NAPSRx Quizzes 1 to 20 (Questions with Answers) All Correct
Quiz 1
1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
2. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions?
A. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan
B. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan
C. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada
D. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia
4. The U.S. accounts for about ____ of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues.
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 95%
5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry?
A. increased international standardization and regulation
B. international legalization of DTC advertising
C. population growth and increased life expectancies
D. all of these
6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities?
A. Genomic research company is another term for ethical research company.
B. Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove immediately profitable.
C. Pharmaceutical companies have little to no interest in partnerships with genomic research companies.
D. Pharmaceutical companies will be genomic research companies' biggest competitors in the coming years.
7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
8. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high price of medicines.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
9. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC (direct-to-consumer) advertising.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
10. What influences the number of districts in a region?
A. the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region
B. the region's population
C. both the district's population and the number of qualified sales representatives who apply to represent that region
D. none of these
11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery systems?
A. California and Florida have different demographics.
B. California and Florida have different drug companies.
C. California and Florida have different DTC advertisements.
D. California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.
12. The heart of a pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Manager.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
13. Most DMs did not start as representatives.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
14. How many territories are in a typical district?
A. 1 to 2
B. 8 to 12
C. 30 to 40
D. 50 to 100
15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share?
A. comparative selling
B. criticizing the competition
C. power point presentations
D. questioning doctors' choices
Quiz 2
1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4. According to Chapter 2 of your manual, which of the following would classify as payers?
A. employers
B. patients
C. pharmacists
D. physicians
5. According to your manual, what defines ethical pharmaceutical companies?
A. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations
B. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH
C. manufacturing generics
D. researching and developing novel drugs
6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live?
A. another 10 years
B. another 20 years
C. another 5 years
D. another 50 years
8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890?
A. almost 10 years
B. almost 15 years
C. almost 30 years
D. almost 5 years
9. What is a treatment group?
A. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment
B. a group of patients who have volunteered to receive the active drug, but not the placebo
C. A group of substances being tested
D. A list of study protocols
10. What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study?
A. A blinded study is performed to control the placebo effect whereas a double-blinded study is performed to control the observer effect.
B. A double-blinded study has two control groups, but a blinded study only has one.
C. Blinded studies are more scientifically rigorous.
D. In a double-blind study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which in the control.
11. What does asymptomatic mean?
A. exhibiting atypical signs or symptoms that were not indicated in the product packaging
B. not exhibiting signs or symptoms
C. refusing treatment for symptoms
D. toxic or harmful to the human body
Quiz 3
1. Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)?
A. anatomy
B. cytology
C. oncology
D. physiology
2. In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3. How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug?
A. any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body
B. any substance that causes legitimate side effects
C. any substance that outperforms a placebo
D. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body
4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT?
A. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow.
B. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes.
C. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body.
D. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires.
5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field?
A. epidemiology
B. epigenetics
C. pharmacodynamics
D. pharmacokinetics
7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT?
A. By definition, placebos must be designed to affect everyone equally.
B. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable.
C. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms.
D. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms.
8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually?
A. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration.
B. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream.
C. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth.
D. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in patients with swallowing problems.
10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration?
A. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose
B. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose
C. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision
D. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a second opinion
11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
12. The kidney of an 85-year-old person excretes drugs only _____ as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old person.
A. around 15%
B. around 30%
C. around 50%
D. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors.
13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person’s age.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet?
A. Caplets are made of compressed powder.
B. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing.
C. Caplets are used for sustained-release drugs.
D. Caplets contain hard cylindrical granules, liquids, or some combination of these.
15. Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”?
A. on the label of all prescription drugs
B. on the labels of all generic drugs
C. only on the labels of drugs dispensed at pharmacies (as opposed to, e.g., product samples at doctors' offices)
D. only on the labels of product samples
16. What happens in slow acetylators?
A. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase are less likely to reach toxic levels than in fast acetylators.
B. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer.
C. Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase tend to reach lower blood levels, but remain in the body longer.
D. None of these statements apply to slow acetylators.
Quiz 4
1. About _____ of the people in the U.S. are slow acetylators.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 25%
D. 50%
2. Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is INCORRECT?
A. Drug-drug interactions are always harmful.
B. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect causing toxicity when taken together.
C. Duplication can involve two drugs with the same effect intensifying each other's therapeutic effects without any serious side effects.
D. Opposition can involve two drugs with opposing actions interacting to reduce one's effectiveness but not the other's.
3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT?
A. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern.
B. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods.
C. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs.
D. all of these
5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or magic bullet as Ehrlich phrased it?
A. It does not exist.
B. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site.
C. It would not harm healthy tissues.
D. All of these statements are correct.
6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance?
A. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance.
B. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance.
C. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate.
D. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or cancel cells' abilities to withstand drug effects.
7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction?
A. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity.
B. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life.
C. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria.
D. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale.
9. Why is non-compliance a serious public health concern?
A. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives.
B. It increases the cost of medical care.
C. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers.
D. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons.
10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations?
A. the drug itself
B. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream
C. the way the drug is made
D. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things.
11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for which they are marketed as equivalents.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to ________.
A. 3.50%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. The drugs must be 100% equivalent.
14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT?
A. They are also called “large molecule drugs.
B. They are derived from living materials.
C. They do not cause immune responses.
D. Vaccines are a type of biologic.
15.“Large molecule” products are developed and manufactured by a chemical process.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
16. What are drugs that attract or bind to cell receptors in order to mimic or enhance activities by endogenous chemical messengers?
A. agonists
B. antagonists
C. orphan drugs
D. steroids
Quiz 5
1. Which term denotes how an API works in the body?
A. formulation
B. mechanism of action
C. site of action
D. therapeutic group
2. What cements the active and inert components together to maintain cohesive portions?
A. binders
B. colors
C. disintegrants
D. lubricants
3. What does the medical abbreviation BID denote?
A. as needed
B. bioavailable in diet
C. quality of drugs
D. twice a day
4. What is the medical abbreviation for as needed?
A. BID
B. PRN
C. PSN
D. QID
5. Which components might cause patients' different reactions to brand name and generic drugs?
A. differences in active ingredients
B. differences in inactive ingredients
C. differences in both active and inactive ingredients
D. Patients' reactions to a brand name and generic drugs are equivalent.
6. All cells have a nucleus.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
7. Which of the following does NOT affect drug response?
A. the patient's genetic makeup, age, body size, and use of other drugs and dietary supplements.
B. the patient's other conditions or diseases.
C. whether or not the patient takes the drug properly
D. All of these factors influence drug response.
8. Drug reactions are predictable because they do not occur after a person has been previously exposed to the drug one or more times without any allergic reactions.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action?
A. They are usually somewhat removed from each other.
B. They are usually the same site.
C. They should not be the same site for economic reasons.
D. They should not be the same site for safety reasons.
10. What is CMAX?
A. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells
B. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve
C. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect
D. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve
11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology?
A. Drug Distribution and Elimination
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacoprocesses
12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration?
A. buccal
B. Intramuscular
C. sublingual
D. transfugal
13. How are intradermal drugs delivered?
A. by injection under the skin
B. through a skin patch
C. through a topical ointment
D. under the tongue
14. What is an example of intravenous drug delivery?
A. a subcutaneous insulin injection
B. a transdermal nicotine patch
C. an injection of anesthetic directly into the bloodstream
D. any type of pre-surgery anesthetic
15. What are the major organs of the gastrointestinal system?
A. the heart, the blood vessels, and the blood
B. the lymph nodes and lymph vessels
C. the mouth, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, small and large intestines
D. the nasal passages, the trachea, the diaphragm, and the lungs
Quiz 6
1. Who is normally responsible for selling to distributors?
A. Floaters
B. Local Territory Representatives
C. NAMs
D. Pharmacy Benefit Managers
2. How often do secondary drug wholesale distributors buy their drugs directly from manufactures?
A. always
B. almost always
C. sometimes
D. never
3. By FDA law, large chain pharmacies are not allowed to buy directly from drug manufactures.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4. Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors?
A. brokerage sales
B. drop shipment sales
C. integrated delivery network sales
D. manufacturer-direct sales
6. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)?
A. a company that owns and operates 3 or fewer pharmacies
B. a wholesaler that obtains drugs from manufacturers and delivers them directly to pharmacists' warehouses
C. an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates contracts on behalf of its members
D. any distributor of a prescription drug that conducts at least 22 transactions every 2 years
7. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around ____________ than those dispensed by retail pharmacies.
A. 3 times smaller
B. just slightly smaller
C. 3 times larger
D. 10 times larger
8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-stock sale?
A. brokerage sales
B. dock-to-dock sales
C. drop shipments
D. All of these are examples of non-stock sales.
9. What is another term for rebates?
A. after-market arrangements
B. in-state arrangements
C. mail-order arrangements
D. sell-side arrangements
10. The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufacturers Association.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
11. A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an ____________.
A. authorized distributor
B. independent drug store
C. in-state wholesaler
D. integrated drug store
12. Which section of a drug's package insert information covers the usual dosage range?
A. clinical pharmacology
B. contraindications
C. description
D. indications and usage
13. Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
14. What should be included in the description section of a drug's package insert information?
A. the drug's proprietary name and the established name
B. the indications
C. the mechanism of action
D. warnings
Quiz 7
1. Exclusivity gives exclusive _____, is granted by the FDA, and can run concurrently with a patent or not.
A. marketing rights
B. research work
C. trademark assignment
D. values
2. What differentiates exclusivity from a patent?
A. Exclusivity can be granted at any time during a drug's lifespan.
B. Exclusivity can encompass a wide range of claims, whereas patents do not.
C. Exclusivity is only granted upon the drug's FDA approval.
D. Exclusivity typically lasts longer than patents.
3. What is required of an invention for it to be worthy of patent protection?
A. It must be novel, useful, and not obvious.
B. It must have been on the market for at least 3 months.
C. It must have competitors.
D. all of these
4. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.
A. bioequivalent
B. biophysical
C. different
D. similar
5. Which of the following is NOT required by the FDA's Criteria for Equivalency?
A. The drugs are adequately labeled.
B. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same active ingredients.
C. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients.
D. The drugs involve the same dosage form and route of administration.
6. A generic drug is ______ to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.
A. bioequivalent
B. biophysical
C. different
D. similar
7. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. International Council on Harmonization (ICH) Handbook
B. “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence”
C. The Blue Book
D. The Red Book
8. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating?
A. AZ
B. B
C. BZ
D. CZ
9. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels?
A. biological equivalents
B. branded generics
C. therapeutic alternatives
D. therapeutic equivalents
10. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use?
A. generic
B. OTC
C. therapeutic alternative
D. vector-based
11. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed?
A. chemical substitution
B. generic substitution
C. pharmaceutical license
D. Pharmacist's license
12. What is the duration of a patent challenge?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 180 Days
D. 1 Year
Quiz 8
1. How is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf?
A. Drug sample closets are like grocery store shelves in all these ways.
B. The generic products are usually kept on the top shelf.
C. The more expensive products are always kept on the top shelf.
D. The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed.
2. Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3. Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4. The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5. Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a signature for that amount.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
6. What is prohibited by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, as amended by the Prescription Drug Marketing Act?
A. pharmaceutical companies providing research results directly to consumers
B. the purchase of another company's drug research without written permission from the FDA
C. the sale of pharmaceutical products to more than 8 different therapeutic classes
D. the sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples
7. The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a pharmaceutical representative.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
8. Which of the following is permitted by Section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?
A. hospitals donating their prescription drug coupons to qualified charitable organizations
B. hospitals donating their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations
C. hospitals selling their prescription drug samples to qualified charitable organizations at reduced costs
D. none of these
9. Which entity issues monographs that define how drugs should be stored, and what variance is allowed in their stated contents?
A. FDA
B. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
C. International Council on Harmonization (ICH)
D. United States Pharmacopoeial Convention
10. Storage conditions for drug products are based on information supplied by the manufacturer.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
11. Medications are usually unaffected by changes in temperature, light, humidity, and other environmental factors.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
12. In which cases can degraded drugs SOMETIMES still be used?
A. always
B. never
C. when the amount of remaining drug has not fallen lower than 85-90% of that stated on the label
D. when the degraded drug causes additional side effects, but they are nonfatal
13. Drug recalls are almost always negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
14. Which problem would NOT be improved by electronic prescribing systems?
A. patients doctor-shopping for controlled substances
B. pharmacists misreading prescriptions
C. physicians wasting time calling pharmacies
D. none of these
15. What should you do if you receive a shipment from your employer and you notice that there are twice as many samples as what is posted on the packing slip?
A. Call your Sales Manager to inform him/her of the mistake and ask for instructions on proper procedure.
B. Give each physician twice as many samples as this will increase the promotion of this particular drug.
C. Store the samples for your next trade show.
D. Store the samples in your home office and use them as samples as needed.
Quiz 9
1. Which area of drug R&D has seen the largest cost increases?
A. animal testing
B. clinical trials
C. manufacturing
D. self-regulation
2. On average, how long does it take for a new drug to be developed (i.e., from the discovery of the initial compound to FDA approval)?
A. 3-5 years
B. 10-15 years
C. 15-20 years
D. 20-30 years
3. Which of the following regulatory agencies is industry-based (i.e., run mainly by the companies themselves)?
A. Drug Enforcement Administration
B. European Medicines Agency
C. Pharmaceutical Research and Manufactures of America (PhRMA)
D. the FDA
4. Which of the following factors has simplified the pharmaceutical R&D process?
A. an intensive regulatory process
B. growing demand in the medical community for more complex data about pharmaceuticals
C. the increasing number of procedures in Phase III trials
D. none of these
5. The landmark FDA Modernization Act of 1997 was a major step forward in enabling safe and effective new drugs and biologics to be made available sooner to patients.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
6. According to your manual, which type of system is the best way to deliver healthcare?
A. a central-price system
B. a market-based system
C. a non-negotiable system
D. a patient-restrictive system
7. How would increased pharmaceutical price controls affect the U.S. healthcare system?
A. Increased price controls would encourage the development of more life-saving medicines.
B. Increased price controls would limit the FDA's power.
C. Increased price controls would similarly increase companies' incentives to invest in R&D.
D. Increased price controls would stifle innovation.
8. Which of the following invests a greater percentage of sales in research than the biotech sector?
A. the aerospace sector
B. the communications sector
C. the electronics sector
D. none of these
9. What was the intent of the Bayh-Dole Act and the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act?
A. to curb the commercialization of technologies
B. to hasten the commercialization of technologies that otherwise might not be used
C. to keep government-funded ideas under government control
D. to secure funding for public university-based research initiatives
10. According to your manual, what did the G10 Medicines Group recently report about the pharmaceutical industry in the European Union (EU)?
A. The EU pharmaceutical industry has surpassed the US pharmaceutical industry because of increased price controls in the EU. [Show Less]