Details of NDEB RELEASED QUSTION BANK 2021 GRDED A (UPDATED 100% CORRECT ANSWERS)
NDEB RELEASED
QUSTION BANK 2021
GRDED A (UPDATED
100%
... [Show More] CORRECT
ANSWERS)
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
A patient experiences pain and some gingival swelling in the anterior segment of the mandible. The mandibular lateral incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender to percussion and gives a positive response to the electric pulp tester. There is some mobility. The most likely diagnosis is
A. acute apical abscess.
B. acute serous pulpitis.
C. lateral periodontal abscess.
D. acute suppurative pulpitis.
E. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.
The placement of a retentive pin in the proximal regions of posterior teeth would most likely result in periodontal ligament perforation in the
A. mesial of a mandibular first premolar.
B. distal of a mandibular first premolar.
C. distal of a mandibular first molar.
D. mesial of a mandibular first molar.
The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will
1. decrease pulp damage.
2. reduce frictional heat.
3. keep the operating site clean.
4. reduce clogging of cutting instruments.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The proposed mechanism by which a calcium hydroxide preparation initiates secondary dentin formation in direct pulp cappings is by
A. releasing calcium ions.
B. stimulating differentiated ameloblasts to lay down dentin.
C. stimulating fibroblasts to elaborate nuclei of the first order.
D. stimulating undifferentiated cells of the tissue to differentiate into odontoblasts.
When resecting the apical aspect of a tooth during endodontic apical surgery, it is appropriate to
A. perform a 45-degree bevel.
B. remove as little of the root as possible.
C. avoid curettage of the periradicular lesion.
D. place an amalgam retrofill.
For composite resin preparations, cavosurface enamel margins are bevelled because
1. a bevelled margin produces a more favorable surface for etching.
2. a bevelled margin improves the edge strength of the composite resin.
3. after etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage.
4. the procedure eliminates the need to polish the restoration.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
When using a high-speed handpiece for cavity preparation, the heat generated is directly related to the
1. duration of cutting.
2. size, speed and sharpness of the bur.
3. use of air and water spray.
4. effectiveness of the suction.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following instruments can be used for placing gingival bevels on cast gold inlay preparations?
1. Margin trimmers.
2. Enamel hatchets.
3. Carbide finishing burs.
4. Small diamond discs.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following is the most probable postoperative complication of intracoronal bleaching for a tooth that has an inadequate internal seal?
A. Fracture.
B. Discolouration.
C. Internal resorption.
D. External root resorption.
Fractured incisal angles in the permanent teeth of adolescent patients are best restored using
A. glass ionomer.
B. gold castings.
C. full coverage restorations.
D. acid etch composite resin techniques.
What are the purposes of using occlusal splints?
1. To change the pattern and degree of tactile afferent neural impulses.
2. To immobilize teeth.
3. To prevent teeth from disturbing occlusal sensory input.
4. To produce a permanent change in the occlusion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Histologically, a pulp polyp consists of all of the following EXCEPT for
A. a mass of collagenous fibres.
B. epithelial rests of Malassez.
C. proliferating capillaries.
D. fibroblasts.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
Treatment of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis should include
1. palliative treatment.
2. steroid therapy.
3. control of secondary infection.
4. application of dilute hydrogen peroxide.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Tooth mobility may be due to
1. excessive occlusal force.
2. decreased osseous support.
3. periodontal abscess.
4. gingival inflammation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the
A. buccal mucosa.
B. tongue.
C. floor of the mouth.
D. gingiva.
Enlargement of the gingiva, described as idiopathic fibromatosis, is best described as
A. degeneration.
B. inflammation.
C. hyperplasia.
D. neoplasia.
The primordial cyst probably results from
A. cystic degeneration of the stellate reticulum early in the formation of the tooth.
B. epithelial remnants in the periodontal ligament.
C. an extension of pulpal inflammation after death of the pulp.
D. failure of formation of the enamel matrix.
E. transformation of the dental lamina.
Histological sections of a lesion removed from the apex of a carious tooth show immature fibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells. The most likely diagnosis is a/an
A. acute periapical abscess.
B. odontogenic fibroma.
C. radicular cyst.
D. periapical granuloma.
E. central fibroma.
Radiographs of Garre's osteomyelitis show
A. formation of sequestra.
B. a worm-eaten pattern of bone destruction.
C. thickening of the cortex.
D. sinus tracts.
Increasing the kilovoltage setting on the dental x-ray machine results in
A. more gamma radiation.
B. greater collimation.
C. more penetration.
D. greater secondary radiation at the level of the skin.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
Oral lesions that fail to heal may be associated to
1. tuberculosis.
2. syphilis.
3. neoplasia.
4. diabetes.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
In dental radiology, patient protection from radiation is most important for
A. patients receiving antibiotics.
B. patients receiving corticosteroids.
C. individuals over fifty-years of age.
D. pregnant women.
E. young adults.
A salivary calculus is a
A. sialolith.
B. rhinolith.
C. phlebolith.
D. thrombolith.
An abnormal decrease in the flow of saliva is
A. ptyalism.
B. sialometaplasia.
C. xerostomia.
D. pyroglossia.
Which of the following can cause a contact stomatitis?
A. Dentifrice.
B. Lipstick.
C. Acrylic.
D. Antibiotics.
E. All of the above.
Fordyce's granules are
A. ectopic sebaceous glands.
B. ectopic sweat glands.
C. small calcified nodules.
D. aberrant mucous glands.
A large encapsulated fluid-filled tumour is removed from the hard palate. The most appropriate method of determining the nature of this lesion is to
A. examine the fluid under a microscope.
B. culture the fluid and examine for bacterial growth.
C. submit the tissue for histological examination
D. submit the tissue for exfoliative cytological study.
E. aspirate the fluid for electrophoresis study.
Acute maxillary sinusitis is associated with
1. pain in the posterior maxillary teeth.
2. nasal discharge.
3. tenderness of posterior maxillary teeth to percussion.
4. increase of pain when bending over.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
The collimator of an x-ray tube
A. produces a more homogeneous x-ray beam.
B. prevents secondary radiation.
C. focuses the x-ray beam.
D. restricts the diameter of the x-ray beam.
The quantity of radiation output in a dental X-ray apparatus is a function of
1. time.
2. kVp.
3. ma.
4. filtration.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
A zinc phosphate cement base
A. has the same radiopacity as amalgam.
B. is less radiopaque than amalgam.
C. has the same radiopacity as gold.
D. cannot be seen on a radiograph.
Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usually due to (an)
A. moniliasis.
B. ill fitting denture.
C. allergy to denture cleanser.
D. avitaminosis.
Chronic disseminated Langerhans cell disease
A. produces a solitary eosinophilic lesion.
B. produces bony defects as focal areas of bony rarefaction.
C. occurs only in adult life.
D. is a malignant lesion.
Which of the following is/are associated with dentin dysplasia type I?
1. Obliteration of pulp chambers.
2. Normal appearance of clinical crowns.
3. Small underdeveloped roots.
4. Periapical radiolucent areas.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Radiographically, a benign bone neoplasm is differentiated from a malignant one because in the benign lesion
1. the margins are irregular and fade into the surrounding bone.
2. the cortex remains intact.
3. there can be perforation of the periosteum.
4. the margins are defined and demarcated.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
On an occlusal radiograph, it is possible to misdiagnose the midline palatal suture as a
A. fracture.
B. palatal cyst.
C. granuloma.
D. abscess.
Median anterior maxillary cysts occur in the
A. nasal bone.
B. incisive canal and in the palatine process.
C. zygomatic process.
D. hamular process.
Squamous cell carcinomas of the lip occur most frequently on the
A. commissures.
B. lower lip near the midline.
C. inner surface of upper lip.
D. inner surface of lower lip.
E. upper lip near the midline.
The clinical appearance and texture of an early carcinoma of the floor of the mouth can be
A. red and soft.
B. white and rough.
C. ulcerated and indurated.
D. All of the above.
Oral foci of infection are of greatest clinical significance in the presence of
A. polycythemia vera.
B. iritis and uveitis.
C. eczema and urticaria.
D. rheumatoid arthritis.
E. subacute bacterial endocarditis.
A patient with hyperthyroidism may exhibit
A. weight gain.
B. delayed eruption of teeth.
C. exophthalmos.
D. gingival inflammation.
In fibrous dysplasia
A. foci of cartilage are a common histological finding.
B. an inflammatory infiltrate is characteristically present.
C. there are characteristic changes in the blood chemistry.
D. a ground-glass appearance is present on radiographs.
The most frequent location of a dentigerous cyst is the
A. third molar area.
B. symphysis of the mandible.
C. midline of the hard palate.
D. apical area of a devitalized tooth.
E. premolar area.
The prolonged use of antibacterial lozenges or mouthwashes contributes to the development of
A. oral candidiasis.
B. geographic tongue.
C. cancrum oris.
D. Koplik's spots.
E. aphthous ulcers.
Ludwig's angina may cause
A. respiratory obstruction.
B. cavernous sinus thrombosis.
C. suppurative encephalitis.
D. subdural empyema.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent area of the posterior mandible microscopically shows follicular areas lined with cylindrical cells resembling the enamel organ. The most likely diagnosis is a/an
A. neurofibroma.
B. ameloblastoma.
C. central fibroma.
D. periodontal cyst.
E. dentigerous cyst.
Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of
A. lichen planus.
B. sinusitis.
C. erythema multiforme.
D. anemia.
E. vitamin deficiencies.
Which of the following conditions are associated with AIDS?
1. Acute marginal periodontitis.
2. Hairy leukoplakia.
3. Candidiasis.
4. Geographic tongue.
A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) (2) (3)
C. (1) and (4)
D. All of the above.
Which of the following lesions has a tendency to bleed easily?
A. Pyogenic granuloma.
B. Osteoma.
C. Fibroma.
D. Papilloma.
E. Lipoma.
White lesions of the oral mucosa may be produced by
1. thickening of the epithelium.
2. increase of the keratinized layers.
3. coagulation by heat or chemicals.
4. mycotic infection.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Pyogenic granuloma is most frequently found on the
A. tongue.
B. gingiva.
C. buccal mucosa.
D. tonsillar pillars.
E. lips.
Which of the following is NOT associated with osteogenesis imperfecta?
A. Brown teeth.
B. Brittle bones.
C. Thin enamel.
D. Blue sclerae.
Inflammation involving the bone marrow of the jaw caused by infection from a tooth or the periodontium is called
A. osteoma.
B. periostitis.
C. osteomyelitis.
D. osteosclerosis.
E. pericementitis.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
Which of the following anatomic spaces is most likely to be involved as a result of an apical infection of a mandibular third molar?
A. Sublingual.
B. Submandibular.
C. Submental.
D. Submasseteric.
Laboratory examination of the blood of a patient with an acute bacterial infection would show
A. lymphocytosis.
B. leukocytosis.
C. monocytosis.
D. leukopenia.
E. eosinophilia.
Oral lichen planus has lesions which
A. bleed readily.
B. occur in the debilitated.
C. exhibit a positive Nikolsky's sign.
D. histopathologically show lymphocytic infiltration.
Swelling related to increased tissue fluid is called
A. thrombosis.
B. edema.
C. hematoma.
D. embolism.
E. surgical emphysema.
Chronically inflamed submandibular lymph nodes are
A. soft.
B. not palpable.
C. firm.
D. fixed.
Oral leukoplakia has the most favourable prognosis when it is
A. present in a non-smoker.
B. accompanied by pain.
C. infected with Candida albicans.
D. speckled in appearance.
E. on the hard palate.
Median anterior maxillary cysts are found in
A. the zygomatic process of the maxilla.
B. the incisive canal.
C. the uvula.
D. the hamular process.
Soft, white, elevated plaques of the oral mucosa are characteristic of
A. angioma.
B. candidiasis.
C. actinomycosis.
D. herpes simplex.
E. submucous fibrosis.
The redness of an inflammatory lesion of oral mucosa is due to
A. increased number of capillaries.
B. increased size of capillaries.
C. decreased thickness of epithelium.
D. decreased connective tissue elements.
E. All of the above.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
Which of the following most appropriately describes a traumatic neuroma?
A. A slow-growing, painless neoplasm.
B. A slow-growing, hypersensitive nodule.
C. A tumour at a recent extraction site.
D. A tumour of the tongue.
An occluded submandibular duct can be diagnosed by
A. history.
B. palpation.
C. sialography.
D. occlusal radiographs.
E. All of the above.
The typical history of a mucocele is
A. a slowly growing tumour mass.
B. a pain immediately before eating.
C. a trauma, swelling, rupture, disappearance and recurrence.
D. an ulcerated area on buccal mucosa.
E. frequent bleeding.
Median palatine cysts are classified as
A. developmental.
B. residual.
C. idiopathic.
D. odontogenic.
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) is an example of a local anesthetic which is chemically classified as an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. ethamine.
E. aminide.
Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel?
1. Zinc phosphate cement.
2. Polycarboxylate cement.
3. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Early signs and symptoms of localized alveolar osteitis (dry socket) include
1. bleeding.
2. bad odour.
3. pus formation.
4. pain.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Immediately after the extraction of a tooth, postoperative instructions should include
1. analgesics.
2. regular diet.
3. application of cold.
4. frequent rinsing of the socket.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Note: Some of the items in the Released Test Item Bank may have been discontinued due to outdated science or errors. In
addition, the format of some items is not currently used. The NDEB periodically reviews the bank to improve its quality, content,
and translation.
©The National Dental Examining Board of Canada 2017
Which of the following is a principle of closed fracture management?
A. Incision at fracture site.
B. Rigid fixation of fragments.
C. Debridement of fracture site.
D. Immobilization of fracture.
Preoperative evaluation of a healthy patient requiring elective oral surgery in hospital should include
1. a complete history.
2. a physical examination.
3. an oral examination.
4. appropriate laboratory tests.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Extraction of a tooth is CONTRAINDICATED in the dental office for a patient who
A. is 4 months pregnant.
B. has a Factor~VIII deficiency.
C. is hypothyroid.
D. had a myocardial infarct six months ago.
All of the following are side effect of prolonged tetracycline therapy EXCEPT
A. superinfection.
B. photosensitivity.
C. vestibular disturbances.
D. discoloration of newly forming teeth. [Show Less]