NCLEX STUDY ARCHER Exam Questions and
Answers 2023
TEST 1- MISSED QUESTIONS:
1. A pediatric client has rubeola. What kind of infection control measure
... [Show More] should the nurse
initiate?
a. Airborne precautions.
Rationale- The infection control measure that must be initiated is airborne transmission
precautions because the mode of transmission for rubeola, or measles, is airborne. This type of
transfer occurs when the pathogen is carried in dust or droplets in the air and that remains in
place for a sufficient time to infect a person exposed to this air.
Do not confuse rubeola with rubella. Rubeola (measles) requires airborne precautions,
whereas rubella requires droplet precautions.
2. The nurse is educating patient that are attending a prenatal class. Which of the following
statements should the nurse make?
a. “Amniocentesis may be used to assess for chromosomal abnormalities”
Rationale- Amniocentesis is a widely used antepartum test that may determine the gender of a
fetus, the presence of neural tube defects, chromosomal abnormalities, and fetal lung maturity.
This test also may be used therapeutically for polyhydramnios as it may remove some of the
excessive amniotic fluid volume.
3. The nurse has instructed a patient who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. Which
of the following statements by the patient would require a follow-up?
a. “I should weigh myself daily at the same time”
b. “I should wear a mask when I am in public”
Rationale- These two statements indicate that the patient needs further follow-up education to
correct the misconceptions. The client does not need to weigh themselves daily (Choice B) as
that would be applicable for CHF and not for atrial fibrillation. Considering daily weight checks
in CHF is useful to detect excess fluid retention, which may precede symptoms such as shortness
of breath. Wearing a mask in public is unnecessary as an infection is not the concern here
(Choice D).
4. The nurse is educating a pregnant client who is admitted with deep vein thrombosis in her
left lower extremity. The client is at 24 weeks of gestation. The client is placed on Low
Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH). Which of the following statements by the client
indicate that she understand the education regarding LMWH?
a. “I hate injections. I will likely switch to warfarin after delivery”
b. “There is an increased risk of fractures with long term LMWH therapy”
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c. “If I notice blisters or black, red areas at the injection site, then I will hold LMWH
and immediately contact the doctor”
Rationale- LMWH is the anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy because it does not cross the
placenta, but one may switch to warfarin in the post-partum period. While warfarin is
contraindicated during active pregnancy due to its potential to cause congenital fetal
disabilities, maternal/fetal bleeding, and miscarriages, it is considered safe in the post-partum
period. Warfarin is also safe in lactating/breastfeeding women. The client will need a minimum
of 3 to 6 months of anticoagulation and therefore will be requiring anticoagulation for a few
weeks even after delivery. Additionally, the risk of recurrent venous thromboses is high up to 6
weeks post-partum. Since the client does not like injections, oral anticoagulation with warfarin is
an option for her after delivery (Choice C).
Long-term treatment with LMWH m [Show Less]