. Which client is at greatest risk for adverse reactions to medications?
75-year-old woman with liver disease
60. A male client with prostatic carcinoma has arrived for his scheduled dose of docetaxel (Taxotere) chemotherapy. What symptom would indicate a need for an immediate response by the nurse prior to implementing another dose of this chemotherapeutic agent?
A cough that is new & persistent - is an adverse effect that is immediately life threatening. Severe fluid retention can cause pleural effusion (requiring urgent drainage), dyspnea at rest, cardiac tamponade, or pronounced abdominal distention (caused by ascites).
61. A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan?
Take & record radial pulse rate daily.
62. The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client receiving the glucocorticoid methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol). Which nursing diagnosis reflects a problem related to this medication that should be included in the care plan?
Risk for infection - Corticosteroids depress the immune system, placing the client at risk for infection.
63. A client receives a prescription for theophylline (Theo-Dur) PO to be initiated in the morning after the dose of theophylline IV is complete. The nurse determines that a theophylline level drawn yesterday was 22 mcg/mL. Based on this information, which action should the nurse implement?
Hold the theophylline dose & notify the health care provider. - The therapeutic range for theophylline is 10 to 20 mcg/mL, so the theophylline dose should be held for fear of causing toxicity.
64. A client has a positive skin test for tuberculosis. Which prophylactic drug should the nurse expect to administer to this client?
Isoniazid (INH)
65. When caring for a client on digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy, the nurse knows to be alert for digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. Which finding would predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
Low serum potassium level
66. Which medication is useful in treating digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity?
Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
67. A client is prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor, & a family member asks the nurse how this medication works. Which pharmacophysiologic explanation should the nurse use to describe this class of drug?
Improves nerve impulse transmission
68. Dopamine (Intropin), 5 mcg/kg/min, is prescribed for a client who weighs 105 kg. The nurse mixes 400 mg of dopamine in 250 mL D5W for IV administration via an infusion pump. What is the hourly rate that the nurse should set on the pump?
20 mL/hr
69. A 4-year-old child is receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which laboratory result should the nurse examine to assess the child's risk for infection?
Neutrophil count
70. A lidocaine IV infusion at 4 mg/min via infusion pump is prescribed for a client having premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The available premixed infusion contains 2 mg/mL of D5W. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the pump to deliver to this client?
120 - 120 mL/hr = 1 mL/2 mg × 4 mg/min × 60 min/hr.
71. A chemotherapeutic regimen with doxorubicin HCl (Adriamycin) is being planned for a client recently diagnosed with cancer. What diagnostic test results should the nurse review prior to initiating this treatment?
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
72. A client with angina pectoris is instructed to take sublingual nitroglycerin tablets PRN for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Take one tablet at the onset of angina & stop activity.
73. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority during IV administration of mechlorethamine HCl (nitrogen mustard) & actinomycin (Actinomycin D)?
Assess for extravasation at the IV site during infusion. - Mechlorethamine HCl (nitrogen mustard) & actinomycin (Actinomycin D) are vesicants; therefore, assessment for blister formation &/or tissue sloughing that can occur with leakage of these agents into surrounding subcutaneous tissues is essential to ensure client safety during the IV infusion.
74. A female client is receiving tamoxifen (Nolvadex) following surgery for breast cancer. She reports the onset of hot flashes to the nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Instruct the client that hot flashes are a side effect that often occurs with the use of this medication.
75. A mother brings her 18-month-old child to the community health center because the child has had "bad diarrhea" for the last 3 days. She states, "I bought some of this liquid at the pharmacy & gave my daughter a half-ounce." The nurse sees that the bottle contains loperamide (Imodium AD). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement initially?
Ask the mother when the child last voided.
76. The nurse performs a client assessment prior to the administration of a prescribed dose of dipyridamole & aspirin (Aggrenox) PO. The nurse notes that the client's carotid bruit is louder than previously assessed. Which action should the nurse implement?
Administer the prescribed dose of Aggrenox as scheduled. - A carotid bruit reflects the degree of blood vessel turbulence, which is typically the result of atherosclerosis. Aggrenox is prescribed to reduce platelet aggregation & should be administered to this client, who is at high risk for thrombus occlusion.
77. A client who has trouble swallowing pills intermittently has been prescribed venlafaxine (Effexor XR) for depression. The medication comes in capsule form. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for this client?
Contact the health care provider for another form of medication.
78. When developing a written nursing care plan for a client receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add this intervention?
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
79. The nurse knows that certain antipsychotic drugs cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Which extrapyramidal symptom is a permanent & irreversible adverse effect of long-term phenothiazine administration?
Tardive dyskinesia
80. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin (Dilantin), 50 mg PO bid, for the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in the emergency department?
Diazepam (Valium)
81. The health care provider has prescribed a low-molecular-weight heparin, enoxaparin (Lovenox) prefilled syringe, 30 mg/0.3 mL IV every 12 hours, for a client following hip replacement. Prior to administering the first dose, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Contact the health care provider to clarify the prescription. - Lovenox is a low-molecular-weight heparin that can only be administered subcutaneously, so the nurse should contact the health care provider to clarify the route of administration.
82. The health care provider prescribes oral contraceptives for a client who wants to prevent pregnancy. Which information is the most important for the nurse to provide to this client?
Take one pill at the same time every day until all the pills are gone.
83. A male client who has chronic back pain is on long-term pain medication management & asks the nurse why his pain relief therapy is not as effective as it was 2 months ago. How should the nurse respond?
Pharmacodynamic tolerance requires increased drug levels to achieve the same effect.
84. A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
Midazolam (Versed) IV - Conscious sedation uses sedative-hypnotics that do not compromise the airway, so IV midazolam (Versed), a short-duration benzodiazepine sedative, provides conscious sedation with local & regional anesthesia & has an amnestic effect.
85. A pediatric client is discharged home with multiple prescriptions for medications. Which information should the nurse provide that is most helpful to the parents when managing the medication regimens?
Maintain a drug administration record.
86. For which client(s) should the nurse withhold the initial dose of a cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2) inhibitor until notifying the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
An older adult with a history of a skin rash while taking glyburide (DiaBeta)
An adolescent with a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin
An adolescent at 34 weeks of gestation experiencing 1+ pitting edema
87. To evaluate whether the administration of an antihypertensive medication has caused a therapeutic effect, which action should the nurse implement?
Compare the client's blood pressure before & after the client takes the medication.
88. A client is experiencing an adverse effect of the gastrointestinal stimulant metoclopramide HCl (Reglan). Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
Demonstrates Parkinson's-like symptoms, such as cogwheel rigidity
89. The nurse plans to draw blood samples for the determination of peak & trough levels of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) in a client receiving IV doses of this medication. When should the nurse plan to obtain the peak level?
Thirty minutes after the dose is administered
90. A client who is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis is prescribed colchicine (Colcrys) USP, 1 mg PO daily. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
Report any vomiting to the clinic. - The client should be instructed to report signs of colchicine toxicity, such as nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, &/or abdominal pain, to the health care provider.
91. A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO daily, & acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN. The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
Decrease the dose of vitamin C. - Diarrhea is an adverse effect of high doses of vitamin C, so the nurse should anticipate a reduction in the dose of vitamin C.
92. A client with metastatic cancer reports severe continuous pain. Which route of administration should the nurse use to provide the most effective continuous analgesia?
Transdermal - Continuous pain is best managed by maintaining a constant serum drug level. Transdermal drug administration of an analgesic provides around the clock, controlled release of the medication that is absorbed through intact skin into the bloodstream to provide continuous pain relief.
93. A client who is receiving chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) to control his psychotic behavior also has a prescription for benztropine (Cogentin). When teaching the client &/or significant others about these medications, what should the nurse explain about the use of benztropine (Cogentin) in the treatment plan for this client?
The benztropine (Cogentin) is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.
94. A client with chronic gouty arthritis is talking allopurinol (Zyloprim), 100 mg PO daily. Which laboratory serum level should the nurse report to the health care provider to determine the therapeutic outcome?
Uric acid level
95. A client who is HIV-positive is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the management of anemia secondary to zidovudine (AZT) therapy. Which laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
Hematocrit (HCT) of 58%
96. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control?
Brush & floss teeth daily.
97. A client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse, "Why do I need to take all of these medications for TB?" What information should the nurse provide?
Multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant organisms.
98. When providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to a parent of a child diagnosed with ADHD, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Offer the child the medication before the child eats breakfast & after the child eats lunch.
99. A client taking linezolid (Zyvox) at home for an infected foot ulcer calls the home care nurse to report the onset of watery diarrhea. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Instruct the client to obtain a stool specimen to be taken to the laboratory for analysis.
1. A female client is receiving tetracycline (Vibramycin) for acne. Which client teaching should the nurse include?
Oral contraceptives may not be effective.
2. A client with Tourette's syndrome takes haloperidol (Haldol) to control tics & vocalizations. The client has become increasingly drowsy over the past 2 days & reports becoming dizzy when changing from a supine to sitting position. Which action should the nurse take?
Assess for poor skin turgor, sunken eyeballs, & concentrated urine output.
3. The nurse is assessing a stuporous client in the emergency department who is suspected of overdosing with opioids. Which agent should the nurse prepare to administer if the client becomes comatose?
Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
4. The nurse is preparing a child for transport to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. The anesthesiologist prescribes atropine sulfate (Atropine), IM STAT. What is the primary purpose for administering this drug to the child at this time?
Decrease the oral secretions.
5. The nurse is scheduling a client's antibiotic peak & trough levels with the laboratory personnel. What is the best schedule for drawing the trough level?
Instruct the laboratory to draw the trough immediately before the next scheduled dose.
6. A client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin IV starts to hemorrhage from an arterial access site. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to prevent further heparin-induced hemorrhaging?
Protamine sulfate
7. Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin, which assessment finding indicates that the medication was effective?
Decrease in level of chest pain
8. A client being treated for an acute myocardial infarction is to receive the tissue plasminogen activator alteplase (Activase). The nurse would be correct in providing which explanation to the client regarding the purpose of this drug?
This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.
9. A child is being treated with mebendazole (Vermox) for pinworms. Which type of diet should the mother be instructed to feed the child while the child is receiving this medication?
High-fat diet
10. Which assessment datum indicates to the nurse that a dose of granisetron (Kytril) administered IV prior to chemotherapy has had the desired effect?
Client denies nausea
11. In administering the antiinfective agent chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) IV to a client with bacterial meningitis, the nurse observes the client closely for signs of bone marrow depression. Which laboratory data would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
Platelet count
12. An older client is receiving a water-soluble drug that is more than the average dose for a young adult. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Determine the drug's serum levels for toxicity.
13. A client receives an antihypertensive agent daily. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the medication?
Obtain the client's blood pressure.
14. Alteration of which laboratory finding represents the achievement of a therapeutic goal for heparin administration?
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
15. The nurse is preparing to administer the disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) methotrexate (Rheumatrex) to a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which intervention is most important to implement prior to administering this medication?
Have another nurse check the prescription.
16. Which instructions should the nurse provide to an adolescent female client who is initiating treatment with isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne vulgaris? (Select all that apply.)
"Notify the health care provider immediately if you think you are pregnant."
"If you begin crying more than usual & feel sad, stop the drug & call the health care provider."
"Before, during, & after therapy, two effective forms of birth control must be used at the same time."
17. The nurse is administering the early morning dose of insulin aspart (NovoLog), 5 units subcutaneously, to a client with diabetes mellitus type 1. The client's fingerstick serum glucose level is 140 mg/dL. Considering the onset of insulin aspart (NovoLog), when should the nurse ensure that the client's breakfast be given?
5 minutes after subcutaneous administration
18. A 3-year-old boy is admitted to the emergency department after ingesting an unknown amount of phenobarbital (Luminal) elixir prescribed for his brother's seizure disorder. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
Take the child's vital signs. - Phenobarbital causes respiratory depression, so the priority intervention is assessment of vital signs.
19. A primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation is admitted to labor & delivery in preterm labor. She is started on a terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) continuous IV infusion via pump. This therapy is ineffective, & the baby is delivered vaginally. For which complication should the nurse monitor in this infant during the first few hours after delivery?
Hypoglycemia
20. The apical heart rate of an infant receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for congestive heart failure is 80 beats/min. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Obtain a serum digoxin level. - Sinus bradycardia (rate < 90 to 110 beats/min in an infant) is an indication of digoxin toxicity, so assessment of the client's digoxin level is the highest priority.
21. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has received a prescription for an antibiotic that is hepatotoxic. Which information should the nurse include in the instructions?
Avoid ingesting any alcohol or acetaminophen (Tylenol).
22. The nurse notes that the hemoglobin level of a client receiving darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) has increased from 6 to 10 g/dL over the first 2 weeks of treatment. Which action should the nurse take?
Notify the health care provider of the change in the client's laboratory values. - Although an increase in the client's hemoglobin level is desired, a rapid increase (more than 1 g/dL in a 2-week period) may lead to hypertension, so the health care provider should be notified of this excessive increase.
23. A 55-year-old client was diagnosed with schizophrenia 5 years earlier. Numerous hospitalizations have occurred since the diagnosis because of noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Which drug might work best for this particular client?
Fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate)
24. A female client who has started long-term corticosteroid therapy tells the nurse that she is careful to take her daily dose at bedtime with a snack of crackers & milk. Which is the best response by the nurse?
Advise the client to take the medication in the morning, rather than at bedtime.
25. Which intervention is most important for a nurse to implement prior to administering atropine PO?
Determine the presence of 5 to 35 bowel sounds/min.
26. A client experiencing dysrhythmias is given quinidine (Quinidex), 300 mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse plans to observe this client for which common side effect associated with the use of this medication?
Diarrhea [Show Less]