This is Sacrococcygeal dysgenesis, an inherited trait in Manx cats. Look for dysgenesis, agenesis of sacrum or other spinal column abnormalities.
May
... [Show More] present asymptomatic or with palpable lumbosacral abnormalities and LMN hind limb signs. (Hopping or crouched gait). May see nonprogressive urinary or fecal incontinence, chronic constipation.
Sequelae include recurrent urinary tract infections, megacolon.
NO treatment.
Follow this link to see the original Merck image.
Refs: Pasquini's, Tschauner's Guide to Small Animal Clinics, vol 1, 2nd ed. p. 537, and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer What is wrong with this picture?
A - Pelvic fracture
B - Tail root avulsion
C - Left acetabular fracture
D - Megacolon
E - Sacrococcygeal dysgenesis
This is the clinical picture of Pericardial effusion. Note the spherical "Balloon heart". Follow this link to see a DV view of pericardial effusion. RX of choice is pericardiocentesis.
Ascites, distended jugulars suggests RIGHT congestive heart failure (CHF), more than left CHF (pulmonary edema, crackles, wheezes, cough).
Cor pulmonale is just another name for right CHF due to pulmonary hypertension.
Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) should be on your DDX. More likely to hear systolic murmur, arrhytmias, less likely to be muffled heart sounds. ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY resolves DDX between pericardial effusion, DCM and Peritoneopericardial hernia.
Refs: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 288-9, 1052-3, Tschauner/Pasquini's Guide to Sm An Clinics, 2nd ed. pp. 230-32 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer An 8-year old German shepherd is presented with a 1-month history of cough, labored breathing and lethargy. He has fainted a few times after exertion.
Upon physical exam pallor and a slow capillary refill time is noted. The dog has jugular distension, diminished, quiet heart sounds, ascites and weak, variable femoral pulses.
T=102.0 F (38.9 C)..[N=99.5-102.5 F]
HR=140 bpm...........[N=80-120]
RR=24 brpm...........[N=15-34]
A thoracic radiograph reveals the following.
What is the clinical diagnosis?
A - Peritoneopericardial hernia
B - Dilated cardiomyopathy
C - Congestive heart failure (left)
D - Pericardial effusion
E - Cor pulmonale
These are ventricular premature complexes (VPCs).
You had better be thinking the dog is in early stages of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM).
According to Merck, 9th ed. "...ventricular premature contractions on a routine ECG in a presumed healthy DOBERMAN Pinscher or BOXER is HIGHLY SUGGESTIVE of CARDIOMYOPATHY".
Echocardiography is the test of choice for definitive diagnosis of DCM.
Remember this mnemonic for DCM breed predispositions: "DCM in a BOX" (ie: "D_obes, C_ockers, M_assive dogs (giant breeds), in a BOX_er"
ALWAYS FATAL. Death usually in 6 to 24 months after Dx. WORSE Prognosis in DOBES, generally survive less than 6 months from Dx.
Ref: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 210-1 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer During a routine dental cleaning under isoflurane anesthesia on an 8-year old male neutered Doberman, the ECG monitor shows the following pattern.
The dog is stable and doing fine. What is this pattern?
A - Atrial fibrillation
B - Ventricular premature complexes
C - Atrioventricular (AV) block
D - Accelerated idioventricular rhythm
E - Sinus arrhythmia
The preferred answer is canine pyometra.
Pyometra is a life-threatening emergency which typically requires immediate surgery (ovariohysterectomy) if the cervix is closed and there is no obvious discharge. Open cervix pyometras are likely to present with a purulent discharge, simplifying Dx, but surgical ovariohysterectomy is still STRONGLY recommended.
Pyometra should always be near the top of your DDX when presented with an older intact female dog or cat with a fever and distended abdomen.
Follow these links to see a pyometra radiograph in a Norwegian Elkhound and to see a pyometra ultrasound in a cat.
Refs: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 1164-5 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer A 7 year-old intact female poodle is presented. The owner has noted a lot of drinking and some urinary accidents in the house in the last week and that the dog hasn't seemed herself either.
Yesterday she vomited twice. On physical exam the dog appears depressed and listless, has dark injected mucous membranes and a distended tender abdomen.
T=104 F (40 C)..[N=99.5-102.5 F]
HR=100 bpm.....[N=110-120]
RR=30 brpm......[N=15-34]
What diagnosis is of most immediate concern?
A - Pyometra
B - Intestinal foreign body
C - Hepato-splenic tumor
D - Diabetes mellitus
E - Pregnancy
Antihelminthics are the treatment of choice.
This is ascarid (roundworm) infestation and these are classic "milk spots"- liver scars left by migrating ascarid larva traveling to the lungs. In heavy infestation, larvae can cause pulmonary edema, consolidation, severe respiratory distress. May see icterus.
Follow this link to see another image of milk spots. A fecal exam would show eggs that look like this.
Rx with antihelminthics, like benzimidazoles, ivermectin, pyrantel, levamisole. May need antibiotics to treat secondary bacterial pneumonia, but primary Rx is antihelminthics.
Lincomycin is a lincosamide antibiotic used in pigs against mycoplasma pneumonia.
Clorsulon is used to treat liver flukes in cattle and sheep. Click here to see an adult ruminant liver fluke, Fasciola hepatica.
Click here to see a fluke egg.
Refs: Plumb's Vet Drug Handbook, 7th ed. pp. 753-60, 809-12, 778-9, 1183-4, 1520 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer If the following image is seen on necropsy, what would be recommended as a treatment plan for the remaining group of pigs?
A - There is no effective treatment
B - Clorsulon PO, all animals
C - Lincomycin IM, underweight animals
D - Decrease non-protein nitrogen in diet
E - Antihelminthics
This puppy has a laryngeal foreign body near the far left edge of the images. A small, round, mineral opacity is observed within the larynx ventral to C2 on the first lateral projection. This is a good example of why a radiographic review must encompass the ENTIRE image, including the periphery.
The patient became dyspneic at this point and was administered oxygen.
There is a second round mineral opacity within the descending colon.
A small seed was removed from the upper airway using endoscopy.
Click here to see normal canine thoracic radiographs.
Refs: Cote, Clin Vet Advisor 2nd ed. pp. 1295-97 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. Radiographic interpretation and images courtesy, Dr. A. Zwingenberger and Veterinary Radiology. - correct answer A 3-month-old French bulldog is presented with respiratory distress and vomiting.
Based on the radiographs shown below, which of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Laryngeal foreign body
B - Normal radiographs
C - Cranio-ventral aspiration pneumonia
D - Vascular ring anomaly
E - Hiatal hernia with gastric displacement
12-18 months after the initial outbreak, sows are usually no longer transmitting the Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus, so segregated early weaning and removal of nursery pigs (with concurrent disinfection of nursery before repopulation) may help control the virus.
Because it appears that sows generally only abort once, culling after the first farrowing not advisable.
Antibiotic administration can help control secondary bacterial infections, but not the arterivirus responsible for PRRS. Adding negative gilts to a herd already infected with the virus is unlikely to result in control.
Refs: Jackson and Cockcroft, Handbook of Pig Medicine, 1st ed. pp. 70-71, 187-188 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition - correct answer Which one of the following represent the most effective control measures in herds infected with porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus?
A - Cull all sows after first farrowing
B - Maintain therapeutic levels of streptomycin in feed
C - Nursery depopulation, segregated early weaning 12-18 mos after outbreak
D - Buy PRRS-negative gilts, test on arrival, segregate 45 days, retest before join herd
E - Vaccinate boars in contact with sows, maximize pen ventilation
Think Pulmonic stenosis if you see RIGHT ventricular hypertrophy, because pulmonic valves blocks outflow from R ventricle (mostly dogs). Follow this link to see a Merck image of Rt. ventricular hypertrophy.
Heard as a systolic murmur heard most loudly LEFT chest between the 2nd and 4th intercostal (IC) space; genetic link in beagles. Predilection seen in many breeds, including Eng. Bullldog, Min. Schnauzer, Scotties, Chihuahuas, Cockers, Boxers.
Mitral stenosis can be confused with aortic stenosis (also called sub-aortic stenosis [SAS]), a systolic murmur which may be heard most loudly on the left chest between the 2nd and 5th intercostal (IC) space or at the thoracic inlet (lateral to trachea).
Mitral dysplasia and other mitral valve problems are heard further back on left at 5th-6th IC. More common in CATS.
Tricuspid dysplasia is heard further back on RIGHT at 5th-6th IC. Uncommon. Expect a continuous murmur with PDA. Vast majority detected at first vaccination visit.
Refs: Blackwell's 5-Minute Vet Consult Canine Feline, 4th ed. pp. 1156-57, 905, Cote, Clin Vet Advisor-Dog and Cat 2nd ed. pp. 941-3 and the Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer During a necropsy on a 4-year old Beagle who died suddenly, a severe right ventricular hypertrophy is noted.
Which condition is highest on the differential diagnosis list?
A - Mitral dysplasia
B - Tricuspid dysplasia
C - Aortic stenosis
D - Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
E - Pulmonic stenosis
Systemic sulfonamides like trimethoprim sulfa have been associated with keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), sometimes irreversibly. Another drug-associated cause of TRANSIENT KCS is the combination of recent general anesthesia and atropine.
Other causes of KCS include: Distemper, Immunologic (think ATOPY), Breed (Pugs, Yorkies), and trauma (Proptosed eyeball).
Ref: The Merck Veterinary Manual online edition. - correct answer A 7 year old female spayed Border Collie is presented with two very goopy, gunk-covered eyes.
A Schirmer tear test finds less than 10 mm/minute of wetting, a decreased result from the normal of at least 15mm / minute of wetting.
The owner reports that the dog has been on "some kind of medicine" for the last 10 days, but it is actually his girlfriend's dog, and he doesn't know what the medicine is.
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) secondary to the drug is suspected. Which drug may be causing the KCS?
A - Amitraz
B - Trimethoprim sulfa
C - Griseofulvin
D - Itraconazole
E - Prednisolone [Show Less]