After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which of the following structures?
Select one:
a. Superior vena cava
b. Aorta
c. Inferior vena
... [Show More] cava
d. Pulmonary artery
Aorta
Which of the following joints is between the metacarpals and phalanxes?
Select one:
a. Condyloid
b. Pivot
c. Saddle
d. Hinge
Condyloid
According to continuing education requirements, which of the following is true?
Select one:
a. Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education each year.
b. Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years.
c. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education each year.
d. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education every 2 years.
Check
Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years.
Which of the following muscles is a synergist during the seated cable row exercise?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Pectoralis major
c. Biceps brachii
d. Rotator cuff
Biceps brachii
The autonomic nervous system contains which of the following subdivisions?
Select one:
a. Sympathetic
b. Somatic
c. Peripheral
d. Central
Sympathetic
Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Davis's law
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
Synergistic dominance
According to the sliding filament theory, muscular contraction occurs when
Select one:
a. actin and myosin filaments slide away from each other.
b. myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin.
c. the distance from Z line to Z line is increased.
d. myofibrils are lengthened.
myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin.
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts?
Select one:
a. Force-couple relationships
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Length-tension relationships
d. Arthrokinematic dysfunction
Synergistic dominance
Which of the following tests should a trainer use in his cardiorespiratory assessment to determine in which heart rate training zone the training should begin?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. YMCA step test
d. L.E.F.T. test
YMCA step test
The Durnin-Womersley formula's four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations?
Select one:
a. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest
b. Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh
c. Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique
d. Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring
Check
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest
The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying an individual's
Select one:
a. level of risk for cardiovascular disease.
b. level of motivation to begin an exercise program.
c. level of readiness for participation in sports competitions.
d. level of available social support to aid in weight loss endeavors.
Check
level of risk for cardiovascular disease.
Which of the following methods uses a percentage of a client's estimated maximal heart rate to calculate target heart rate?
Select one:
a. Peak VO2
b. Peak maximal heart rate
c. Heart rate reserve
d. VO2 reserve
Peak maximal heart rate
Which of the following is the best example of an exercise that predominately uses the ATP-PC pathway for energy?
Select one:
a. A set of three barbell cleans
b. A 10-exercise circuit training workout
c. 20-repetition body squats exercise
d. 30 minutes of walking on a treadmill
A set of three barbell cleans
If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?
Select one:
a. Hip flexor complex
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Hamstring complex
d. Posterior tibialis
Hip flexor complex
Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test, anterior view
b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view
c. Pushing assessment, lateral view
d. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
Check
Pushing assessment, lateral view
Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body?
Select one:
a. Push-up
b. Pushing
c. Pulling
d. Bench press
Push-up
The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. VO2 reserve
b. Estimated oxygen consumption
c. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
d. Heart rate reserve (HRR
Estimated oxygen consumption
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
b. Teres minor and posterior deltoid
c. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus
d. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?
Select one:
a. Lower trapezius
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Levator scapulae
d. Scalenes
Check
Lower trapezius
While observing a pulling assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's shoulders elevating. Which of the following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the client's underactive muscles?
Select one:
a. Standing shoulder shrug
b. Seated shoulder press
c. Ball cobra
d. Ball bridge
Ball cobra
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Biceps femoris
d. Gluteus maximus
Latissimus dorsi
During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor brevis
b. Gluteus medius
c. Biceps femoris
d. Vastus lateralis
Gluteus medius
A personal trainer is working with a client who regularly wears high heels. The trainer should expect to see overactivity or tightness in which of the following tissues?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon
b. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon
c. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon
d. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon
Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon
Front lunges and biceps curls occur in which plane of motion?
Select one:
a. Frontal
b. Scapular
c. Transverse
d. Sagittal
Sagittal
Which of the following static stretches is most appropriate if a client's feet turn outward during the overhead squat test?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius stretch
b. Scalene stretch
c. Erector spinae stretch
d. Sternocleidomastoid stretch
Gastrocnemius stretch
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?
Select one:
a. Single leg throw and catch
b. Medicine ball rotation chest pass
c. Floor push-ups
d. Ball dumbbell chest press
Medicine ball rotation chest pass
Which of the following exercises is an appropriate training modification for a client who is taking medication for hypertension?
Select one:
a. The Valsalva maneuver
b. Exercises in prone and supine positions
c. Ball combo II
d. Peripheral heart action resistance exercises
Peripheral heart action resistance exercises
A client has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician. The trainer should
Select one:
a. use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity.
b. employ plyometric-stabilization training.
c. use prediction formulas to estimate the client's max heart rate.
d. implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo.
Check
use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity.
Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Barbell squat
b. Single-leg Romanian dead lift
c. Seated stability ball military press
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance
Barbell squat
A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy phase for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?
Select one:
a. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise
b. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise
c. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
d. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise
8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects?
Select one:
a. Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings
b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction of the hamstrings
c. Synergistic dominance of the quadriceps
d. Relative flexibility of the quadriceps
Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg balance and reach on Airex pad
b. Multiplanar step-up to balance
c. Single-leg lift and chop
d. Single-leg hop-up with stabilization
Multiplanar step-up to balance
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?
Select one:
a. Static stretching
b. Self-myofascial release
c. Active-isolated stretching
d. Dynamic stretching
Check
Self-myofascial release
When performing a single-leg squat exercise, a client is unable to keep the knee of the balance leg in line with the toes. Which of the following exercises is an appropriate modification?
Select one:
a. Single-leg balance reach
b. Multiplanar lunge to balance
c. Box hop-up with stabilization
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
Single-leg balance reach [Show Less]